How many such pairs of letters are there in the word ‘CLEANLINESS’ each of the which has as many letters between them in the word as they have in the English alphabet, in the same sequence?
A
Two
B
Three
C
Five
D
Four
E
None of these
Question 2Single Answer
Team A has scored more goals than Team B
Team C has scored fewer goals than Team B
Team A has scored fewer goals than Team C .
If the first two statements are true, the third statement is
A
True
B
False
C
Uncertain
D
None
Question 3Single Answer
If it is possible to make only one meaningful word with the second, the third, the sixth and the eight letters of the word FRAGMENT using each only once, which of the following will be the third letter of that word ? If no such word can be formed, give ‘X’ as the answer and if more than one such word can be formed, give ‘Y’ as the answer.
A
A
B
E
C
T
D
X
E
Y
Question 4Single Answer
How many such letters are there in the word ORIENTAL each of which is as far away from the beginning of the word as when they are arranged alphabetically?
A
None
B
One
C
Two
D
Three
E
More than three
Question 5Single Answer
How many such pairs of letters in the word CREDIT each of which has as many letters between them in the word as in the English alphabet?
A
None
B
One
C
Two
D
Three
E
More than three
Question 6Single Answer
How many meaningful words can be made from the letters ‘LMEA’ using each letter only once in each word?
A
None
B
One
C
Two
D
Three
E
More than three
Question 7Single Answer
If it is possible to make only one meaningful word with the first, the second, the seventh and the eighth letters of the word TEMPORAL, which of the following will be the first letter of that word? If more than one such word can be made, give ‘Y’ as the answer and if no such word can be made, give ‘X’ as the answer.
A
T
B
L
C
E
D
Y
E
X
Question 8Single Answer
If the letters of the word HANDOVER are arranged alphabetically from left to right how many letters will remain at the same position?
A
None
B
One
C
Two
D
Three
E
More than three
Question 9Single Answer
How many such pairs of letters are there in the word EXCURSION, each of which has as many letters between them in the word as they have in the English alphabet?
A
None
B
One
C
Two
D
Three
E
More than three
Question 10Single Answer
If it is possible to make only one meaningful word with the first, the second, the third, the sixth and the eighth letters of the word DEVIATION first letter of that word is your answer? If more than one such word can be made formed your answer is ‘A’ and if no such word can be formed your answer is ‘B’.
A
V
B
T
C
E
D
A
E
B
Question 11Single Answer
If each alternate letter beginning with the first in the word WORKING is replaced by the next letter in the English alphabet and each of the remaining letters is replaced by the previous letter in the English alphabet, which of the following will be the fourth from the right and after the replacement ?
A
N
B
Q
C
J
D
M
E
None of these
Question 12Single Answer
How many pairs of letters are there in the word ‘SHIFTED’ each of which has as many letters between its two letters as there are between in the English alphabet?
A
None
B
One
C
Two
D
Three
E
None of these
Question 13Single Answer
Statement: Is common currency a necessary ingredient for Europe’s growth ?
Arguments :
I. Yes, A common currency will enable entire Europe to market itself as one .
II. No, Similar experiments by Latin America countries have not affected their economies .
A
The only argument I is strong
B
Only argument II is strong
C
Either I or II is strong
D
Neither I nor II is strong
Question 14Single Answer
If it is possible to make only one meaningful word with the first, the fifth, the sixth, the tenth and the eleventh letters of the word EXCEPTIONAL using each letter only once, first letter of that word is your answer. If no such word can be made formed your answer is ‘X’ and if more than one such word can be formed your answer is ‘Y’.
A
P
B
L
C
T
D
X
E
Y
Question 15Single Answer
How many meaningful English words can be formed with the letters RAE using each letter only once in each word?
A
None
B
One
C
Two
D
Three
E
More than three
Question 16Single Answer
Passage :
A B C D E F G H I J K L M N O P Q R S T U V W X Y Z .
Which letter in this alphabet is the eighth letter to the right of the letter and which is tenth letter to the left of the last but one letter of the alphabet ?
A
X
B
W
C
I
D
H
Question 17Single Answer
Passage :
Direction : The following question is based on the five words given below:
AND FOR THE BIG SUM (The new words formed after performing the mentioned operations may or may not necessarily the meaningful English words.)
If the third alphabet of each of the words is changed to the next alphabet in the English alphabetical series, which of the following will form a meaningful English word?
A
SUM
B
BIG
C
Both BIG and THE
D
FOR
E
Both FOR and BIG
Question 18Single Answer
Passage :
Direction : The following question is based on the five words given below:
AND FOR THE BIG SUM (The new words formed after performing the mentioned operations may or may not necessarily the meaningful English words.)
If the given words are arranged in the order as they would appear in a dictionary from left to right, which of the following will be second from the right ?
A
AND
B
FOR
C
THE
D
BIG
E
SUM
Question 19Single Answer
Passage :
Direction: The following question is based on the five words given below:
AND FOR THE BIG SUM (The new words formed after performing the mentioned operations may or may not necessarily the meaningful English words.)
If second alphabet in each of the words is changed to next alphabet in the English alphabetical order, how many words having two vowels (same or different vowels) will be formed ?
A
None
B
One
C
Two
D
Three
E
Four
Question 20Single Answer
Passage :
Direction : The following question is based on the five words given below:
AND FOR THE BIG SUM (The new words formed after performing the mentioned operations may or may not necessarily the meaningful English words.)
How many letters are there in the English alphabetical series between the second letter of the word which is second from the right and the second letter of the word which is second from the left of the given words?
A
Two
B
Five
C
Six
D
Nine
E
Three
Question 21Single Answer
Passage :
Direction: The following question is based on the five words given below:
AND FOR THE BIG SUM (The new words formed after performing the mentioned operations may or may not necessarily the meaningful English words.)
