Question for IIFCL Assistant Manager (Grade A) 2026 - Quiz / Questions / MCQ

Objective Questions

Latest IIFCL Assistant Manager Exam Question (Objective Questions), MCQ in English

Subjects : Test of Reasoning, Quantitative Aptitude, English Language, Current Affairs related to Financial Sector, Domain Knowledge

Question Bank IIFCL Assistant Manager Exam - English

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Test of Reasoning

Question 1Single Answer

How many such pairs of letters are there in the word ‘CLEANLINESS’ each of the which has as many letters between them in the word as they have in the English alphabet, in the same sequence?

A
Two
B
Three
C
Five
D
Four
E
None of these

Question 2Single Answer

Team A has scored more goals than Team B
Team C has scored fewer goals than Team B
Team A has scored fewer goals than Team C .
If the first two statements are true, the third statement is

A
True
B
False
C
Uncertain
D
None

Question 3Single Answer

If it is possible to make only one meaningful word with the second, the third, the sixth and the eight letters of the word FRAGMENT using each only once, which of the following will be the third letter of that word ? If no such word can be formed, give ‘X’ as the answer and if more than one such word can be formed, give ‘Y’ as the answer.

Question 4Single Answer

How many such letters are there in the word ORIENTAL each of which is as far away from the beginning of the word as when they are arranged alphabetically?

A
None
B
One
C
Two
D
Three
E
More than three

Question 5Single Answer

How many such pairs of letters in the word CREDIT each of which has as many letters between them in the word as in the English alphabet?

A
None
B
One
C
Two
D
Three
E
More than three

Question 6Single Answer

How many meaningful words can be made from the letters ‘LMEA’ using each letter only once in each word?

A
None
B
One
C
Two
D
Three
E
More than three

Question 7Single Answer

If it is possible to make only one meaningful word with the first, the second, the seventh and the eighth letters of the word TEMPORAL, which of the following will be the first letter of that word? If more than one such word can be made, give ‘Y’ as the answer and if no such word can be made, give ‘X’ as the answer.

Question 8Single Answer

If the letters of the word HANDOVER are arranged alphabetically from left to right how many letters will remain at the same position?

A
None
B
One
C
Two
D
Three
E
More than three

Question 9Single Answer

How many such pairs of letters are there in the word EXCURSION, each of which has as many letters between them in the word as they have in the English alphabet?

A
None
B
One
C
Two
D
Three
E
More than three

Question 10Single Answer

If it is possible to make only one meaningful word with the first, the second, the third, the sixth and the eighth letters of the word DEVIATION first letter of that word is your answer? If more than one such word can be made formed your answer is ‘A’ and if no such word can be formed your answer is ‘B’.

Question 11Single Answer

If each alternate letter beginning with the first in the word WORKING is replaced by the next letter in the English alphabet and each of the remaining letters is replaced by the previous letter in the English alphabet, which of the following will be the fourth from the right and after the replacement ?

A
N
B
Q
C
J
D
M
E
None of these

Question 12Single Answer

How many pairs of letters are there in the word ‘SHIFTED’ each of which has as many letters between its two letters as there are between in the English alphabet?

A
None
B
One
C
Two
D
Three
E
None of these

Question 13Single Answer

Statement: Is common currency a necessary ingredient for Europe’s growth ?
Arguments :
I. Yes, A common currency will enable entire Europe to market itself as one .
II. No, Similar experiments by Latin America countries have not affected their economies .

A
The only argument I is strong
B
Only argument II is strong
C
Either I or II is strong
D
Neither I nor II is strong

Question 14Single Answer

If it is possible to make only one meaningful word with the first, the fifth, the sixth, the tenth and the eleventh letters of the word EXCEPTIONAL using each letter only once, first letter of that word is your answer. If no such word can be made formed your answer is ‘X’ and if more than one such word can be formed your answer is ‘Y’.

Question 15Single Answer

How many meaningful English words can be formed with the letters RAE using each letter only once in each word?

