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Question Bank

India Seeds Assistant Exam - English

Duration: 150 · Questions: 250 · Max Marks: 250 · Language: 1

View India Seeds Assistant 2026 Exam Page

Reasoning

1
How many such pairs of letters are there in the word ‘CLEANLINESS’ each of the which has as many letters between them in the word as they have in the English alphabet, in the same sequence?
  1. A.Two
  2. B.Three
  3. C.Five
  4. D.Four
  5. E.None of these
2
Team A has scored more goals than Team B
Team C has scored fewer goals than Team B
Team A has scored fewer goals than Team C .
If the first two statements are true, the third statement is
  1. A.True
  2. B.False
  3. C.Uncertain
  4. D.None
3
If it is possible to make only one meaningful word with the second, the third, the sixth and the eight letters of the word FRAGMENT using each only once, which of the following will be the third letter of that word ? If no such word can be formed, give ‘X’ as the answer and if more than one such word can be formed, give ‘Y’ as the answer.
  1. A.A
  2. B.E
  3. C.T
  4. D.X
  5. E.Y
4
How many such letters are there in the word ORIENTAL each of which is as far away from the beginning of the word as when they are arranged alphabetically?
  1. A.None            
  2. B.One         
  3. C.Two       
  4. D.Three        
  5. E.More than three
5
How many such pairs of letters in the word CREDIT each of which has as many letters between them in the word as in the English alphabet?
  1. A.None
  2. B.One
  3. C.Two
  4. D.Three
  5. E.More than three
6
How many meaningful words can be made from the letters ‘LMEA’ using each letter only once in each word?
  1. A.None
  2. B.One
  3. C.Two
  4. D.Three
  5. E.More than three
7
If it is possible to make only one meaningful word with the first, the second, the seventh and the eighth letters of the word TEMPORAL, which of the following will be the first letter of that word? If more than one such word can be made, give ‘Y’ as the answer and if no such word can be made, give ‘X’ as the answer.
  1. A.T
  2. B.L
  3. C.E
  4. D.Y
  5. E.X
8
If the letters of the word HANDOVER are arranged alphabetically from left to right how many letters will remain at the same position?
  1. A.None
  2. B.One
  3. C.Two
  4. D.Three
  5. E.More than three
9
How many such pairs of letters are there in the word EXCURSION, each of which has as many letters between them in the word as they have in the English alphabet?
  1. A.None
  2. B.One
  3. C.Two
  4. D.Three
  5. E.More than three
10
If it is possible to make only one meaningful word with the first, the second, the third, the sixth and the eighth letters of the word DEVIATION first letter of that word is your answer? If more than one such word can be made formed your answer is ‘A’  and if no such word can be formed your answer is ‘B’.
  1. A.V
  2. B.T
  3. C.E
  4. D.A
  5. E.B
11
If each alternate letter beginning with the first in the word WORKING is replaced by the next letter in the English alphabet and each of the remaining letters is replaced by the previous letter in the English alphabet, which of the following will be the fourth from the right and after the replacement ?
  1. A.N
  2. B.Q
  3. C.J
  4. D.M
  5. E.None of these
12
How many pairs of letters are there in the word ‘SHIFTED’ each of which has as many letters between its two letters as there are between in the English alphabet?
  1. A.None
  2. B.One
  3. C.Two
  4. D.Three
  5. E.None of these
13
Statement: Is common currency a necessary ingredient for Europe’s growth ?
Arguments :
I. Yes, A common currency will enable entire Europe to market itself as one .
II. No, Similar experiments by Latin America countries have not affected their economies .
  1. A.The only argument I is strong
  2. B.Only argument II is strong
  3. C.Either I or II is strong
  4. D.Neither I nor II is strong
14
If it is possible to make only one meaningful word with the first, the fifth, the sixth, the tenth and the eleventh letters of the word EXCEPTIONAL using each letter only once, first letter of that word is your answer. If no such word can be made formed your answer is ‘X’  and if more than one such word can be formed your answer is ‘Y’.
  1. A.P
  2. B.L
  3. C.T
  4. D.X
  5. E.Y
15
How many meaningful English words can be formed with the letters RAE using each letter only once in each word?