If in each of the given words, each of the consonant is changed to previous letter and each vowel is changed to next letter in the English alphabetical series, in how many words thus formed will no vowels appear?
A
None
B
One
C
Two
D
Three
E
More than three
Question 22Single Answer
Passage :
Direction : Following question is based on five words given below: BRU LEGINKCATOWN
(The new words formed after performing the mentioned operations may or may not necessarily be meaningful English words)
If the third alphabet in each of the words is changed to the next alphabet in the English alphabetical order, how many words having two vowels (same or different vowels) will be formed?
A
None
B
One
C
Two
D
Three
E
Four
Question 23Single Answer
Passage :
Direction : Following question is based on five words given below: BRU LEGINKCATOWN
(The new words formed after performing the mentioned operations may or may not necessarily be meaningful English words)
If the position of the first and the second alphabets of each of the words are interchanged, which of the following will form a meaningful English word?
A
Both CAT and OWN
B
Both BRU and INK
C
Only CAT
D
Only INK
E
Only LEG
Question 24Single Answer
Passage :
Direction: Following question is based on five words given below: BRU LEGINKCATOWN
(The new words formed after performing the mentioned operations may or may not necessarily be meaningful English words)
If the given words are arranged in the order as they would appear in a dictionary from left to right, which of the following will be exactly in the middle of the five words?
A
OWN
B
LEG
C
BRU
D
CAT
E
INK
Question 25Single Answer
Passage :
Direction: Following question is based on five words given below: BRU LEGINKCATOWN
(The new words formed after performing the mentioned operations may or may not necessarily be meaningful English words)
If in each of the given words, each of the consonants is changed to previous letter and each vowel is changed to next letter in the English alphabetical series, in how many words thus formed will the same alphabet appear twice?
A
None
B
One
C
Two
D
Three
E
More than three
English
Question 26Single Answer
I go to Madurai by —– Vaigai Express
A
a
B
an
C
some
D
the
Question 27Single Answer
Have the car stolen!
A
Steal the car
B
You should have the stolen car
C
Get someone to steal the car
D
They have stolen the car
Question 28Single Answer
The payment was collected by the hardworking salesman.
A
The hardworking salesman collected the payment.
B
the salesman who worked heard was able to collect the payment.
C
to collect the payment the salesman had to work hard.
D
The hardworking salesman was able to collect the payment.
Question 29Single Answer
I had to stop all my work to complete this project.
A
All other work had to be stopped to complete this project by me
B
For completing this project all other work must be stopped
C
For completing this project I had to stop all my work
D
To complete this project all other work had been stopped by me
Question 30Single Answer
They have published the names of all the successful candidates.
A
The candidates who have succeeded their names they had published.
B
The names of all the successful candidates have been published by them
C
The candidates who have succeeded their names have been published by them.
D
The names of all the successful candidate were published by them.
Question 31Single Answer
The online shopping site lowered the prices.
A
Lowering of the prices was done by the online shopping site
B
The prices were lowered by the online shopping site
C
The prices had been lowered by the online shopping site
D
The prices have been lowered by the online shopping site
Question 32Single Answer
Who taught you to drive a truck ?
A
To drive a truck by whom were you taught?
B
Driving a truck by who were you taught?
C
Driving a truck by who were you being taught?
D
By whom were you taught to drive a truck?
Question 33Single Answer
We shall invite Suresh.
A
Suresh would be invited by us
B
Suresh would have been invited by us
C
Suresh will be invited by us
D
Suresh will have been invited by us
Question 34Single Answer
Dark clouds have overcast the evening sky.
A
By the dark clouds the evening sky was overcast.
B
The evening sky has been overcast by the dark clouds.
C
Dark clouds overcastted the evening sky.
D
The sky of the evening was overcasted by dark clouds.
Question 35Single Answer
The partners will celebrate their triumph tomorrow.
A
The triumph would be celebrated by the partners a day before
B
The triumph would be celebrated by the partners a day after
C
The triumph would have been celebrated by the partners a day after
D
The triumph will have been celebrated by the partners tomorrow
Question 36Single Answer
Why did break the vase?
A
why is the vase broken by him
B
why was the vase broken by him
C
why had been the vase broken by him
D
why has been the vase broken by him
Question 37Single Answer
Mariam was writing a note to her boss.
A
A note was written to her boss by Mariam
B
A note was wrote by Mariam to her boss
C
A note was being written by Mariam to her boss
D
A note was written by Mariam to her boss
Question 38Single Answer
The baby really enjoys that music.
A
That music was really enjoyed by the baby.
B
That music was really being enjoyed by the baby.
C
That music is really enjoyed by the baby.
D
This music was really enjoyed by the baby.
Question 39Single Answer
The weather disrupted the final match.
A
The final match has been disrupted by the weather.
B
The final match had been disrupted by the weather.
C
The final match was disrupted by the weather.
D
The final match was being disrupted by the weather.
Question 40Single Answer
The management committee is required to publish a report every year.
A
report would be published by the management committee every year.
B
A report would have been published by the management committee every year.
C
A report requires to be published by the management committee every year.
D
Every year the report would be published by the management committee.
Question 41Single Answer
Passage :
Direction : Question below has two blanks, each blank indicting that some thing has been omitted. Choose the word for each blank which best fits the meaning of the sentence as a whole.
The Finance Department has ……………a centralized online databank system for all statutory government bodies to …………an eye on their assets and liabilities.
A
presented , stay
B
introduced , keep
C
announce , make
D
created , let
E
proclaimed , hold
Question 42Single Answer
Passage :
Direction : The five items in this section consists of a word or group of words followed by four words as (a), (b), (c) and (d). Select the word which is nearly opposite to the meaning of the original word or group of words and mark your response as (a), (b), (c) and (d), as the case may be, in your Answer Sheet.