A
None
B
One
C
Two
D
Three
E
More than three

Question 16Single Answer

How many such pairs of letters are there in the word WONDERS, each of which has as many letters between its two letters as there are between them in the English alphabet?

A
One
B
Two
C
Three
D
Four
E
More than four

Question 17Single Answer

If it is possible to make only one meaningful English word from the second, the fifth, the seventh and the eighth letters of the word PHYSICAL, using each letter only once, second letter of that word is your answer. If more than one such word can be formed your answer is M. if no such word can be formed your answer is N.

Question 18Single Answer

How many such pairs of letters are there in the word JUSTIFY, each of which have as many letters between them in the word as they have between them in the English alphabet?

A
None
B
One
C
Two
D
Three
E
More than three

Question 19Single Answer

If the alphabets are assigned values as A=3, D=6, G=8, I=2, L=4 and T=5 then what is the sum of values of all the alphabets in the word DIGITAL?

A
26
B
28
C
30
D
32
E
None of these

Question 20Single Answer

How many such pairs of letters are there in the word EDUCATION, each of which has as many letters between them in the word as they have in the English alphabet?

A
None
B
One
C
Two
D
Three
E
More than three

Question 21Single Answer

How many such pairs of letters are there in the word MEASURE each of which has as many letters between them in the word as in the English alphabet?

A
None
B
One
C
Two
D
Three
E
More than three

Question 22Single Answer

How many meaningful English words can be formed with the letters LMAE using each letter only once in each word?

A
None
B
One
C
Two
D
Three
E
More than three

Question 23Single Answer

If each consonant in the word EXPLORATION is replaced by previous the alphabet and each vowel replaced by alphabet following it in the English alphabetic series, and then the order of the alphabets thus formed is reversed, which of the following from the right?

A
P
B
Q
C
B
D
K
E
None of these

Question 24Single Answer

If the letters in the word AMONGST are arranged in the English alphabetical order, the position of how many letters will remain unchanged?

A
None
B
One
C
Three
D
Four
E
More than Four

Question 25Single Answer

How many meaningful English words can be formed with the letters ACRS using each letter only once in each word?

A
None
B
One
C
Two
D
Three
E
More than three

Quantitative Aptitude

Question 26Single Answer

The cash difference between the selling prices of an article at a profit of 4% and 6% is Rs. 3. The ratio of the two selling prices is:__________ ?

A
51:52
B
52:53
C
51:53
D
52:55

Question 27Single Answer

Which of the following numbers is irrational ?

A
√49
B
0.125
C
√2
D
22/7

Question 28Single Answer

356 x 936 – 356 x 836 = ?

A
35600
B
34500
C
9630
D
93600

Question 29Single Answer

Arrange in descending order: 5/8, 7/10, 3/4

A
3/4 > 7/10 > 5/8
B
7/10 > 3/4 > 5/8
C
3/4 > 5/8 > 7/10
D
5/8 > 7/10 > 3/4

Question 30Single Answer

What is (3^{^}{4} times 9^{^}{2}) ?

A
3⁶
B
3⁸
C
3¹⁰
D
9⁶

Question 31Single Answer

If 3⁴X^-2 = 729, then find the value of X.

Question 32Single Answer

Convert 0.6 into fraction ?

A
3/5
B
2/3
C
4/5

Question 33Single Answer

The no. plate of a bus had peculiarity. The bus number was a perfect square. It was also a perfect square when the plate numbers were reversed. The bus company had only five hundred buses numbered from 1 to 500. What was the number ?

A
169
B
36
C
196
D
Can not say

Question 34Single Answer

If a and b are positive integers, such that ab = 125, then (a-b)^a+b-4= ?

A
16
B
25
C
28
D
30

Question 35Single Answer

If x^*y = x² + y² – xy, then value of 9^*11 is

A
93
B
103
C
60.5
D
121

Question 36Single Answer

Which is greater ?

A
15/16
B
17/18
C
Equal
D
Cannot compare

Question 37Single Answer

If sum of two numbers is 42 and their product is 437, then find their difference.