  1. A.None
  2. B.One
  3. C.Two
  4. D.Three
  5. E.More than three
16
How many such pairs of letters are there in the word WONDERS, each of which has as many letters between its two letters as there are between them in the English alphabet?
  1. A.One
  2. B.Two
  3. C.Three
  4. D.Four
  5. E.More than four
17
If it is possible to make only one meaningful English word from the second, the fifth, the seventh and the eighth letters of the word PHYSICAL, using each letter only once, second letter of that word is your answer. If more than one such word can  be formed your answer is M. if no such word can be formed your answer is N.
  1. A.I
  2. B.A
  3. C.L
  4. D.M
  5. E.N
18
How many such pairs of letters are there in the word JUSTIFY, each of which have as many letters between them in the word as they have between them in the English alphabet?
  1. A.None
  2. B.One
  3. C.Two
  4. D.Three
  5. E.More than three
19
If the alphabets are assigned values as A=3, D=6, G=8, I=2, L=4 and T=5 then what is the sum of values of all the alphabets in the word DIGITAL?
  1. A.26
  2. B.28
  3. C.30
  4. D.32
  5. E.None of these
20
How many such pairs of letters are there in the word EDUCATION, each of which has as many letters between them in the word as they have in the English alphabet?
  1. A.None
  2. B.One
  3. C.Two
  4. D.Three
  5. E.More than three
21
Which letter in this alphabet is the eighth letter to the right of the letter and which is tenth letter to the left of the last but one letter of the alphabet ?
  1. A.X
  2. B.W
  3. C.I
  4. D.H
22
How many such pairs of letters are there in the word MEASURE each of which has as many letters between them in the word as in the English alphabet?
  1. A.None
  2. B.One
  3. C.Two
  4. D.Three
  5. E.More than three
23
How many meaningful English words can be formed with the letters LMAE using each letter only once in each word?
  1. A.None
  2. B.One
  3. C.Two
  4. D.Three
  5. E.More than three
24
If each consonant in the word EXPLORATION is replaced by previous the alphabet and each vowel replaced by alphabet  following it in the English alphabetic series, and then the order of the alphabets thus formed is reversed, which of the following from the right?
  1. A.P                 
  2. B.Q            
  3. C.B              
  4. D.K              
  5. E.None of these
25
If the letters in the word AMONGST are arranged in the English alphabetical order, the position of how many letters will remain unchanged?
  1. A.None
  2. B.One
  3. C.Three
  4. D.Four
  5. E.More than Four
26
How many meaningful English words can be formed with the letters ACRS using each letter only once in each word?
  1. A.None
  2. B.One
  3. C.Two
  4. D.Three
  5. E.More than three
27
How many such pairs of letters there in the word, UNWANTED, each of which has as many letters between its two letters as there are between them in the English alphabets?
  1. A.None
  2. B.One
  3. C.Two
  4. D.Three
  5. E.More than three
28
How many meaningful English words can be made with the letters EIND using each letter only once in each word?
  1. A.None
  2. B.One
  3. C.Two
  4. D.Three
  5. E.None of these
29
How many such pairs of letters are  there in the word, ‘TROUBLE’, each of which has as many letters between its two letters as there are between them in the English alphabet?
  1. A.None
  2. B.One
  3. C.Two
  4. D.Three
  5. E.None of these
30
How many such pairs of letters there in the word DOUBTS each of which has as many letters between its two letters as there are between them in the English alphabet?
  1. A.None
  2. B.One
  3. C.Two
  4. D.Three
  5. E.None of these
31
How many meaningful English words can be made with the letters ESDO using each letter only once in each word?
  1. A.None
  2. B.One
  3. C.Two
  4. D.Three
  5. E.None of these
32
How many such pairs of letters there in the word, BONDING each of which has as many letters between them in the word as in the English alphabets?
  1. A.None
  2. B.One
  3. C.Two
  4. D.Three
  5. E.None of these
33
How many such pairs of letters are there in the word CHARGES each of which has as many letters between them in the word as in the English alphabets?
  1. A.None
  2. B.One
  3. C.Two
  4. D.Three
  5. E.None of these
34
How many meaningful English words can be made with the letters EDSU using each letter only once in each word?
