Kurukshetra a journal on rural development is published by
A
Ministry of Finance
B
Ministry of Information and Broadcastin
C
Ministry of Rural Development
D
Planning Commission
Question 3Single Answer
Devaluation of a currency means
A
Fixing the value of the currency in conjuction with the movement in the value of a basket of predetermined currencies
B
Reduction in the value of a currency vis-à-vis major internationally traded currencies
C
Fixing the value of currency in multilateral consultaion with the IMF the World Bank and major trading partners
D
Permitting the currency to seek its worth in the international market
Question 4Single Answer
In India rural incomes are generally lower than the urban incomes, which of the following reasons account for this
1. a large number of farmers are illiterate and know little about scientific agriculture
2. prices of primary products are lower than those of manufactured products
3. Investments in agriculture has been low when compared to investment in industry
A
1 and 3
B
2 and 3
C
1 and 2
D
1,2 and 3
Question 5Single Answer
Which of the following programmes aims at the promotion of savings among rural women
A
Rashtriya Mahila Kosh
B
Indira Mahila Yojna
C
Jawahar Rozgar Yojna
D
Mahila Samridhi Yojna
Question 6Single Answer
What is Net National Product
A
the money value of final goods and services produced annually in the economy
B
the money value of annual service generation in the economy
C
the money value of tangible goods produced annually in the economy
D
The money value of tangible goods available in the economy
Question 7Single Answer
National income is the
A
net national product at market price
B
net national product at factor cost
C
net domestic product at market price
D
net domestic product at factor cost
Question 8Single Answer
Chelliah Committee of 1992 deals with the overhauling of our
A
financial system
B
tax system
C
patents and copyrights
D
Public sector undertakings
Question 9Single Answer
During which Five Year Plan was the annual growth rate of National Income the lowest
A
2nd plan
B
3rd plan
C
5th plan
D
6th plan
Question 10Single Answer
Which of the following taxes is a progressive tax
A
sales tax
B
custom tax
C
excise tax
D
income tax
Question 11Single Answer
Which of the following estimates the National Income in India
A
National Income Committee
B
Planning Commission
C
Reserve Bank Of India
D
Central Statistical Organisation
Question 12Single Answer
India changed over to the decimal system, coinage in
A
April 1951
B
April 1955
C
April 1957
D
April 1978
Question 13Single Answer
11th Five Year Plan aim at achieving 10% rural tele density in India from the present 1.9% by the year
A
2008
B
2009
C
2010
D
2012
Question 14Single Answer
Which one of the following statements Monitorable Socio Economic Target of the 11th Five Year Plan under the head Environment is not correct
A
treat urban waste water by 2011-12
B
Increase energy efficiency by 20% points by 2016-17
C
attain WHO standards of air quality in all major cities by 2011-12
D
increase forest and tree cover by 15% points
Question 15Single Answer
Who is the ex-officio chairman of Planning commission and National Development Council
A
President
B
Prime Minister
C
Finance Minister
D
Commerce Minister
Question 16Single Answer
What major global sporting event is scheduled from 11 June to 19 July 2026?
A
Winter Olympics
B
FIFA World Cup 2026
C
Asian Games
D
Commonwealth Games
Question 17Single Answer
Ethanol blending-related amendments to Central Motor Vehicles Rules in 2026 include:
A
Only E20
B
E85, E100, and B100 biodiesel
C
Electric vehicles only
D
CNG mandates
Question 18Single Answer
What is the Panchayat Advancement Index (PAI) 2.0 related to?
A
Defence procurement
B
Urban development
C
Performance assessment of over 2.5 lakh panchayats
D
Export promotion
Question 19Single Answer
Rajya Sabha passed the Central Armed Police Forces (General Administration) Bill in early April 2026 to:
A
Merge forces
B
Increase salaries
C
Reduce recruitment age
D
Create a unified legal framework for CAPF personnel
Question 20Single Answer
US President Donald Trump commented on considering exiting NATO, calling it a:
A
Paper tiger
B
Strong alliance
C
Economic burden
D
Peacekeeper
Question 21Single Answer
Which Indian state saw clashes between Aboriginal community and police in Alice Springs (international news context)?