Question 38Single Answer

Write the 44000 in Roman numerals

A
XLI
B
XLVI
C
XLIV
D
XLVIC

Question 39Single Answer

Convert 0.0909… into fraction ?

A
1/11
B
9/11
C
1/9
D
9/10

Question 40Single Answer

What is (98 times 102) ?

A
9996
B
10000
C
10096
D
10196

Question 41Single Answer

Which is smaller ?

A
9/11
B
7/9
C
Equal
D
Cannot compare

Question 42Single Answer

Convert 0.5777… into fraction ?

A
26/45
B
52/90
C
13/22
D
5/9

Question 43Single Answer

Convert 0.81 into fraction ?

A
81/100
B
9/10
C
8/9
D
9/11

Question 44Single Answer

(63)² – (12)² =?

A
3528
B
3852
C
3582
D
3825

Question 45Single Answer

Which is greater ?

A
13/17
B
11/14
C
Equal
D
Cannot compare

Question 46Single Answer

16.928 + 24.7582

5.015 =?

A
20
B
24
C
22
D
26

Question 47Single Answer

Convert 0.75 into fraction ?

A
3/4
B
2/3
C
4/5
D
5/8

Question 48Single Answer

Which is greater ?

A
11/13
B
12/15
C
Equal
D
Cannot compare

Question 49Single Answer

Two numbers are co-prime if their HCF is ?

A
0
B
1
C
Same
D
Prime

Question 50Single Answer

Product of all factors of 10 is ?

A
10
B
100
C
1000
D
10000

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English Language

Question 51Single Answer

I go to Madurai by —– Vaigai Express

A
a
B
an
C
some
D
the

Question 52Single Answer

Have the car stolen!

A
Steal the car
B
You should have the stolen car
C
Get someone to steal the car
D
They have stolen the car

Question 53Single Answer

The payment was collected by the hardworking salesman.

A
The hardworking salesman collected the payment.
B
the salesman who worked heard was able to collect the payment.
C
to collect the payment the salesman had to work hard.
D
The hardworking salesman was able to collect the payment.

Question 54Single Answer

I had to stop all my work to complete this project.

A
All other work had to be stopped to complete this project by me
B
For completing this project all other work must be stopped
C
For completing this project I had to stop all my work
D
To complete this project all other work had been stopped by me

Question 55Single Answer

They have published the names of all the successful candidates.

A
The candidates who have succeeded their names they had published.
B
The names of all the successful candidates have been published by them
C
The candidates who have succeeded their names have been published by them.
D
The names of all the successful candidate were published by them.

Question 56Single Answer

The online shopping site lowered the prices.

A
Lowering of the prices was done by the online shopping site
B
The prices were lowered by the online shopping site
C
The prices had been lowered by the online shopping site
D
The prices have been lowered by the online shopping site

Question 57Single Answer

Who taught you to drive a truck ?

A
To drive a truck by whom were you taught?
B
Driving a truck by who were you taught?
C
Driving a truck by who were you being taught?
D
By whom were you taught to drive a truck?

Question 58Single Answer

We shall invite Suresh.

A
Suresh would be invited by us
B
Suresh would have been invited by us
C
Suresh will be invited by us
D
Suresh will have been invited by us

Question 59Single Answer

Dark clouds have overcast the evening sky.

A
By the dark clouds the evening sky was overcast.
B
The evening sky has been overcast by the dark clouds.
C
Dark clouds overcastted the evening sky.
D
The sky of the evening was overcasted by dark clouds.

Question 60Single Answer

The partners will celebrate their triumph tomorrow.

A
The triumph would be celebrated by the partners a day before
B
The triumph would be celebrated by the partners a day after
C
The triumph would have been celebrated by the partners a day after
D
The triumph will have been celebrated by the partners tomorrow

Question 61Single Answer

Why did break the vase?

A
why is the vase broken by him
B
why was the vase broken by him
C
why had been the vase broken by him
D
why has been the vase broken by him

Question 62Single Answer

Mariam was writing a note to her boss.