  1. A.None
  2. B.One
  3. C.Two
  4. D.Three
  5. E.More than three
35
How many meaningful English words can be made with the letters RTOU using each letter only once in each word?
  1. A.None
  2. B.One
  3. C.Two
  4. D.Three
  5. E.More than three
36
How many such pairs of letters are there in the word ENGULFED each of which has as many letters between them in the word as in the English alphabets?
  1. A.None
  2. B.One
  3. C.Two
  4. D.Three
  5. E.More than three
37
How many such pairs of letters are there in the word CORPORATE each of which has as many letters between them in the word as in the English alphabets?
  1. A.None
  2. B.One
  3. C.Two
  4. D.Three
  5. E.More than three
38
If it is possible to make only one meaningful word with the first, second, fifth and sixth letters of the word ‘EDUCATION’, which would be the last letter of the word? If more than one such word can be formed, give X as the answer. If no such word can be formed, give K as your answer.
  1. A.T
  2. B.X
  3. C.A
  4. D.E
  5. E.K
39
How many meaningful English words can be made with the letters ‘OEHM’ using each letter only once in each word?
  1. A.None
  2. B.One
  3. C.Two
  4. D.Three
  5. E.More than three
40
How many such pairs of letters are there in the word CONFIRM each of which has as many letters between them in the word as in the English alphabets?
  1. A.None
  2. B.One
  3. C.Two
  4. D.Three
  5. E.More than three
41
If JOSEPH is coded as FKOALD, then GEORGE will be coded as
  1. A.CAKNCA
  2. B.CADMNO
  3. C.CAKNIT
  4. D.JAKINS
42
How many such pairs of letters are there in the word TAILSPIN each of which has as many letters between them in the word as in the English alphabets?
  1. A.None
  2. B.One
  3. C.Two
  4. D.Three
  5. E.More than three
43
A B C D E F G H I J K L M N O P Q R S T U V W X Y Z .
Which letter is in the middle of 13th letter from the left and 4th letter from the right ?
  1. A.R
  2. B.I
  3. C.J
  4. D.S
44
How many such pairs of letters are there in the word MINORITY each of which has as many letters between them in the word as in the English alphabets?
  1. A.None
  2. B.One
  3. C.Two
  4. D.Three
  5. E.More than three
45
How many such pairs of letters are there in the word CHARIOT each of which has as many letters between them in the word as in the English alphabets?
  1. A.None
  2. B.One
  3. C.Two
  4. D.Three
  5. E.More than three
46
If it is possible to make only one meaning word with the first, second, fourth, and the sixth letters of the word ’STARVING’ . Which would be the second letter of the word from the right end? If more than one such word can be formed, give X as the answer. If no such word can be formed, give K as your answer.
  1. A.T
  2. B.S
  3. C.X
  4. D.I
  5. E.K
47
How many such pairs of letters are there in the word ELUSIVE each of which has as many letters between them in the word as in the English alphabets?
  1. A.None
  2. B.One
  3. C.Two
  4. D.Three
  5. E.More than three
48
If it is possible to make only one meaning word with the first, third, fifth, and the ninth letters of the word ’CURVATURE’ . Which would be the second letter of the word ? If more than one such word can be formed, give X as the answer. If no such word can be formed, give K as your answer.
  1. A.R
  2. B.D
  3. C.X
  4. D.I
  5. E.K
49
If in certain code MONKEY is written as ZFLOPN then in the same code how CHARACTER is written ?
  1. A.SFUBIDDBS
  2. B.SFUDBSBID
  3. C.SFUDBSCID
  4. D.SFUDBEBID
50
How many meaningful English words can be made with the letters NNEO using each letter only once in each word?
  1. A.None
  2. B.One
  3. C.Two
  4. D.Three
  5. E.More than three

Numerical Ability

1
A boat can travel with a speed of 13 km/hr in still water. If the speed of the stream is 4 km/hr, find the time taken by the boat to go 68 km downstream .
  1. A.2 hours
  2. B.3 hours
  3. C.4 hours
  4. D.5 hours
2
Sum of digit of a two-digit number is 15 and the difference between the digits is 3. What is the two digit number ?