A
Canada
B
New Zealand
C
Australia
D
South Africa
Question 22Single Answer
The Iran war and closure of the Strait of Hormuz led to:
A
Oil prices hitting four-year high
B
Record low oil prices
C
Increased Indian exports
D
Rupee appreciation
Question 23Single Answer
From 1 April 2026, RBI shifted processing of overseas investment references to:
A
Only Mumbai office
B
SEBI
C
7 Regional Offices via PRAVAAH portal
D
Ministry of Finance
Question 24Single Answer
What new framework did the RBI announce plans for regarding NBFCs in April 2026?
A
Complete deregulation
B
Classification into upper, middle, and lower layers
C
Merger with banks
D
Ban on new NBFCs
Question 25Single Answer
Vaishnath (Railway Minister) flagged off the first direct Vande Bharat Express between:
A
Delhi and Mumbai
B
Jammu and Srinagar
C
Chennai and Bengaluru
D
Kolkata and Guwahati
Question 26Single Answer
What major defence-related development was highlighted on 1 May 2026 involving India and Italy?
A
Joint naval exercise in the Indian Ocean
B
Purchase of Rafale jets
C
Rajnath Singh-Italy Defence Pact
D
Signing of a nuclear agreement
Question 27Single Answer
Neeraj Chopra began his pre-season training for 2026 in which country?
A
Germany
B
South Africa (Potchefstroom)
C
USA
D
Australia
Question 28Single Answer
Which initiative or mission was linked to Tatya Tope’s letter discovery?
A
Swachh Bharat
B
Namami Gange
C
Digital India
D
Gyan Bharatam Mission
Question 29Single Answer
RBI's April 2026 Monetary Policy kept the repo rate unchanged at:
A
6.5%
B
6.0%
C
4.75%
D
5.25%
Question 30Single Answer
Indian airlines (Air India, IndiGo, SpiceJet) informed the government about potential operational issues due to:
A
Pilot shortage
B
High fuel prices and Strait of Hormuz closure amid Iran war
C
New DGCA regulations
D
Airport congestion
Question 31Single Answer
A wall collapse at a hospital in which city killed seven people around early May 2026?
A
Bengaluru, Karnataka
B
Mumbai
C
Hyderabad
D
Chennai
Question 32Single Answer
A tragic road accident in Dhar, Madhya Pradesh on or around 1 May 2026 resulted in how many deaths?
A
At least 16 (including 6 children and 7 women)
B
8
C
25
D
12
Question 33Single Answer
UAE announced its exit from OPEC, with the decision taking effect from:
A
1 May 2026
B
1 January 2026
C
1 July 2026
D
31 December 2026
Question 34Single Answer
What is Prerna 2.0, launched/introduced in the news on 1 May 2026?
A
A new defence missile system
B
Green hydrogen mission
C
AI Tutoring initiative
D
Digital payment platform
Question 35Single Answer
Which satellite was launched by ISRO around early May 2026?