Assets
A
liabilities
B
responsibilities
C
estates
D
profits
Question 43Single Answer
Passage :
Direction : In the question, out of the four alternatives, choose the word which is opposite in meaning to the given word and click the button corresponding to it
Affidavit
A
Affirmation
B
Slander
C
Oath
D
Testimony
Question 44Single Answer
Passage :
Direction: In the following question, out of the four alternatives, choose the word which is opposite in meaning to the given word and click the button corresponding to it
Hollow
A
Alveolate
B
Cleft
C
Cavernous
D
Solid
Question 45Single Answer
Passage :
Directions: In the following question, out of the four alternatives, choose the word which is opposite in meaning to the given word and click the button corresponding to it
Cosset
A
Ignoreb
B
Close
C
Caress
D
Fondle
Question 46Single Answer
Passage :
Directions: In the following question, out of the four alternatives, choose the word which is opposite in meaning to the given word and click the button corresponding to it
Ogle
A
Leer
B
Gaze
C
Ignore
D
Gawk
Question 47Single Answer
Passage :
Directions:In the following question, out of the four alternatives, choose the word which is opposite in meaning to the given word and click the button corresponding to it
Intrinsic
A
Elemental
B
Innate
C
Connate
D
Acquired
Question 48Single Answer
Passage :
Direction : In the following question, out of the four alternatives, choose the word which is opposite in meaning to the given word and click the button corresponding to it
Coalesce
A
Separate
B
Adhere
C
Cleave
D
Amalgamate
Question 49Single Answer
Passage :
Directions: In the following question, out of the four alternatives, choose the word which is opposite in meaning to the given word and click the button corresponding to it
Loiter
A
lag
B
Hasten
C
Amble
D
Loii
Question 50Single Answer
Passage :
Direction : Question below has two blanks, blank indicating that something has been omitted. Choose the set of words for blank which best fits the meaning of the sentence as a whole.
The protests were......... at ......... awareness among the elite and the educated.
A
held, generating
B
aimed, creating
C
targeted, awakening
D
focused, building
E
concentrated, producing
Important Questions Package
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Aptitude
Question 51Single Answer
The cash difference between the selling prices of an article at a profit of 4% and 6% is Rs. 3. The ratio of the two selling prices is:__________ ?
A
51:52
B
52:53
C
51:53
D
52:55
Question 52Single Answer
Which of the following numbers is irrational ?
A
√49
B
0.125
C
√2
D
22/7
Question 53Single Answer
356 x 936 – 356 x 836 = ?
A
35600
B
34500
C
9630
D
93600
Question 54Single Answer
Arrange in descending order: 5/8, 7/10, 3/4
A
3/4 > 7/10 > 5/8
B
7/10 > 3/4 > 5/8
C
3/4 > 5/8 > 7/10
D
5/8 > 7/10 > 3/4
Question 55Single Answer
What is (3^{4} times 9^{2}) ?
A
36
B
38
C
310
D
96
Question 56Single Answer
If 34X-2 = 729, then find the value of X.
A
4
B
3
C
2
D
5
Question 57Single Answer
Convert 0.6 into fraction ?
A
3/5
B
2/3
C
4/5
Question 58Single Answer
The no. plate of a bus had peculiarity. The bus number was a perfect square. It was also a perfect square when the plate numbers were reversed. The bus company had only five hundred buses numbered from 1 to 500. What was the number ?
A
169
B
36
C
196
D
Can not say
Question 59Single Answer
If a and b are positive integers, such that ab = 125, then (a-b)a+b-4 = ?
A
16
B
25
C
28
D
30
Question 60Single Answer
If x*y = x2 + y2 – xy, then value of 9*11 is
A
93
B
103
C
60.5
D
121
Question 61Single Answer
Which is greater ?
A
15/16
B
17/18
C
Equal
D
Cannot compare
Question 62Single Answer
If sum of two numbers is 42 and their product is 437, then find their difference.
A
3
B
4
C
5
D
7
Question 63Single Answer
Write the 44000 in Roman numerals
A
XLI
B
XLVI
C
XLIV
D
XLVIC
Question 64Single Answer
Convert 0.0909… into fraction ?
A
1/11
B
9/11
C
1/9
D
9/10
Question 65Single Answer
What is (98 times 102) ?
A
9996
B
10000
C
10096
D
10196
Question 66Single Answer
Passage :
information given below and answer the question that follow.
The result of an exam is given below. Out of 1000 students who appeared
(i) 658 failed in Physics
(ii) 166 failed in Physics and Chemistry
(iii) 372 failed in Chemistry, 434 failed in Physics and Maths
(iv) 590 failed in Maths, 126 failed in Maths & Chemistry
Find the number of people who failed in (assuming that none is passed in all subjects.
We have the following equations:
a+ b + c + d + e + f + g = 1000
a + b + d + e = 658, b + d = 166
b + d + c + f = 372
d + e = 434 as in the figure.
d + e + f + g = 590, d + f = 126. Find the values
Chemistry but not in Physics.
A
318
B
198
C
213
D
206
Question 67Single Answer
Passage :
Direction: information given below and answer the question that follow.
The result of an exam is given below. Out of 1000 students who appeared
(i) 658 failed in Physics
(ii) 166 failed in Physics and Chemistry
(iii) 372 failed in Chemistry, 434 failed in Physics and Maths
(iv) 590 failed in Maths, 126 failed in Maths & Chemistry
Find the number of people who failed in (assuming that none is passed in all subjects.
We have the following equations:
a+ b + c + d + e + f + g = 1000
a + b + d + e = 658, b + d = 166
b + d + c + f = 372
d + e = 434 as in the figure.
d + e + f + g = 590, d + f = 126. Find the values
Physics or Maths but not in Chemistry.
A
558
B
718
C
628
D
None of these
Question 68Single Answer
Passage :
For the next four question that follow:
In a city, three daily newspapers A, B, C are published, 42% read A; 51% read B; 68% read C; 30% read A and B; 28% read B and C; 36% read A and C; 8% do not read any of the three newspapers.