  1. A.69
  2. B.96
  3. C.78
  4. D.Cannot be determined
  5. E.None of these
3
The sum of three consecutive integers is 30. Which of the following is the largest among the three ?
  1. A.12
  2. B.13
  3. C.14
  4. D.10
  5. E.None of these
4
Which is the largest of the following fractions ?
    5
    The sum of 3 consecutive even numbers is 198. Which of the following will be the smallest number among them ?
    1. A.42
    2. B.38
    3. C.32
    4. D.72
    5. E.None of these
    6
    Two third of half of a number is 18. What is one third of that number ?
    1. A.18
    2. B.16
    3. C.19
    4. D.17
    5. E.None of these
    7
    The difference between th of th of a number and  of th of the same number is 9. What in the number.
    1. A.45
    2. B.35
    3. C.40
    4. D.30
    5. E.None of these
    8
    If  is subtracted from and the difference is multiplied by 504, what will be the number ?
    1. A.2024
    2. B.2104
    3. C.2004
    4. D.2014
    5. E.None of these
    9
    ‘a’ is greater than ‘b’ by 2 and ‘b’ is greater than ‘c’ by 10. If a+b+c = 130 then (b+c) - a = ?
    1. A.38
    2. B.42
    3. C.44
    4. D.34
    5. E.None of these
    10
    The product of two successive positive integers is 462. Which is the smaller integer ?
    1. A.20
    2. B.22
    3. C.21
    4. D.23
    5. E.None of these
    11
    If the difference between a number and two fifth of the number is 30, find the number .
    1. A.50
    2. B.75
    3. C.57
    4. D.60
    5. E.None of these
    12
    IF the sum of four consecutive even number  is 228. Which is the smallest of the number ?
    1. A.52
    2. B.54
    3. C.56
    4. D.48
    5. E.None of these
    13
    If the following fractions are arranged in descending order which will be the last in the series ?
      14
      What is the least number to be added to 3986 to make it a perfect square ?
      1. A.118
      2. B.95
      3. C.110
      4. D.100
      5. E.None of these
      15
      What is 234 time 167 ?
      1. A.48768
      2. B.41184
      3. C.40581
      4. D.39078
      5. E.None of these
      16
      The product of two consecutive even number is 4488. Which is the smaller number ?
      1. A.62
      2. B.71
      3. C.66
      4. D.65
      5. E.None of these
      17
      If the fractions  are arranged in ascending order of their values, which one will be the fourth ?
        18
        What is the least number to be added to 1416 to make it perfect square ?
        1. A.47
        2. B.38
        3. C.28
        4. D.25
        5. E.None of these
        19
        What is 147 times 329 ?
        1. A.48069
        2. B.48363
        3. C.49021
        4. D.48723
        5. E.None of these
        20
        The sum of 5 consecutive even number A, B, C, D and E is 410. What is the product of A and E ?
        1. A.6708
        2. B.6880
        3. C.6552
        4. D.Cannot be determined
        5. E.None of these
        21
        The product of two consecutive odd number is 6399. What  is the smaller number ?
        1. A.83
        2. B.79
        3. C.81
        4. D.77
        5. E.None of these
        22
        If the fractions  are arranged in descending order of their values, which one will be the fourth ?
        1. E.None of these
        23
        What is 394 times 113 ?
        1. A.44402
        2. B.44632
        3. C.44802
        4. D.44522
        5. E.None of these
        24
        What is the least number to be added to 7700 to make it a perfect square ?
        1. A.131
        2. B.221
        3. C.77
        4. D.98
        5. E.None of these
        25
        What least number should be added to 8602 to make if a perfect square ?
        1. A.234
        2. B.47
        3. C.128
        4. D.36
        5. E.None of these
        26
        What is 846 times 323 ?
        1. A.280872
        2. B.276488
        3. C.273258
        4. D.272412
        5. E.None of these
        27
        The sum of the two digits of a two digit number is 15 and the difference between the two digits of the two digit number is 3 . What is the product of the two digits of the two digit number ?
        1. A.72
        2. B.56
        3. C.54
        4. D.Cannot be determined
        5. E.None of these
        28
        If the fractions are arranged in ascending order of their values, Which fraction will be the fifth ?