A
GSAT-31
B
Chandrayaan-4
C
INSAT-4CR
D
GSAT-32
English
Question 36Single Answer
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A
He was in the temper
B
and refused
C
discuss the matter again
D
No error
Question 37Single Answer
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A
A flower makes no garland
B
so we must do a thing together
C
in a unit for a good result
D
No error
Question 38Single Answer
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A
My friend is a software engineer
B
and his wife is doctor
C
so they don’t have enough time for each other
D
No error
Question 39Single Answer
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A
I don’t have much time that
B
I hear you in detail with verbosity
C
tell everything in nutshell
D
No error
Question 40Single Answer
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A
The atmosphere is changing
B
so I have severe pain in my body
C
if you have any painkiller, please give it to me
D
No error
Question 41Single Answer
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A
No one is without fault
B
because no one is God
C
and only God is fault free
D
No error
Question 42Single Answer
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A
Your
B
clock is
C
one hour fast
D
No error
Question 43Single Answer
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A
The lose of jobs
B
is regarded by some as an necessary evil
C
in the fight against infliation
D
No error
Question 44Single Answer
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A
In science, the credit goes to a man
B
who convinces the world
C
not to the man to whom the idea first occurs
D
No error
Question 45Single Answer
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A
It is only after
B
the match is over
C
that people realize how exciting it is
D
No error
Question 46Single Answer
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A
Off the two
B
sisters, she
C
is better
D
No error
Question 47Single Answer
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A
A interesting book
B
‘A Tale of two cities’
C
was written by Alexander Dumas
D
No error
Question 48Single Answer
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A
I shall never
B
forget a good
C
deed you did to me, when I was in crisis
D
No error
Question 49Single Answer
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A
Wisdom of Vikramaditya
B
solved many riddles
C
that people brought to him for solution
D
No error
Question 50Single Answer
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A
News you broke to his wife
B
made her nervous
C
and she broke down
D
No error
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English
Question 51Single Answer
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A
I have a work
B
to do and
C
so I will reach late
D
No error
Question 52Single Answer
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A
I saw portion
B
of the manuscript
C
on birds
D
No error
Question 53Single Answer
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A
Talent without experience is waste
B
so one must attain some practical knowledge and
C
it is only practical knowledge through which one can be an expert
D
No error
Question 54Single Answer
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A
The Geeta, the Bible and the Quran all show us
B
the true path of humanity
C
Ramayana also can be included in this group
D
No error
Question 55Single Answer
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A
Gandhiji was born on 2nd October 1869
B
He devoted two thirds of his life
C
for Indian freedom movement
D
No error
Question 56Single Answer
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A
The students who want to speak in English
B
must read Hindu newspaper
C
in their initial stage
D
No error
Question 57Single Answer
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A
Garib rath is a facility by railway ministry
B
for the poor to enjoy express train and facilities
C
but is mostly utilized by the upper class
D
No error
Question 58Single Answer
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A
It is
B
a quarter to ten
C
by my watch
D
No error
Question 59Single Answer
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A
Mr. Thakur lived
B
in the three-hundred year
C
old house
D
in Patna
Question 60Single Answer
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A
The uncle of mine who is farmer
B
gave me a piece of useful advice
C
when I went to see him three weeks ago
D
No error
Question 61Single Answer
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A
My neighbor along with his children
B
is going tonight to see a Taj Mahal
C
At Agra
D
No error
Question 62Single Answer
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A
Kabir an Rahim are great poets
B
but the former is
C
greater than latter
D
No error
Question 63Single Answer
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A
He has abandoned
B
the criminal activities
C
after returning from jail
D
No error
Question 64Single Answer
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A
We must have
B
sympathy for
C
needy and the poor
D
No error
Question 65Single Answer
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A
The Chinese is a very
B
difficult language to understand for those
C
who have never been to China
D
No error
Question 66Single Answer
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A
The old women placed
B
kettle on fire
C
come back to the bedroom
D
No error
Question 67Single Answer
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A
The singing is both
B
my vocation and avocation because it is a
C
source of joy and bread to me
D
No error
Question 68Single Answer
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A
Snake we saw was
B
very deadly thought
C
it left the kitchen quietly
D
No error
Question 69Single Answer
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A
Being M.A. only he
B
could not be appointed
C
to the post of a lecturer
D
No error
Question 70Single Answer
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A
Our first trip was the most interesting one
B
but our second one
C
was even more interesting
D
No error
Mental Ability
Question 71Single Answer
How many such pairs of letters are there in the word ‘CLEANLINESS’ each of the which has as many letters between them in the word as they have in the English alphabet, in the same sequence?
A
Two
B
Three
C
Five
D
Four
E
None of these
Question 72Single Answer
Team A has scored more goals than Team B
Team C has scored fewer goals than Team B
Team A has scored fewer goals than Team C .
If the first two statements are true, the third statement is
A
True
B
False
C
Uncertain
D
None
Question 73Single Answer
If it is possible to make only one meaningful word with the second, the third, the sixth and the eight letters of the word FRAGMENT using each only once, which of the following will be the third letter of that word ? If no such word can be formed, give ‘X’ as the answer and if more than one such word can be formed, give ‘Y’ as the answer.
A
A
B
E
C
T
D
X
E
Y
Question 74Single Answer
How many such letters are there in the word ORIENTAL each of which is as far away from the beginning of the word as when they are arranged alphabetically?