Let x% people read all the three newspapers.
Since 8% people do not read any newspapers.
(x – 24) + (x – 7) + (x + 4) + (30 – x) + (36 – x) + (28 – x) + x = 92
→ x + 98 – 31 = 92
→ x = 92 – 67 = 25
What is the percentage of persons who read all the three papers ?
A
20%
B
25%
C
30%
D
40%
Question 69Single Answer
Passage :
For the next four : question that follow :
In a city, three daily newspapers A, B, C are published, 42% read A; 51% read B; 68% read C; 30% read A and B; 28% read B and C; 36% read A and C; 8% do not read any of the three newspapers.
Let x% people read all the three newspapers.
Since 8% people do not read any newspapers.
(x – 24) + (x – 7) + (x + 4) + (30 – x) + (36 – x) + (28 – x) + x = 92
→ x + 98 – 31 = 92
→ x = 92 – 67 = 25
What is the percentage of persons who read only two papers?
A
19%
B
31%
C
44%
D
None of these
Question 70Single Answer
Passage :
For the next four : question that follow :
In a city, three daily newspapers A, B, C are published, 42% read A; 51% read B; 68% read C; 30% read A and B; 28% read B and C; 36% read A and C; 8% do not read any of the three newspapers.
Let x% people read all the three newspapers.
Since 8% people do not read any newspapers.
(x – 24) + (x – 7) + (x + 4) + (30 – x) + (36 – x) + (28 – x) + x = 92
→ x + 98 – 31 = 92
→ x = 92 – 67 = 25
What is the percentage of persons who read only one paper ?
A
38%
B
48%
C
51%
D
None of these
Question 71Single Answer
Passage :
For the next four : question that follow:
In a city, three daily newspapers A, B, C are published, 42% read A; 51% read B; 68% read C; 30% read A and B; 28% read B and C; 36% read A and C; 8% do not read any of the three newspapers.
Let x% people read all the three newspapers.
Since 8% people do not read any newspapers.
(x – 24) + (x – 7) + (x + 4) + (30 – x) + (36 – x) + (28 – x) + x = 92
→ x + 98 – 31 = 92
→ x = 92 – 67 = 25
What is the percentage of persons who read only A but neither B nor C ?
A
4%
B
3%
C
1%
D
None of these
Question 72Single Answer
Passage :
For the next four : question that follow:
In a city, three daily newspapers A, B, C are published, 42% read A; 51% read B; 68% read C; 30% read A and B; 28% read B and C; 36% read A and C; 8% do not read any of the three newspapers.
Let x% people read all the three newspapers.
Since 8% people do not read any newspapers.
(x – 24) + (x – 7) + (x + 4) + (30 – x) + (36 – x) + (28 – x) + x = 92
→ x + 98 – 31 = 92
→ x = 92 – 67 = 25
If A and B are any two sets, then what is A ᴖ (A ᴗ B) equal to ?
A
Complement of A
B
Complement of B
C
B
D
A
Question 73Single Answer
Passage :
For the next four : question that follow:
In a city, three daily newspapers A, B, C are published, 42% read A; 51% read B; 68% read C; 30% read A and B; 28% read B and C; 36% read A and C; 8% do not read any of the three newspapers.
Let x% people read all the three newspapers.
Since 8% people do not read any newspapers.
(x – 24) + (x – 7) + (x + 4) + (30 – x) + (36 – x) + (28 – x) + x = 92
→ x + 98 – 31 = 92
→ x = 92 – 67 = 25
40% of the people read newspaper X, 50% read newspaper Y and 10% read both the papers. What percentage of the people read neither newspaper ?
A
10%
B
15%
C
20%
D
25%
Question 74Single Answer
Passage :
Read the passage below and solve the question based on it.
5% of the passengers do not like coffee, tea and lassi and 10% like all the three, 20% like coffee and tea, 25% like lassi and coffee and 25% like lassi and tea. 55% like coffee, 50% like tea, and 50% like lassi.
Where C = Coffee, T = Tea and L =Lassi
The passengers who like only coffee is greater than the passengers who like only lassi by
A
25%
B
100%
C
75%
D
0%
Question 75Single Answer
Passage :
Read the passage below and solve the question based on it.
5% of the passengers do not like coffee, tea and lassi and 10% like all the three, 20% like coffee and tea, 25% like lassi and coffee and 25% like lassi and tea. 55% like coffee, 50% like tea, and 50% like lassi.
Where C = Coffee, T = Tea and L =Lassi
The percentage of passengers who like both tea and lassi but not coffee, is
A
15
B
25
C
40
D
75
Banking Awareness
Question 76Single Answer
Which if the following is TRUE about the meaning of a bank?
A
It is a financial establishment
B
It acts like a financial intermediary
C
It accepts deposits from the public
D
It provides safe locker facility
E
All the above
Question 77Single Answer
Which of the following is NOT true about the functioning of a bank ?
A
A bank should always add the word “bank” to its name.
B
They include general utility services and agency services.
C
A bank is a non-profit organization having service oriented approach.
D
A bank acts as a connecting link between borrowers and lenders of money.
E
A bank lends out money in the form of loans to those who require it for different purposes.
Question 78Single Answer
Which of the following is NOT a banking service?
A
Issuance of debit and credit cards
B
Providing safe custody of valuable items
C
ATM services
D
Provision for higher interest rates to the accounts held by women
E
Online transfer of funds across the globe
Question 79Single Answer
The definition of Banking is given in which of the following ACTs?
A
Negotiable Instrument Act 1881
B
Reserve Bank of India (RBI) Act 1934
C
Banking Regulation Act 1949
D
Company Act 1956
E
None of the above
Question 80Single Answer
Banks in India are regulated by :
A
The Reserve Bank of India Act,1934
B
The Banking regulation Act,1949
C
The Reserve Bank of India (Amendment and Misc. Provisions) Act, 1953
D
The Banking Companies (Acquisition and Transfer of Undertakings) Act, 1980
E
None of the above
Question 81Single Answer
Which of the following terms is used in Banking field ?