A
A note was written to her boss by Mariam
B
A note was wrote by Mariam to her boss
C
A note was being written by Mariam to her boss
D
A note was written by Mariam to her boss

Question 63Single Answer

The baby really enjoys that music.

A
That music was really enjoyed by the baby.
B
That music was really being enjoyed by the baby.
C
That music is really enjoyed by the baby.
D
This music was really enjoyed by the baby.

Question 64Single Answer

The weather disrupted the final match.

A
The final match has been disrupted by the weather.
B
The final match had been disrupted by the weather.
C
The final match was disrupted by the weather.
D
The final match was being disrupted by the weather.

Question 65Single Answer

The management committee is required to publish a report every year.

A
report would be published by the management committee every year.
B
A report would have been published by the management committee every year.
C
A report requires to be published by the management committee every year.
D
Every year the report would be published by the management committee.

Question 66Single Answer

Preeti ran the race in record time.

A
In record time Preeti ran the race.
B
The race was run by Preeti in record time
C
The race was being run by Preeti in record time
D
The race had been run by Preeti in record time

Question 67Single Answer

I shall have written the full thesis by December

A
By December I shall have wrote the full thesis.
B
The full thesis will have been written by me by December.
C
The full Thesis will be wrote by me by December
D
By December the full thesis must have been wrote by me.

Question 68Single Answer

One must keep one’s promises.

A
One’s promises must be kept by one.
B
One’s promises had to be kept.
C
Promises must be kept.
D
Promises have to be kept by one.

Question 69Single Answer

I read the story in one night.

A
The story had been read by me in one night.
B
The story has been read by me in one night
C
n one night the story has been read by me.
D
the story was read by me in one night

Question 70Single Answer

We must take care of the old.

A
Those who are old need to be taken care of by us.
B
The old must be taken care of by us.
C
Those who are old need care by us
D
The old should be taken care of by us.

Current Affairs related to Financial Sector

Question 71Single Answer

Which institution is known as the "banker's bank" in India?

A
SBI
B
RBI
C
NABARD
D
SIDBI

Question 72Single Answer

The primary objective of the RBI is:

A
Profit maximization
B
Price stability and growth
C
Employment generation
D
Promoting exports

Question 73Single Answer

The current Governor of the Reserve Bank of India is:

A
Urjit Patel
B
Raghuram Rajan
C
Shaktikanta Das
D
Bimal Jalan

Question 74Single Answer

Which of the following is NOT a function of the RBI?

A
Issuing currency
B
Accepting deposits from the public
C
Acting as banker to the government
D
Regulating banks

Question 75Single Answer

The repo rate is the rate at which:

A
RBI lends to commercial banks
B
Commercial banks lend to RBI
C
Banks borrow from each other
D
RBI sells government securities

Question 76Single Answer

The reverse repo rate is the rate at which:

A
RBI lends to commercial bank
B
Commercial banks lend to RBI
C
Banks borrow from each other
D
RBI buys government securities

Question 77Single Answer

What is the meaning of CRR?

A
Cash Reserve Ratio
B
Credit Risk Ratio
C
Capital Reserve Requirement
D
Current Revenue Ratio

Question 78Single Answer

SLR stands for:

A
Statutory Liquidity Ratio
B
Subsidiary Lending Rate
C
Special Loan Rate
D
Standard Lending Rate

Question 79Single Answer

Which of the following tools is used by the RBI to control the money supply?

A
Repo rate
B
CRR
C
SLR
D
All of the above

Question 80Single Answer

What is the role of the Monetary Policy Committee (MPC) in India?

A
Regulating the stock market
B
Managing foreign exchange reserves
C
Deciding the repo rate
D
Controlling inflation

Question 81Single Answer

The RBI's financial year is:

A
January 1 to December 31
B
April 1 to March 31
C
July 1 to June 30
D
October 1 to September 30

Question 82Single Answer

The RBI issues which type of currency notes in India?

A
All denominations except Rs. 1 note
B
All denominations including Rs. 1 note
C
Only Rs. 500 and Rs. 2000 notes
D
Only coins

Question 83Single Answer

Which body regulates the functioning of Regional Rural Banks (RRBs) in India?