A
None
B
One
C
Two
D
Three
E
More than three
Question 75Single Answer
How many such pairs of letters in the word CREDIT each of which has as many letters between them in the word as in the English alphabet?
A
None
B
One
C
Two
D
Three
E
More than three
Question 76Single Answer
How many meaningful words can be made from the letters ‘LMEA’ using each letter only once in each word?
A
None
B
One
C
Two
D
Three
E
More than three
Question 77Single Answer
If it is possible to make only one meaningful word with the first, the second, the seventh and the eighth letters of the word TEMPORAL, which of the following will be the first letter of that word? If more than one such word can be made, give ‘Y’ as the answer and if no such word can be made, give ‘X’ as the answer.
A
T
B
L
C
E
D
Y
E
X
Question 78Single Answer
If the letters of the word HANDOVER are arranged alphabetically from left to right how many letters will remain at the same position?
A
None
B
One
C
Two
D
Three
E
More than three
Question 79Single Answer
How many such pairs of letters are there in the word EXCURSION, each of which has as many letters between them in the word as they have in the English alphabet?
A
None
B
One
C
Two
D
Three
E
More than three
Question 80Single Answer
If it is possible to make only one meaningful word with the first, the second, the third, the sixth and the eighth letters of the word DEVIATION first letter of that word is your answer? If more than one such word can be made formed your answer is ‘A’ and if no such word can be formed your answer is ‘B’.
A
V
B
T
C
E
D
A
E
B
Question 81Single Answer
If each alternate letter beginning with the first in the word WORKING is replaced by the next letter in the English alphabet and each of the remaining letters is replaced by the previous letter in the English alphabet, which of the following will be the fourth from the right and after the replacement ?
A
N
B
Q
C
J
D
M
E
None of these
Question 82Single Answer
How many pairs of letters are there in the word ‘SHIFTED’ each of which has as many letters between its two letters as there are between in the English alphabet?
A
None
B
One
C
Two
D
Three
E
None of these
Question 83Single Answer
Statement: Is common currency a necessary ingredient for Europe’s growth ?
Arguments :
I. Yes, A common currency will enable entire Europe to market itself as one .
II. No, Similar experiments by Latin America countries have not affected their economies .
A
The only argument I is strong
B
Only argument II is strong
C
Either I or II is strong
D
Neither I nor II is strong
Question 84Single Answer
If it is possible to make only one meaningful word with the first, the fifth, the sixth, the tenth and the eleventh letters of the word EXCEPTIONAL using each letter only once, first letter of that word is your answer. If no such word can be made formed your answer is ‘X’ and if more than one such word can be formed your answer is ‘Y’.
A
P
B
L
C
T
D
X
E
Y
Question 85Single Answer
How many meaningful English words can be formed with the letters RAE using each letter only once in each word?
A
None
B
One
C
Two
D
Three
E
More than three
Question 86Single Answer
How many such pairs of letters are there in the word WONDERS, each of which has as many letters between its two letters as there are between them in the English alphabet?
A
One
B
Two
C
Three
D
Four
E
More than four
Question 87Single Answer
If it is possible to make only one meaningful English word from the second, the fifth, the seventh and the eighth letters of the word PHYSICAL, using each letter only once, second letter of that word is your answer. If more than one such word can be formed your answer is M. if no such word can be formed your answer is N.
A
I
B
A
C
L
D
M
E
N
Question 88Single Answer
How many such pairs of letters are there in the word JUSTIFY, each of which have as many letters between them in the word as they have between them in the English alphabet?
A
None
B
One
C
Two
D
Three
E
More than three
Question 89Single Answer
If the alphabets are assigned values as A=3, D=6, G=8, I=2, L=4 and T=5 then what is the sum of values of all the alphabets in the word DIGITAL?
A
26
B
28
C
30
D
32
E
None of these
Question 90Single Answer
How many such pairs of letters are there in the word EDUCATION, each of which has as many letters between them in the word as they have in the English alphabet?
A
None
B
One
C
Two
D
Three
E
More than three
Question 91Single Answer
How many such pairs of letters are there in the word MEASURE each of which has as many letters between them in the word as in the English alphabet?