A
Zero Hour
B
Input devices
C
Privilege motion
D
Sedimentary
E
Invest rate swap
Question 82Single Answer
A centralized database with online connectivity to branches, internet as well as ATM-network which has been adopted by almost all major banks of our country is known as?
A
Investment Banking
B
Core Banking
C
Mobile Banking
D
National Banking
E
Specialized Banking
Question 83Single Answer
Which of the following is necessary while opening deposit account in banks ?
A
Will
B
Registration
C
Nomination
D
Indemnity
E
Guarantee
Question 84Single Answer
Which of the following is not banking term?
A
Letter of credit
B
MIBOR
C
Factoring services
D
Entry load
E
None of the above
Question 85Single Answer
Systematic investment plans relates to:
A
Mutual Funds
B
Life Insurance Companies
C
Commercial Banks
D
Post office saving schemes
E
None of the above
Question 86Single Answer
Which is the following is / are third party products sold out by banks?
A
Mutual funds
B
Term deposits
C
Credit cards
D
All of these
E
None of the above
Question 87Single Answer
The first bank the Bank of Hindustan was established in:
A
1780
B
1790
C
1770
D
1802
E
1814
Question 88Single Answer
Which of the following NOT a Retail banking product ?
A
Checking account
B
Saving account
C
Money market account
D
Certificate of deposit (CD)
E
Mutual Fund
Question 89Single Answer
Which of the following is Not a Business (or commercial / investment) banking product ?
A
Business loan
B
Capital raisig
C
Checking account
D
Project finance
E
Term loan
Question 90Single Answer
The banker’s bank in any country called as:
A
Commercial bank
B
Central bank
C
EXIM bank
D
Scheduled Bank
E
Development bank
Question 91Single Answer
Which of the following is the Central bank of India?
A
State Bank of India
B
National Bank for Agriculture and Rural Development
C
Export-Import Bank of India
D
Reserve Bank of India
E
None of the above
Question 92Single Answer
What is the Minimum balance required to be maintained for a saving account with cheque book facility?
A
Rs. 100
B
Rs. 400
C
Rs. 500
D
Rs.1000
E
Rs. 1500
Question 93Single Answer
Which of the following represents Profit and Loss Account ?
A
Position of profit on a particular date
B
Position of profit for a given period
C
Position of loss for a given period
D
Both 2 and 3
E
None of the above
Question 94Single Answer
Which among the following is /are ‘Term Deposit’?
A
Fixed Deposit
B
Current Deposit
C
Recurring Deposit
D
All of the above
E
None of the above
Question 95Single Answer
The first bank of limited liability managed by Indians was :
A
The Commercial Bank of India
B
Allahabad Bank
C
Oudh Commercial Bank
D
Punjab National bank ltd
E
None of the above
General Studies
Question 96Single Answer
Yojna a weekly journal
A
Ministry of Finance
B
Ministry of Information and Broadcastin
C
Ministry of Rural Development
D
Planning Commission
Question 97Single Answer
Kurukshetra a journal on rural development is published by
A
Ministry of Finance
B
Ministry of Information and Broadcastin
C
Ministry of Rural Development
D
Planning Commission
Question 98Single Answer
Devaluation of a currency means
A
Fixing the value of the currency in conjuction with the movement in the value of a basket of predetermined currencies
B
Reduction in the value of a currency vis-à-vis major internationally traded currencies
C
Fixing the value of currency in multilateral consultaion with the IMF the World Bank and major trading partners
D
Permitting the currency to seek its worth in the international market
Question 99Single Answer
In India rural incomes are generally lower than the urban incomes, which of the following reasons account for this
1. a large number of farmers are illiterate and know little about scientific agriculture
2. prices of primary products are lower than those of manufactured products
3. Investments in agriculture has been low when compared to investment in industry
A
1 and 3
B
2 and 3
C
1 and 2
D
1,2 and 3
Question 100Single Answer
Which of the following programmes aims at the promotion of savings among rural women
A
Rashtriya Mahila Kosh
B
Indira Mahila Yojna
C
Jawahar Rozgar Yojna
D
Mahila Samridhi Yojna
Question 101Single Answer
What is Net National Product
A
the money value of final goods and services produced annually in the economy
B
the money value of annual service generation in the economy
C
the money value of tangible goods produced annually in the economy
D
The money value of tangible goods available in the economy
Question 102Single Answer
National income is the
A
net national product at market price
B
net national product at factor cost
C
net domestic product at market price
D
net domestic product at factor cost
Question 103Single Answer
Chelliah Committee of 1992 deals with the overhauling of our
A
financial system
B
tax system
C
patents and copyrights
D
Public sector undertakings
Question 104Single Answer
During which Five Year Plan was the annual growth rate of National Income the lowest
A
2nd plan
B
3rd plan
C
5th plan
D
6th plan
Question 105Single Answer
Which of the following taxes is a progressive tax
A
sales tax
B
custom tax
C
excise tax
D
income tax
Question 106Single Answer
Which of the following estimates the National Income in India
A
National Income Committee
B
Planning Commission
C
Reserve Bank Of India
D
Central Statistical Organisation
Question 107Single Answer
India changed over to the decimal system, coinage in
A
April 1951
B
April 1955
C
April 1957
D
April 1978
Question 108Single Answer
11th Five Year Plan aim at achieving 10% rural tele density in India from the present 1.9% by the year
A
2008
B
2009
C
2010
D
2012
Question 109Single Answer
Which one of the following statements Monitorable Socio Economic Target of the 11th Five Year Plan under the head Environment is not correct
A
treat urban waste water by 2011-12
B
Increase energy efficiency by 20% points by 2016-17
C
attain WHO standards of air quality in all major cities by 2011-12
D
increase forest and tree cover by 15% points
Question 110Single Answer
Who is the ex-officio chairman of Planning commission and National Development Council
A
President
B
Prime Minister
C
Finance Minister
D
Commerce Minister
Question 111Single Answer
Persons below the poverty line in Indian are classified as such based on wheather
A
they belong to agriculture labourer household and the scheduled caste/trive social group
B
they get work for a prescribed minimum number of days in a year
C
they are entitled to a minimum prescribed food basket
D
their daily waged fall below the prescribed minimum wages
Question 112Single Answer
Which of the following Committee’s recommendations are being followed for estimating proverty line in India
A
Dutt committee
B
Lakdawala committee
C
Cheliah Committee
D
Chakravorty Committee
Question 113Single Answer
In which year India adopeted liberal and free market principles
A
1975
B
1981
C
1991
D
2000
Question 114Single Answer
Consider the following statements
1. There is persistent investment over time only in select locals
2. some areas are agro climatically less conductive to development
3. some areas continue to face little or no agrarian transformation and the consequent lack of social and
4. some areas have faced continous political instability
Which of the above statements are correct
A
1,2 and 3
B
1,2 and 4
C
1,3 and 4
D
2,3 and 4
Question 115Single Answer
When was first human development report of India issued
A
April 2001
B
March 2000
C
June 2002
D
April 2002
General Knowledge
Question 116Single Answer
Which city is the host of the second edition of ‘The Africa-India Field Training Exercise’ AFINDEX-2023 ?