A
NABARD
B
SBI
C
RBI
D
Ministry of Finance

Question 84Single Answer

What is the meaning of KYC in banking?

A
Know Your Customer
B
Keep Your Cash
C
Key Yield Curve
D
Know Your Credit

Question 85Single Answer

What is the purpose of the Banking Ombudsman Scheme?

A
To resolve customer complaints against banks
B
To promote financial inclusion
C
To regulate interest rates
D
To provide loans to small businesses

Question 86Single Answer

Who became the longest-serving continuous Finance Minister of India and presented her ninth straight Union Budget on February 1, 2026?

A
Nirmala Sitharaman
B
Arun Jaitley
C
Pranab Mukherjee
D
P. Chidambaram

Question 87Single Answer

Which country's Supreme Leader, Ali Khamenei, was assassinated in a joint US-Israel strike in late February 2026?

A
Syria
B
Iraq
C
Lebanon
D
Iran

Question 88Single Answer

What was the primary goal stated for the 2026 Israeli–United States strikes on Iran?

A
Nuclear disarmament only
B
Border security
C
Economic sanctions enforcement
D
Regime change in Tehran

Question 89Single Answer

Which Indian state won its maiden Ranji Trophy title recently (reported in early March 2026)?

A
Mumbai
B
Tamil Nadu
C
Jammu & Kashmir
D
Karnataka

Question 90Single Answer

What funding amount did Germany announce for a new climate resilience initiative with India in February 2026?

A
EUR 10 million
B
EUR 100 million
C
EUR 50 million
D
EUR 20 million

Question 91Single Answer

Which Indian state launched its first Dark Sky Park in Kolli Hills in February 2026?

A
Kerala
B
Tamil Nadu
C
Uttarakhand
D
Himachal Pradesh

Question 92Single Answer

Who inaugurated three major inland waterways projects on National Waterway-2 in Assam in February 2026?

A
Nitin Gadkari
B
Jyotiraditya Scindia
C
Narendra Modi
D
Sarbananda Sonowal

Question 93Single Answer

Which event is scheduled for inauguration by PM Narendra Modi in March 2026 in Uttar Pradesh?

A
New Parliament building
B
Noida International Airport
C
Bullet train launch
D
Smart City project

Question 94Single Answer

In response to the assassination of Ali Khamenei, which group fired projectiles at northern Israel?

A
Hamas
B
IRGC
C
Houthis
D
Hezbollah

Question 95Single Answer

What is the name of the operation or escalation linked to recent US-Israel actions against Iran (reported in early March 2026)?

A
Operation Epic Fury
B
Operation Roar of the Lion
C
Operation Desert Storm
D
Operation True Promise

Question 96Single Answer

Which country’s Prime Minister visited Israel in late February 2026 to elevate bilateral ties?

A
Canada
B
India (Narendra Modi)
C
Germany
D
UK

Question 97Single Answer

Who is the current RBI Governor commenting on India's 'Goldilocks' economy in early March 2026?

A
Sanjay Malhotra
B
Shaktikanta Das
C
Urjit Patel
D
Raghuram Rajan

Question 98Single Answer

Which Gulf cities experienced explosions from Iranian strikes in response to the conflict?

A
Riyadh and Jeddah
B
Dubai, Doha, Manama
C
Cairo and Amman
D
Istanbul and Ankara

Question 99Single Answer

What major geopolitical meeting is scheduled between US President Trump and China's Xi Jinping in March 2026?

A
Bilateral meeting in Beijing
B
G20 Summit
C
APEC Summit
D
WTO Conference

Question 100Single Answer

0 in early 2026?

A
Assam
B
Tripura
C
Meghalaya
D
Sikkim

Domain Knowledge

Question 101Single Answer

Indicate the correct code for the scope of managerial economics from the following :
(a) Demand Analysis
(b) Production and Cost Analysis
(c) Pricing and Investment Decisions
(d) Factor pricing Decisions
(e) Economic Environmental Analysis
Codes :

A
(a), (b), (c), (d)
B
(b), (c), (d), (e)
C
(a), (b), (c), (e)
D
(a), (c), (d), (e)

Question 102Single Answer

Which one of the following will be the appropriate pricing strategy for a new product expecting an expanding market?