A
None
B
One
C
Two
D
Three
E
More than three
Question 92Single Answer
How many meaningful English words can be formed with the letters LMAE using each letter only once in each word?
A
None
B
One
C
Two
D
Three
E
More than three
Question 93Single Answer
If each consonant in the word EXPLORATION is replaced by previous the alphabet and each vowel replaced by alphabet following it in the English alphabetic series, and then the order of the alphabets thus formed is reversed, which of the following from the right?
A
P
B
Q
C
B
D
K
E
None of these
Question 94Single Answer
If the letters in the word AMONGST are arranged in the English alphabetical order, the position of how many letters will remain unchanged?
A
None
B
One
C
Three
D
Four
E
More than Four
Question 95Single Answer
How many meaningful English words can be formed with the letters ACRS using each letter only once in each word?
A
None
B
One
C
Two
D
Three
E
More than three
Question 96Single Answer
How many such pairs of letters there in the word, UNWANTED, each of which has as many letters between its two letters as there are between them in the English alphabets?
A
None
B
One
C
Two
D
Three
E
More than three
Question 97Single Answer
How many meaningful English words can be made with the letters EIND using each letter only once in each word?
A
None
B
One
C
Two
D
Three
E
None of these
Question 98Single Answer
How many such pairs of letters are there in the word, ‘TROUBLE’, each of which has as many letters between its two letters as there are between them in the English alphabet?
A
None
B
One
C
Two
D
Three
E
None of these
Question 99Single Answer
How many such pairs of letters there in the word DOUBTS each of which has as many letters between its two letters as there are between them in the English alphabet?
A
None
B
One
C
Two
D
Three
E
None of these
Question 100Single Answer
How many meaningful English words can be made with the letters ESDO using each letter only once in each word?
A
None
B
One
C
Two
D
Three
E
None of these
Question 101Single Answer
How many such pairs of letters there in the word, BONDING each of which has as many letters between them in the word as in the English alphabets?
A
None
B
One
C
Two
D
Three
E
None of these
Question 102Single Answer
How many such pairs of letters are there in the word CHARGES each of which has as many letters between them in the word as in the English alphabets?
A
None
B
One
C
Two
D
Three
E
None of these
Question 103Single Answer
How many meaningful English words can be made with the letters EDSU using each letter only once in each word?
A
None
B
One
C
Two
D
Three
E
More than three
Question 104Single Answer
How many meaningful English words can be made with the letters RTOU using each letter only once in each word?
A
None
B
One
C
Two
D
Three
E
More than three
Question 105Single Answer
How many such pairs of letters are there in the word ENGULFED each of which has as many letters between them in the word as in the English alphabets?
A
None
B
One
C
Two
D
Three
E
More than three
Accounts
Question 106Single Answer
Who is Father of Scientific Management ?
A
Henry Fayol
B
Elton Mayo
C
Chester Bernard
D
F. W. Taylor
Question 107Single Answer
Appointment of a Company Secretary is made by –
A
Promoters
B
Board of Directors
C
Debenture holders
D
Government
Question 108Single Answer
Bonus Shares are issued to –
A
Equity Shareholders
B
Preference Shareholders
C
Debenture Holders
D
Secured Creditors
Question 109Single Answer
Under which principle, all the rights of an insured are transferred to insurance company after making payment of claim ?
A
Subrogation
B
Utmost good faith
C
Contribution
D
Average clause
Question 110Single Answer
Rs. 10,000 spent on the replacement of worn out parts of an electronic machinery is treated as –
A
Capital expenditure
B
Revenue expenditure
C
Deferred revenue expenditure
D
Capital loss
Question 111Single Answer
EPS is calculated as –
A
EBIT / Equity shares
B
EBIT – Preference Dividend / Equity shares
C
EAT / Equity shares
D
EAT – Preference Dividend / Equity shares
Question 112Single Answer
Which is the oldest form of organisation ?
A
Line
B
Line and staff
C
Functional
D
Matrix
Question 113Single Answer
In ‘Direction’ who is given importance ?