A
Pune
B
Panaji
C
Cairo
D
Nairobi
Question 117Single Answer
‘New India Literacy Programme’ will be implemented as which type of scheme ?
A
Central Sector Scheme
B
Centrally sponsored Scheme
C
Core Scheme
D
Core of the Core Scheme
Question 118Single Answer
Which state/UT recently released the ‘Lake Development Programme’ ?
A
Tamil Nadu
B
Telangana
C
Odisha
D
West Bengal
Question 119Single Answer
A ‘Space System Design Lab’ has been recently inaugurated in which state/UT ?
A
Gujarat
B
Karnataka
C
Andhra Pradesh
D
Kerala
Question 120Single Answer
India recently signed a ‘Defence Cooperation Agreement’ with which European country ?
A
Malta
B
Romania
C
Finland
D
Denmark
Question 121Single Answer
Which state’s ‘Gandhamardan Hill’ was recently (in March ’23) declared as India’s 37th biodiversity heritage site ?
A
Odisha
B
West Bengal
C
Gujarat
D
Jharkhand
Question 122Single Answer
Which country has recently (in March ’23) committed Rs 7,084.5 crore to India for infrastructure projects in Patna (Bihar), West Bengal, and Rajasthan ?
A
France
B
Japan
C
Singapore
D
Germany
Question 123Single Answer
Name the personality who was recently (in March ’23) awarded Abel Prize 2023 for Mathematics .
A
Luis Angel Caffarelli
B
Lawrence C. Evans
C
Dennis Sullivan
D
Luigi Ambrosio
Question 124Single Answer
Who was recently (in March ’23) appointed as the Chairman and Managing Director (CMD) of Cotton Corporation of India (CCI) ?
A
Vijay Kuradagi
B
Rajendra Kumar Gupta
C
Sanjay Kumar Panigrahi
D
Lalit Kumar Gupta
Question 125Single Answer
Which organisation of Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology (MeitY) has recently (in March ’23) developed application “Maaptol Grievance” to facilitate registration & redressal of consumer grievances ?
A
Centre for Development of Advanced Computing
B
Digital India Corporation
C
National Informatics Centre
D
Controller of Certifying Authorities
Commerce
Question 126Single Answer
Which is the most potent driver of business transformation during Covid-19 pandemic ?
A
Ethical consciousness
B
Scale economies and pricing power
C
Technology adoption and innovation
D
Supply chain logistics and government interventions
Question 127Single Answer
Counter Vailing Duties (CVD) are often imposed on imports to off set the impact of :
A
Predatory pricing
B
Export subsidies
C
Dumping
D
Low cost financing
Question 128Single Answer
To prevent opportunistic takeover of domestic firms amid Covid-19 pandemic. Foreign Direct Investment (FDI) from countries that share borders with India is allowed through :
A
Automatic route
B
Government route
C
FIPB route
D
DPIIT route
Question 129Single Answer
Factor conditions in Michael Porter’s competitive advantage National Include :
A
Market size
B
Demand conditions
C
Internationally competitive suppliers
D
Skilled labour and scientific knowledge
Question 130Single Answer
In case the purchasing company agrees to act as the agent of the vendor for collection of the book debts, in the books of the purchasing company, the amount of debtors should be credited to :
A
Vendor’s debtors account
B
Vendor’s suspense account
C
Debtors account
D
Creditors account
Question 131Single Answer
When the value of “Investment in subsidiary” in the holding company’s balance sheet in more then the book value of the net assets acquired, the difference represents :
A
Capital reserve on consolidation
B
Goodwill on consolidation
C
Minority interest
D
Post acquisition profit
Question 132Single Answer
The basic method of valuing human assets is :
A
Adjustment
B
Amortization
C
Capitalization
D
Quasi equity
Question 133Single Answer
X and Y are partners, sharing profits and losses in the ratio of 4 :3. They admit Z into the partnershipand for 1/5th share. X and Y decide to share the future profits in the ratio of 2 :1. What is the sacrificing ratio of X and Y ?