A
Monopoly pricing
B
Skimming pricing
C
Penetrating pricing
D
Differential pricing

Question 103Single Answer

Match the items of the List-I with those of the List-II and suggest the correct code from the following :
      List-I                                  List-II
(a) Loss Leader               (i) Locational price differentials
(b) Unchanged Pricing   (ii) Products with high initial demands
(c) Basing Point Pricing   (iii) Product line pricing
(d) Skimming Pricing       (iv) Oligopoly pricing
   Code :

A
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
B
(iii) (iv) (i) (ii)
C
(iv) (ii) (i) (iii)
D
(iii) (i) (ii) (iv)

Question 104Single Answer

In case the firm makes varying investments on the different investment projects, the appropriate project evaluation technique would be, which one of the following?

A
Average annual rate of return technique
B
Pay back period technique
C
Net present value technique
D
Profitability index technique

Question 105Single Answer

According to Henry Fayol, which one of the following combinations of qualities are required in a manager?

A
Physical, mental, experience, educational and conceptual.
B
Technical, human, conceptual, mental and moral.
C
Physical, mental, moral, educational, technical and experience
D
Mental, moral, conceptual, educational, technical and experience.

Question 106Single Answer

The following is the demand function :
Q =100-5P
What will be the point price elasticity of demand at price

10?

A
2.00
B
1.00
C
0.85
D
0.50

Question 107Single Answer

Match the items of List-1 with the items of List-2 and select the code of correct matching :
List-1
(a) sales revenue maximization
(b) maximization of a firm's growth rate
(c) maximization of managerial utility function
(d) Satisficing behaviour model
List-2
(1) Williamson's model
(2) Cyert-March Hypothesis
(3) Baumol's Theory
(4) Marri's Theory

A
Codes:
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(3) (4) (1) (2)
B
(1) (2) (4) (3)
C
(2) (3) (1) (4)
D
(4) (3) (2) (1)

Question 108Single Answer

Assertion (A) : the perceived risk of operating a domestic firm in international environment is much higher.
Reason (R) : the international environment is more volatile and the domestic firm generally does not have full information about the environment.

A
Codes :
Both (A) and (R) are correct.
B
Both (A) and (R) are incorrect.
C
(A) is correct while (R) is incorrect.
D
(A) is incorrect while (R) is correct.

Question 109Single Answer

Which one of the following assumptions is not related to consumer behaviour based on the Cardinal utility approach ?

A
Rationality
B
Diminishing marginal utility of money
C
Utility cardinally measurable
D
Maximization of satisfaction with limited money income

Question 110Single Answer

Statement 1 : a rectangular hyperbola shaped demand curve has uniform slopes on all its points.
Statement 2 : If the price elasticity is equal to Unity, the marginal revenue corresponds to zero.

A
Codes :
both the statements are correct.
B
both the statements are incorrect.
C
statement 1 is correct while Statement 2 is incorrect.
D
Statement 1 is incorrect while Statement 2 is correct.

Question 111Single Answer

Match the items of list-1 with the items of list-2 and find the correct combination :
List-1 (Market Structure)
(a) Perfect competition
(b) Oligopoly
(c) Monopoly
(d) Monopolistic competition
List-2 (Nature of industry where prevalent)
(1) Aluminium and passenger cars
(2) public utilities like telephones and electricity
(3) manufacturing : T.V sets, refring-erators
(4) Farm Products : Grains

A
Codes :
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(1) (2) (3) (4)
B
(4) (1) (2) (3)
C
(3) (4) (1) (2)
D
(2) (3) (4) (1)

Question 112Single Answer

If the demand for using the Noida Express way is given by :
Q = 40,000 - 2500 P
Where Q is the number of users (vehicles) and P is the amount of toll collected per unit who uses the express way. In light of this information which of the following is true :