A
To machines
B
To paper work
C
To man
D
To production
Question 114Single Answer
Standard costing is a technique of –
A
Planning
B
Organising
C
Coordination
D
Control
Question 115Single Answer
‘Table A’ is an alternative to –
A
Prospectus
B
Articles of Association
C
Memorandum of Association
D
None of the above
Question 116Single Answer
FEMA stands for –
A
Foreign Exchange Management Act
B
Funds Exchange Management Act
C
Finance Enhancement Monetary Act
D
Future Exchange Management Act
Question 117Single Answer
What of the following is false about W.T.O. ?
A
It is the main organ for implementing the Multilateral Trade Agreement
B
It is global in its membership
C
It has far wider scope than GATT
D
Only countries having more than prescribed level of total GDP can become its member
Question 118Single Answer
……........… has been founded to act as permanent watchdog on the international trade .
A
ISRD
B
ADS
C
WTO
D
DIMF
Question 119Single Answer
Which of the following statement is correct ?
A
The disinvestment programme has been successfully carried out in India
B
Privatisation up to 100% has been carried out in all the PSU in India
C
Under strategic sale method of disinvestment, the government sells a major share to a strategic partner
D
None of the above
Question 120Single Answer
Advance Income-tax is shown in the –
A
Debit side of Profit and Loss Account
B
Liability side of the Balance Sheet
C
Credit side of Profit and Loss Account
D
Assets side of the Balance Sheet
Question 121Single Answer
In the absence of a Partnership Deed, the rate of interest allowed on the partner’s loan to the firm is –
A
5%
B
6%
C
10%
D
None of the above
Question 122Single Answer
Interim Dividend is shown –
A
In Profit and Loss Account
B
In Profit and Loss Appropriation Account
C
On Asset side of Balance Sheet
D
On Liabilities side of Balance Sheet
Question 123Single Answer
Memorandum of Association contains –
A
Objective clause
B
Name clause
C
Capital clause
D
All of the above
Question 124Single Answer
If a cheque presented through the Clearing House is returned unpaid for any reason, the banker has to enclose the cheque to a Returning Memo while returning the instrument to the customer. This provision has been prescribed under:
A
Negotiable Instruments Act, 1881
B
Reserve Bank of India Act, 1934
C
Banking Regulation Act, 1949
D
RBI Clearing House Rules
Question 125Single Answer
By which of the following methods a Company Secretary can be removed from his post ?
A
By passing a resolution in Board Meeting
B
By order of Registrar of Companies
C
By passing a resolution in Annual General Meeting
D
None of the above
Question 126Single Answer
Which one of the following statements is correct in respect of Duty Drawback Scheme ?
A
Relieving export goods of duties paid for components used for manufacturing the export goods
B
Providing cash incentives to exporters to compensate the duty paid by them in foreign countries
C
Compensating importers to the extent of import duty paid by them for importing life-saving drugs
D
Providing a facility for withdrawing the duty paid by exporters if their exports are rejected in foreign countries
Question 127Single Answer
In foreign trade, what is the price quoted by a supplier which includes all charges incurred up to door delivery of goods to the buyer, called ?