        1. E.None of these
        29
        The product of two consecutive odd numbers is 4623. What is the product of the next two consecutive odd numbers ?
        1. A.4899
        2. B.4891
        3. C.5037
        4. D.5183
        5. E.None of these
        30
        What is the least number to be added to 2600 to make it a perfect square ?
        1. A.1
        2. B.5
        3. C.3
        4. D.9
        5. E.None of these
        31
        The product of two consecutive even numbers is 45368 . What is the greater number ?
        1. A.212
        2. B.216
        3. C.210
        4. D.208
        5. E.None of these
        32
        What is 304 times 141 ?
        1. A.39640
        2. B.45942
        3. C.38760
        4. D.42864
        5. E.None of these
        33
        If the fractions are arranged in ascending order of their values. Which one will be the fourth ?
        1. E.None of these
        34
        What  is the least number to be added to 666 to make it a perfect suare?
        1. A.10
        2. B.20
        3. C.30
        4. D.40
        5. E.none of these
        35
        What is the least number to be added to 8008 to make It a perfect square?
        1. A.273
        2. B.87
        3. C.264
        4. D.92
        5. E.None of These
        36
        What  is 519 times 176?
        1. A.91168
        2. B.91344
        3. C.91520
        4. D.91696
        5. E.none of these
        37
        The average of 5 consecutive odd numbers A, B, C, D and E is 55 What is the product of B and D ?
        1. A.2915          
        2. B.3127
        3. C.3021
        4. D.2703
        5. E.None of these
        38
        If the fractions  are arranged in ascending order their values which one will be the third ?
          39
          8 litres are drawn from a cask full of wine and is then filled with water. This operation is performed three more times. The ratio of the quantity of wine now left in cask to that of the water is 16 : 65. How much wine the cask hold originally ?
          1. A.18 litres
          2. B.24 litres
          3. C.32 litres
          4. D.42 litres
          40
          What is 238 times 411 ?
          1. A.98718          
          2. B.97888            
          3. C.98788      
          4. D.97818        
          5. E.none of these
          41
          IF the fractions  are arranged in ascending order of their values, which one will be the second          
          1. E.None of these
          42
          The Average of 4 consecutive even numbers is 103. What is the product of smallest and the largest number?
          1. A.10400
          2. B.10504
          3. C.10605
          4. D.10600
          5. E.None of these
          43
          621 – 23.829 – 9.302 – 2.214 = ?
          1. A.281
          2. B.272
          3. C.276
          4. D.254
          5. E.None of these
          44
          The sum of five consecutive even numbers A. B, C, D and E is 130. What Is the product of A and E?
          1. A.720     
          2. B.616          
          3. C.660 
          4. D.672 
          5. E.None of these
          45
          The product to two consecutive even numbers is 1088. Which is the larger number?
          1. A.38         
          2. B.32           
          3. C.36 
          4. D.34   
          5. E.None of these
          46
          There are two numbers such that the sum of twice the first number and thrice the second number is 141 and the sum of thrice the first number and twice the second number is 174. Which is the larger number?
          1. A.52    
          2. B.36       
          3. C.48 
          4. D.24  
          5. E.None of these
          47
          By how much is  th of 1536 less than  of 1450 ?
          1. A.894 
          2. B.908     
          3. C.902 
          4. D.904    
          5. E.None of these
          48
          What is 394 times 113 ?
          1. A.44402
          2. B.44632
          3. C.44802
          4. D.44522
          5. E.none of these
          49
          What least number should be added to 785 to make It a perfect square ?
          1. A.115    
          2. B.48 
          3. C.56
          4. D.52    
          5. E.none of these
          50
          The sum of the two digits of a two digit number is 13. The difference between the two digits of the number is 3. What is the two digit number?