A
At P = Rs.6 and Q = 14000; demand is price inelastic.
B
At P = Rs.7 and Q = 16,500; demand is unitary elastic.
C
At P = Rs. 4 and Q = 9500; demand is Price elastic.
D
All of the above

Question 113Single Answer

If a 100 % scale -efficient plant has 92 % technical efficiency and 88.5 % allocative -efficiency, thrn its overall efficiency will be :

A
88.5 %
B
90.25 %
C
93.0 %
D
81.42 %

Question 114Single Answer

The market share data for an industry, comparison five companies, it's given below :
Company.                       Market Share (%)
A.                                       35
B.                                        25
C.                                        18
D.                                        12
E.                                       10
This industry's three- firms Herfindahl-Hirschman index shall be :

A
0.234
B
0.217
C
0.151
D
0.0175

Question 115Single Answer

In the market- oriented system, for the allocation of resources which one the following is the most appropriate convevyor of information ?

A
Finance Ministry
B
Central Bank
C
Market Price
D
Advertisement Expenditure

Question 116Single Answer

A company supplies 20 units of a particular products per month, at a price of Rs 10 per unit. Is price elasticity of supply is 5, how many units would be company supply at a price of Rs 15 ?

A
50
B
70
C
40
D
5

Question 117Single Answer

Which characteristic is not likely to be a part of perfect competition ?

A
Absence of indepence
B
Deadweight loss is non-existent
C
Strong rivalry
D
Absence of advertisement

Question 118Single Answer

In the case the price (P), quantity (Q), and changes (∆) are represented by respective symbols given in the brackets, the price elasticity of demand (Ed) is measured by :

A
Ed = ∆Q / ∆P
B
Ed = (∆Q/Q)/( ∆P/P)
C
Ed = (∆P/P)/ (∆Q/Q)
D
Ed = (∆P/P)/( ∆Q/Q)

Question 119Single Answer

Law of Diminishing Return applies when the gaps among the successive 'multiple level of output' isoquants :

A
decreases
B
remains constant
C
increases
D
remains irregular

Question 120Single Answer

In case of the demand elasticity under imperfect competition in utility, the marginal revenue will be :

A
more than utility, but less infinity.
B
Equal to Unity
C
less than Unity, but more than zero
D
Equal to zero

Question 121Single Answer

Which section of the RBI Act, 1934, empowers the Reserve Bank of India to issue directions to banking companies for priority sector lending ?

A
Section 21
B
Section 35 A
C
Section 35 AA
D
Section 36 AD

Question 122Single Answer

Under the RBI Act, 1934, which section deals with the power of the Reserve Bank of India to regulate the flow of credit to particular areas or sectors ?

A
Section 21
B
Section 35 A
C
Section 35 AA
D
Section 36 AD

Question 123Single Answer

Which section of the Banking Regulation Act, 1949, deals with the prohibition on the employment of staff who have been convicted of an offense involving dishonesty or moral turpitude ?

A
Section 9
B
Section 10
C
Section 12
D
Section 12 A

Question 124Single Answer

Which section of the Banking Regulation Act, 1949, deals with the appointment of a banking ombudsman for the resolution of customer complaints ?

A
Section 21
B
Section 35 A
C
Section 35 AA
D
Section 36 AD

Question 125Single Answer

.... refers to the act or skill of controlling and making decisions about a business, team, organisation, etc.

A
Management
B
Organisation
C
Planning
D
None of these

Question 126Single Answer

Management includes

A
Planning
B
Organising
C
Staffing
D
All of these

Question 127Single Answer

The father of scientific management is

A
Taylor
B
Mayo
C
Simon
D
Fayol

Question 128Single Answer

"Management is simply the process of decision - making and control over the action of human being for the expressed purpose of attaining the pre - determined goals." This statement is given by

A
Stanley Vance
B
Drucker
C
Rose Moore
D
None of these

Question 129Single Answer

"To manage is to forecast and plan, to organise, to command, to coordinate and to control." This statement is given by

A
Theo Haimann
B
Taylor
C
Rose Moore
D
None of these

Question 130Single Answer

"Management is the development of people and not the direction of things. Management is personnel administration". This statement is given by

A
Stanley Vance
B
Drucker
C
Lawrence and Appley
D
None of these

Question 131Single Answer

Which of the following points are related to management concept as a noun ?