A
4 : 3
B
13 : 8
C
8 :13
D
4 :17
Question 134Single Answer
The value of the firm in wealth maximization objective is measured by :
A
Present value of all expected future cash flows
B
All expected future cash flows
C
Percent value of all expected future profits
D
All expected future profits
Question 135Single Answer
For a decline in price, total revenue declines in the demand of the product is :
A
Inelastic
B
Elastic
C
Unitary elastic
D
Zero elastics
Question 136Single Answer
In Cobb-Douglas production function, Q=AKαLβ increasing returns to scale occurs when :
A
α + β > 1
B
K + L > 1
C
α + β < 1
D
K + L < 1
Question 137Single Answer
The extreme case of non-price competition in an Oligopoly is :
A
Formation of cartels
B
Interdependent decision-making
C
Attaining economies of scale
D
Formation of duopoly
Question 138Single Answer
Pecking order theory in finance is based on the assertion of :
A
Asymmetric information between managers and investors
B
Symmetric information between managers and investors
C
Outside information
D
Asymmetric information among investors only
Question 139Single Answer
If a project cost is Rs. 40,000. Its stream of earning before depreciation and tax during first year through five years is expected to be Rs. 10,000, Rs. 12,000, Rs. 14,000, Rs. 16,000 and Rs. 20,000. Assume a 50% tax rate and depreciation on straight line basis; project’s ARR is :
A
14.40%
B
72%
C
16%
D
55.56%
Question 140Single Answer
According to the theory of dividend the firm should follow its investments policy of accepting all positive NPV projects and paying out dividends if and only if, funds are available :
A
Bird in hand theory
B
Investor rationality theory
C
100 percent retention theory
D
Residual theory
Question 141Single Answer
In Securitisation when no assets are acquired and the collateral is fixed for the life of the asset,the type of a structure is called as :
A
Revolving structure
B
Amortized structure
C
Collateralized structure
D
Self-liquidating structure
Question 142Single Answer
For a very large sample size the ratio between and σ is 8 : 40. Determine the sample size 𝓷 :
A
25
B
5
C
4
D
16
Question 143Single Answer
For a given set of paired data, the correlation and regression coefficients have been calculated as being equal to r,bxy and byx respectively. Now, each of values of x series is divided by 5. What effect does it have on each of these co-efficients ?
A
The three co - efficients remain unchanged
B
There is no change in r but by x changes to byx/5and bxy changes to 5bxy
C
Each of the co-efficients will be reduced to one fourth of its value
D
There is no change r but byx changes to 5byx and bxy chages to bxy/5
Question 144Single Answer
Which of the following statement is correct ?
A
Co-efficients of variance
B
If value in a series are negative, the standard deviation is also negative
C
If value in a series multiplied by σ, the variance would be multiplied by 36
D
Standard deviation is equal to square of variance
Question 145Single Answer
For a poisson distribution variable X, P(X=0) = 2P(X=1), its standard deviation would be :
A
B
0.5
C
D
2
Question 146Single Answer
A test that contains a fair sample of the tasks and skills actually needed for the job in question is :
A
Construct validity
B
Content validity
C
Test validity
D
Criterion validity
Question 147Single Answer
Which among of the following is not a primary determinant of organizational structure ?
A
Chain and span
B
Capacity and lower needs
C
Power and control
D
Differentiation and integration
Question 148Single Answer
An act in a way that results in the greatest good for the greatest number is :
A
The golden rule
B
The utilitarian principle
C
The four way test
D
Kant’s categorical imperative
Question 149Single Answer
People repeat behaviors that bring them satisfaction and pleasure and stop those that bring them dissatisfaction or pain is known as :
A
Law of exercise
B
Law of redo
C
Low of effect
D
Low of readiness
Question 150Single Answer
Which one of the following statements is true about under the Base I Accord, BCBS, fixed the minimum requirement of capital fund for banks at ?
A
8 percent of the total risk weighted assets
B
9 percent of the total risk weighted assets
C
10 percent of the total risk weighted assets
D
1000 crore
Question 151Single Answer
Which of the following statement is correct relating to Indian Financial System ?
A
RBI has direct supervision over depositories and mutual funds
B
Monetary control is exercised through cash reserve ratio and statutory liquidity ratio
C
Primary dealers mainly deal in shares, mutual fund units
D
The decrease in statutory liquidity ratio contracts the credit creation
Question 152Single Answer
Which one of the following is not one of the advantages of Derivatives market ?
A
Leveraging increases risk
B
They enhance liquidity in the market for underlying assets
C
They represent a form of insurance against risks
D
They reduce price volatility
Question 153Single Answer
Which one of the following statements is not true about Indian Money Market ?
A
Non-Banking Finance Companies (NBFCs) are financial institutions that constitute organized component of money market
B
Money market mutual funds are allowed to sell units to corporates and individuals
C
A Well-developed money market is essential for a modern economy
D
In the Indian Money Market, the predominant place is enjoyed by government and semi-government securities
Question 154Single Answer
Which of the following is not true while determining length of distribution channel ?
A
The larger the market size, the longer the channel
B
If the average lot size is large, it is better to have a longer channel
C
If the product and the market require a high level of service, it is advisable to keep a shorter channel
D
If customers shop for an assortment of products, it demands for a water channel of distribution
Question 155Single Answer
Which of the following can be categorized as people processing services ?
A
Health care
B
Legal services
C
Education
D
Transportation
Question 156Single Answer
SBUs or products that have lost their position of leadership and are in the low growth markets, are known as :
A
Star
B
Problem child
C
Dog
D
Cash cow
Question 157Single Answer
Which of the following is not a valid basis for market segmentation ?
A
Customer Based Segmentation
B
Technology Oriented Segmentation
C
Competition Related Segmentation
D
Product Related Segmentation
Question 158Single Answer
Which one of the following statements is a promissory note ?