          1. A.85      
          2. B.49            
          3. C.58  
          4. D.Cannot be determined
          5. E.None of these

          General Awareness

          1
          Yojna a weekly journal
          1. A.Ministry of Finance        
          2. B.Ministry of Information and Broadcastin
          3. C.Ministry of Rural Development
          4. D.Planning Commission
          2
          Kurukshetra a journal on rural development is published by
          1. A.Ministry of Finance 
          2. B.Ministry of Information and Broadcastin
          3. C.Ministry of Rural Development
          4. D.Planning Commission
          3
          Devaluation of a currency means
          1. A.Fixing the value of the currency in conjuction with the movement in the value of a basket of predetermined currencies
          2. B.Reduction in the value of a currency vis-à-vis major internationally traded currencies
          3. C.Fixing the value of currency in multilateral consultaion with the IMF the World Bank and major trading partners
          4. D.Permitting the currency to seek its worth in the international market
          4
          In India rural incomes are generally lower than the urban incomes, which of the following reasons account for this
                      1. a large number of farmers are illiterate and know little about scientific agriculture
                      2. prices of primary products are lower than those of manufactured products
                      3. Investments in agriculture has been low when compared to investment in industry
          1. A.1 and 3
          2. B.2 and 3
          3. C.1 and 2
          4. D.1,2 and 3
          5
          Which of the following programmes aims at the promotion of savings among rural women
          1. A.Rashtriya Mahila Kosh
          2. B.Indira Mahila Yojna
          3. C.Jawahar Rozgar Yojna
          4. D.Mahila Samridhi Yojna
          6
          What is Net National Product
          1. A.the money value of final goods and services produced annually in the economy
          2. B.the money value of annual service generation in the economy
          3. C.the money value of tangible goods produced annually in the economy
          4. D.The money value of tangible goods available in the economy
          7
          National income is the 
          1. A.net national product at market price
          2. B.net national product at factor cost
          3. C.net domestic product at market price
          4. D.net domestic product at factor cost
          8
          Chelliah Committee of 1992 deals with the overhauling of our
          1. A.financial system            
          2. B.tax system
          3. C.patents and copyrights  
          4. D.Public sector undertakings
          9
          During which Five Year Plan was the annual growth rate of National Income the lowest
          1. A.2nd plan
          2. B.3rd plan
          3. C.5th plan
          4. D.6th plan
          10
          Which of the following taxes is a progressive tax
          1. A.sales tax           
          2. B.custom tax
          3. C.excise tax         
          4. D.income tax
          11
          Which of the following estimates the National Income in India
          1. A.National Income Committee
          2. B.Planning Commission
          3. C.Reserve Bank Of India
          4. D.Central Statistical Organisation
          12
          India changed over to the decimal system, coinage in
          1. A.April 1951         
          2. B.April 1955
          3. C.April 1957         
          4. D.April 1978
          13
          11th Five Year Plan aim at achieving 10% rural tele density in India from the present 1.9% by the year
          1. A.2008     
          2. B.2009
          3. C.2010     
          4. D.2012
          14
          Which one of the following statements Monitorable Socio Economic Target of the 11th Five Year Plan under the head Environment is not correct
          1. A.treat urban waste water by 2011-12
          2. B.Increase energy efficiency by 20% points by 2016-17
          3. C.attain WHO standards of air quality in all major cities by 2011-12
          4. D.increase forest and tree cover by 15% points
          15
          Who is the ex-officio chairman of Planning commission and National Development Council
          1. A.President
          2. B.Prime Minister
          3. C.Finance Minister
          4. D.Commerce Minister
          16
          Persons below the poverty line in Indian are classified as such based on wheather
          1. A.they belong to agriculture labourer household and the scheduled caste/trive social group
          2. B.they get work for a prescribed minimum number of days in a year
          3. C.they are entitled to a minimum prescribed food basket
          4. D.their daily waged fall below the prescribed minimum wages
          17
          Which of the following Committee’s recommendations are being followed for estimating proverty line in India
          1. A.Dutt committee
          2. B.Lakdawala committee
          3. C.Cheliah Committee
          4. D.Chakravorty Committee