A
Loco price
B
C.I.F. price
C
Franco price
D
Landed price
Question 128Single Answer
If the cost of goods sold is Rs. 1,00,000, the value of opening stock is Rs. 20,000 and the value of closing stock is Rs. 80,000, then the stock turnover ratio would be –
A
5 Times
B
4 Times
C
2 Times
D
1 Time
Question 129Single Answer
If profit made during the year is Rs. 10,000; increase and decrease in the current assets is Rs. 5,000 and Rs. 4,000 respectively, then the cash from operation equals –
A
Rs. 9,000
B
Rs. 10,000
C
Rs. 11,000
D
Rs. 19,000
Question 130Single Answer
Commercial paper is a –
A
long-term corporate security meant for small investors
B
medium-term corporate security meant for institutional investors
C
treasury paper meant for corporate investors
D
short-term corporate security meant for large-scale investors
Question 131Single Answer
A cartel is a combination of firms –
A
which are functioning in a particular industry
B
whose combined assets are worth more than 90% of total assets of the industry
C
who control major chunk of the market
D
whose combined profits are enormous
Question 132Single Answer
One of the major difficulties improving the industrial efficiency in enterprises is –
A
low investment
B
low productivity
C
ineffective marketing
D
poor inventory control
Question 133Single Answer
Exam Bank of India provides financial assistance to exporters and importers in India :
A
in foreign currency only
B
both in Indian currency and foreign currencies
C
as zero-interest loans
D
as subsidies
Question 134Single Answer
‘Object Clause’ of a Memorandum of Association can be altered by –
A
Ordinary resolution
B
Special resolution
C
Special resolution and confirmation by Registrar of Companies
D
Special resolution and confirmation by Company Law Board
Question 135Single Answer
The takeover of a company in which most of the purchase price is paid with borrowed money is referred to as –
A
hostile takeover
B
illegal takeover
C
leveraged buy-out
D
management buy-out
Question 136Single Answer
A public company can start business –
A
After incorporation
B
After promotion
C
After registration
D
After getting certificate of commencement of business
Question 137Single Answer
Impact of O & M is that –
A
promotion possibility becomes restricted
B
it leads to less scope for high salary and wages
C
entire organization is streamlined
D
work measurement is costly
Question 138Single Answer
The term ‘Organisational climate’ best represents –
A
human environment prevailing in an organisation
B
union-management relations within an organisation
C
problems introduced by faulty organisational structure
D
socio-cultural environment in an organisation
Question 139Single Answer
The Memorandum of Association shall be signed by each –
A
director
B
shareholder
C
subscriber
D
promoter and director
Question 140Single Answer
Changing the name of a company requires –
A
special resolution and approval of Company Law Board
B
special resolution and approval of Securities and Exchange Board of India
C
special resolution and approval of Central Government
D
ordinary resolution and approval of Company Law Board
Question 141Single Answer
Registration of Articles of Association is optional in the case of –
A
unlimited company
B
private company limited by shares
C
company limited by guarantee
D
public company limited by share
Question 142Single Answer
The Base Rate system has replaced BPLR with effect from:
A
01.05.2010
B
01.06.2010
C
01.07.2010
D
01.08.2010
Question 143Single Answer
Under the accrual concept which one of the following will not be shown as an asset/liability in the balance sheet of an entity ?
A
Interest due but not paid
B
Interest due but not received
C
Interest due and paid
D
Interest paid but not due
Question 144Single Answer
Goods worth Rs. 24,000 were returned by X. The accountant however credited the sales returns account by Rs. 42,000. In order to rectify this error, what should be done ?
A
Debit the sale return by Rs.42,000
B
Credit the sales return account by Rs. 24,000
C
Debit the sales return account by Rs. 66,000
D
Debit the sales return account by Rs. 18,000
Question 145Single Answer
A machine with a written down value of Rs. 10,000 has been sold for Rs. 13,000. The amount realized is a –
A
Capital receipt and profit involved should be transferred to Capital Reserve
B
Revenue receipt
C
Capital receipt and profit involved should be transferred to General Reserve
D
Capital receipt and profit involved should be transferred to Profit and Loss A/c
Question 146Single Answer
Provisions are amounts set aside out of profits and other surpluses for –
A
meeting a liability, the amount of which can be determined with exact figure
B
any known liability of which the amount cannot be determined with substantial accuracy
C
meeting an eventuality arising out of revaluation of assets in ordinary course of business
D
meeting a liability arising out of arbitration
Question 147Single Answer
A Ltd. Company issues 3,000, 15% debentures of Rs. 100 each at a discount of 7•5% repayable at a premium of 5% at the end of 5 years. The loss on issue of debentures will be –
A
Rs. 22,500
B
Rs. 30,000
C
Rs. 37,500
D
Rs. 45,000
Question 148Single Answer
X Ltd. has current ratio of 2– 1 and quick ratio of 1•5– 1. If its current liabilities are Rs. 80,000, then the value of stock would be –
A
Rs. 1,60,000
B
Rs. 1,20,000
C
Rs. 40,000
D
Rs. 80,000
Question 149Single Answer
Test checking of entries in the audit work refers to –
A
the internal checks
B
the inernal controls
C
checking some sample items from a large number of similar items