A
I promise to Q Rs. 7,000, 7 days after my marriage
B
On demand, I promise to pay B or bearer Rs. 5,000
C
I promise to pay Rs. 5,000 on C’ death provided C leaves with me enough money to pay that sum
D
I acknowledge to be indebted to you for Rs. 10,000 to be paid on demand for value received
Question 159Single Answer
A claim for ‘quantum meruit’ cannot succeed :
A
Where is divisible contract is partly performed
B
When an indivisible contract for a lumpsum is partly performed
C
When a contract is discovered to be unenforceable due to some technical defect
D
In the case of breach of contract, the aggrieved party can claim reasonable compensation for k what he has done under the contract
Question 160Single Answer
The first offence for infringement of copyright can be for a maximum of imprisonment for a term of :
A
6 months and a fine of Rs. 20,000
B
3 years and a fine of Rs 50,000
C
3 years and a fine of Rs 2,00,000
D
1 year and a fine of Rs 3,00,000
Question 161Single Answer
Which one of the following conditions does not constitute a valid agency by necessity ?
A
There should be have been actual and definite commercial necessity for the agent to act promptly
B
The agent should have acted bonafide and for benefit of the principle
C
The agent should have adopted the most reasonable and practicable course under the circumstances
D
Destruction of the subject matter of the contract of agency
Question 162Single Answer
If assessee is engaged in the business of growing and manufacturing tea in India, the non-agricultural income in that case be :
A
40% the income from such business
B
25% the income from such business
C
60% the income from such business
D
75% the income from such business
Question 163Single Answer
AMT provisions are applicable on :
A
Corporate assessee
B
Non Corporate assessee
C
HUF
D
An Individual
Question 164Single Answer
X, an employee of the private company, gets Rs. 30,000 p.m. as basic salary and entitled to Rs. 1,500 p.m. as entertainment allowance. What are the deductions u ∕ s 16 (ii) for gross salary in respect of entertainment allowance ?
A
Rs. 5,000
B
Rs. 18,000
C
Rs. 72,000
D
Nil
Question 165Single Answer
Which of the following provident fund is approved by the provident fund commissioner ?
A
Statutory provident fund
B
Recognized provident fund
C
Unrecognised provident fund
D
Public provident fund
Question 166Single Answer
Which of the following institutions are included in the ‘World Bank Group’ ?
(a) International Finance Corporation
(b) International monetary Fund
(c) World Trade Organization
(d) Multilateral Investment Guarantee Agency
(e) International Development Association
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
A
(a), (b) and (c) only
B
(a), (b) and (d) only
C
(a), (b), (d) and (e) only
D
(a), (d) and (e) only
Question 167Single Answer
Corporate socialresponsibility is the continuing commitment by business to behave ethically and contribute to :
(a) Political awareness, social security and inclusion.
(b) Public health, education and literacy.
(c) Maintaining ecological balances and protecting environment.
(d) Gender diversity, profiteering and market controlling.
(e) Rendering, Sponsoring and donating to social and charitable activities.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
A
(a), (b) and (d) only
B
(b), (c) and (e) only
C
(c), (d) and (e) only
D
(a), (b) and (c) only
Question 168Single Answer
Firm characteristics that help managers identify core compentencies include :
(a) Potential access to wide variety of markets
(b) Significantly contribute to the perceived customer benefits
(c) Value accretive and noncompetitive
(d) Distinctive and difficult for competitors to imitate
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
A
(a), (b) and (c) only
B
(b), (c) and (d) only
C
(a), (b) and (d) only
D
(a), (c) and (d) only
Question 169Single Answer
Which of the following distinction (s) is/are not correct between public issue and rights issue ?
(a) In public issue, applications for shares are invited from the general public and in rights issue, the shares are offered to existing shareholders.
(b) In public issue there is no question of any over-subscription and in rights issue the shares may be under subscribed or over subscribed leading to prorata allotment.
(c) The price of public issue is generally less than the market price and in rights issue, the price is deliberately made less than the market price.
(d) In a pubic issue, the communication of the issue is through prospects or advertisements and in rights issue the communication is between the company and the existing members of the company.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
A
(b) only
B
(d) only
C
(a) and (c) only
D
(c) and (d) only
Question 170Single Answer
According to AS-2, Which of the following costs should be included in valuing the inventories of a manufacturing company ?
(a) Freight and insurance
(b) Carriage outwards
(c) Depreciation of factory plant
(d) General administrative overheads
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
A
(a) and (d) only
B
(a), (b) and (d) only
C
(b) and (c) only
D
(a) and (c) only
Question 171Single Answer
Which of the following rules stands true while preparing schedule of changes in working capital ?
(a) An increase in current assets increases working capital.
(b) An increase in current assets decreases working capital.
(c) An increase in current liabilities decreases working capital.
(d) An increase in current liabilities increases working capital.
Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below :
A
(a) and (c) only
B
(a) and (d) only
C
(b) and (d) only
D
(a),(b) and (c) only
Question 172Single Answer
Characteristics constituting the core of consumers rationality includes :
(a) Homogeneous expectations
(b) Non-satiation (c) Selfish motive
(d) Clarity of preferences
(e) Possession of information
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
A
(a), (b) and (c) only
B
(b), (c) and (d) only
C
(a), (b), (c) and (d) only
D
(b), (c), (d) and (e) only
Question 173Single Answer
Why is an indifference curve convex to the origin ?
(a) Indifference curve slope downward to the right.
(b) Two commodities are imperfect substitutes.
(c) Declining marginal rate of substitution between commodities.
(d) Diminishing marginal utilities.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
A
(a) and (b) only
B
(b) and (c) only
C
(c) and (d) only
D
(a) and (d) only
Question 174Single Answer
Financial crises takes the form of :
(a) Currency crisis
(b) Banking crisis
(c) Systematic financial crisis
(d) Foreign debt crisis
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
A
(a), (b), (c) only
B
(a), (b), (d) only
C
(b), (c), (d) only
D
(a), (b), (c), (d) only
Question 175Single Answer
Following are the problems that mar an optimal international diversification :
(a) Unfavourable exchange rate movements
(b) Frictions in international markets
(c) Manipulation of security prices
(d) Unequal access to information
Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below :