          18
          In which year India adopeted liberal and free market principles
          1. A.1975                 
          2. B.1981
          3. C.1991                 
          4. D.2000
          19
          Consider the following statements
          1. There is persistent investment over time only in select locals
          2. some areas are agro climatically less conductive to development
          3. some areas continue to face little or no agrarian transformation and the consequent lack of social and
          4. some areas have faced continous political instability
                      Which of the above statements are correct
          1. A.1,2 and 3          
          2. B.1,2 and 4
          3. C.1,3 and 4          
          4. D.2,3 and 4
          20
          When was first human development report of India issued
          1. A.April 2001         
          2. B.March 2000
          3. C.June 2002
          4. D.April 2002
          21
          How many censuses have been carried out since independence
          1. A.5
          2. B.6
          3. C.7          
          4. D.8
          22
          For which year the latest census is being conducted in India
          1. A.2001                 
          2. B.2010
          3. C.2012     
          4. D.2011
          23
          Which of the following are the features of 12th Five Year Plan -
                  1. Average growth target has been set up 8.2%
                  2. Areas of main thrust are infrastructure, health  and education
                  3. it seeks to achieve 4% agriculture sector growth during five year period
          1. A.1 only
          2. B.1 and 2
          3. C.1 and 3
          4. D.1,2, and 3
          24
          The period of 12th Five Year Plan 
          1. A.2007-12
          2. B.2008-13
          3. C.2010-15
          4. D.2012-17
          25
          A closed economy is an economy in which
          1. A.the money supply is fully controlled       
          2. B.deficit financing takes place
          3. C.only exports take place
          4. D.neither exports nor imports take place
          26
          In which state, the Department of Posts delivered mail using a drone for the first time ?
          1. A.Kerala
          2. B.Telangana
          3. C.Gujarat
          4. D.Odisha
          27
          Bandhan Express and Maitree Express, which were seen in the news, run between India and which country ?
          1. A.Nepal
          2. B.Sri Lanka
          3. C.Bangladesh
          4. D.Myanmar
          28
          What is the theme of the ‘United Nations Peace keepers 2022’ ?
          1. A.People Peace Progress
          2. B.Peace for All
          3. C.Plant Peace Partnerships
          4. D.Tribute to Peacekeepers
          29
          As per the ‘Road Accidents in India – 2020’ report released recently, which state/UT recorded the highest accident severity in 2020 ?
          1. A.Kerala
          2. B.Mizoram
          3. C.Assam
          4. D.Himachal Pradesh
          30
          Which is the second state to recognize Community Forest Resource (CFR) rights inside a National Park ?
          1. A.Rajasthan
          2. B.Chhattisgarh
          3. C.Karnataka
          4. D.Madhya Pradesh
          31
          PARAM ANANTA, a state of the art Super computer was commissioned at ……….. on May 30,2022.
          1. A.IIT Kanpur
          2. B.IIT Madras
          3. C.IIT Mumbai
          4. D.IIT Gandhi nagar
          32
          Veteran Journalist Padmanand Jha Passed away on 30 May 2022. He was one of the founding members of ………. Newspaper.
          1. A.The Pioneer
          2. B.Hindustan Times
          3. C.The Hindu
          4. D.The Indian Express
          33
          Who has inaugurated the 3 day 39th Commanders’ Conference of the Indian Coast Guard (ICG) ?
          1. A.Defence Minister Rajnath Singh
          2. B.PM Narendra Modi
          3. C.President Ram Nath Kovind
          4. D.Home Minister Amit Shah
          34
          What is the theme for 8th International Day of Yoga in 2022 ?
          1. A.Yoga for Healthy Body
          2. B.Yoga and World
          3. C.Yoga for Humans
          4. D.Yoga for Humanity
          35
          When does Goa Celebrated its state hood day ?
          1. A.15 March
          2. B.28 May
          3. C.30 May
          4. D.30 April
          36
          The Prime Minister’s Employment Generation Programme (PMEGP) has been extended till which year ?
          1. A.2023-24
          2. B.2024-25
          3. C.2025-26
          4. D.2029-30
          37
          Name the Indian Navy Ships (INS) Western Fleet’s oldest warrior, it was decommissioned after 34 years in Mumbai, Maharashtra .
          1. A.INS Rajput
          2. B.INS Khukri
          3. C.INS Viraat
          4. D.INS Gomati
          38
          Which Institution released the report titled ‘Tobacco: Poisoning Our Planet’ ?
          1. A.NITI Aayog
          2. B.World Health Organization
          3. C.UNICEF
          4. D.Ministry of Health and Family Welfare
          39
          Which state is the top sugar producer of India in 2021-22 ?