A
Management as a career
B
Management as a system of authority
C
Management as a discipline
D
All of the above

Question 132Single Answer

Which of the following points are related to management concept as a verb ?

A
Management as a leadership
B
Management as an art of increasing productivity
C
Management as integration of efforts
D
All of the above

Question 133Single Answer

"Management is the development of people and not the direction of things." This definition is given by

A
Lawrence and Appley
B
Taylor
C
Rose Moore
D
None of these

Question 134Single Answer

Management is

A
An art
B
Science
C
Both (a) and (b)
D
None of these

Question 135Single Answer

What are the features of management ?

A
A social process
B
Universal
C
Continuous Process
D
All of these

Question 136Single Answer

What is the primary goal of the Reserve Bank of India's (RBI) monetary policy?

A
Increase government spending
B
Control inflation
C
Reduce foreign investment
D
Increase public debt

Question 137Single Answer

Which country recently launched its Central Bank Digital Currency (CBDC) called the Digital Yuan?

A
Japan
B
USA
C
China
D
India

Question 138Single Answer

The Basel III norms are associated with which of the following sectors?

A
Information Technology
B
Banking and Finance
C
Agriculture
D
Real Estate

Question 139Single Answer

Which global financial institution recently approved India's application to join as a full member?

A
World Bank
B
IMF
C
BRICS New Development Bank
D
OECD

Question 140Single Answer

What does ESG stand for in the context of responsible investing?

A
Economic, Social, Governance
B
Environmental, Social, Governance
C
Environmental, Strategic, Governance
D
Economic, Strategic, Governance

Question 141Single Answer

Which of the following indices is often referred to as a "barometer" of the U.S. stock market?

A
FTSE 100
B
NIFTY 50
C
NASDAQ
D
S&P 500

Question 142Single Answer

The "Repo Rate" is the rate at which:

A
The government borrows money from the public
B
Banks borrow money from the RBI
C
Corporates issue bonds
D
Individuals borrow money from banks

Question 143Single Answer

Which of the following is a key feature of Sovereign Gold Bonds (SGBs) issued by the Government of India?

A
They are backed by physical gold
B
They provide interest to the holder
C
They are traded on the stock exchange
D
All of the above

Question 144Single Answer

Which financial term describes the total value of goods and services produced within a country in a specific period?

A
GDP (Gross Domestic Product)
B
GNP (Gross National Product)
C
NNP (Net National Product)
D
CPI (Consumer Price Index)

Question 145Single Answer

The term "Stagflation" refers to a situation where:

A
Inflation is high, and economic growth is slow
B
Deflation occurs along with high unemployment
C
Prices are stable, and economic growth is high
D
Inflation is low, and economic growth is high

Question 146Single Answer

The term "Green Bonds" refers to bonds issued for funding:

A
Defense projects
B
Infrastructure development
C
Environmental projects
D
Real estate projects

Question 147Single Answer

What is the maximum limit for investment in Public Provident Fund (PPF) per financial year?

A
Rs.1 lakh
B
Rs.1.5 lakh
C
Rs.2 lakh
D
Rs.2.5 lakh

Question 148Single Answer

In recent years, which financial instrument has seen a surge in popularity due to its decentralized nature?

A
Government Bonds
B
Mutual Funds
C
Cryptocurrencies
D
Corporate Bonds

Question 149Single Answer

What is the full form of SEBI?

A
State Economic Banking Institute
B
Securities and Exchange Board of India
C
South East Banking Institute
D
Securities and Economic Board of India

Question 150Single Answer

Which financial term describes the difference between the buying and selling price of a security?

A
Spread
B
Margin
C
Arbitrage
D
Yield

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