          1. A.Madhya Pradesh
          2. B.Maharashtra
          3. C.Gujarat
          4. D.Karnataka
          40
          Which country has recently signed a free trade agreement (FTA) with the United Arab Emirates ?
          1. A.Australia
          2. B.Israel
          3. C.France
          4. D.Italy
          41
          In May 2022, the Indian Government announced the formation of the Cotton Council of India under the Chairmanship of whom ?
          1. A.Suresh Bhai Kotak
          2. B.Piyush Goyal
          3. C.ChiragTrivedi
          4. D.Raghav Kumar
          42
          Name the Savings life Insurance plan that was recently (In May 22) launched by the Life Insurance Corporation of India (LIC) .
          1. A.Bima Jyoti
          2. B.Jeevan Lakshya
          3. C.Bima Ratna
          4. D.Jeevan Umang
          43
          Which of the followings currencies’ weightage was recently (In May’22) increased by the International Monetary Fund (IMF) in Special Drawing Rights (SDR) ?
          1. A.Euro
          2. B.Dollar
          3. C.Renminbi
          4. D.Both B and C
          44
          As per the Ministry of Commerce and Industry, which country recently (In May’22) became India’s top trading partner in 2021-22 by surpassing China ?
          1. A.United States
          2. B.Russia
          3. C.Saudi Arabia
          4. D.Singapore
          45
          Which country tops the 7th edition of the Forbes 30 under 30 Asia List 2022 released in May 2022 ?
          1. A.China
          2. B.India
          3. C.Japan
          4. D.Australia
          46
          As per the recent NSO Update (June 2022), what is the GDP Growth estimate of India in 2021-22 ?
          1. A.8.5 Percent
          2. B.8.7 Percent
          3. C.8.9 Percent
          4. D.9.2 Percent
          47
          What are the new annual premium rates of PMJJBY and PMSBY respectively, with effect from June 1, 2022 ?
          1. A.Rs 520 and Rs 40
          2. B.Rs 436 and Rs 20
          3. C.Rs 400 and Rs 40
          4. D.Rs 350 and Rs 30
          48
          What is the fiscal deficit recorded in India for 2021-22 (in percentage of GDP) ?
          1. A.7.51%
          2. B.7.01%
          3. C.6.71%
          4. D.6.21%
          49
          Who has been appointed as the MD and CEO of NARCL (National Assets Reconstruction Company Ltd) ?
          1. A.Urjit Patel
          2. B.Natarajan Sundar
          3. C.Ashwani Bhatia
          4. D.Nitin Chugh
          50
          What is the theme of the ‘World No Tobacco Day 2022’ ?
          1. A.Tobacco: A Threat to our Humanity
          2. B.Tobacco: A Threat to our Environment
          3. C.Tobacco: A Threat to Health
          4. D.Dangers of Smoking

          Computer Knowledge

          1
          Which Windows interface element typically appears to display information, a warning, an error message, or a request for confirmation?
          1. A.Window
          2. B.Pop-up menu
          3. C.Message box
          4. D.Taskbar
          2
          What is active desktop ?
          1. A.a term that is synonymous with viewing your desktop as web page
          2. B.a feature to customize your desktop to display informating you can update from the internet
          3. C.both a and b above mentioned
          4. D.A software
          5. E.None of these
          3
          What is meant by an active window?
          1. A.A window that is minimized
          2. B.The window currently receiving user input
          3. C.Any window currently open
          4. D.The window opened first
          4
          What was America Online (AOL) primarily known for during the early popularization of consumer Internet access?
          1. A.An online service providing Internet access and proprietary online content
          2. B.A computer operating system
          3. C.A spreadsheet application
          4. D.A database management system
          5
          An application is
          1. A.word processing, accounting and engineering programs are example of application programs
          2. B.computer program designed to enable users to perform specific job functions
          3. C.Both a and b above mentioned
          4. D.a document
          5. E.None of these
          6
          Which of the following programs enables you to calculate numbers related to rows and columns?
          1. A.Window program
          2. B.Spreadsheet program
          3. C.Graphics program
          4. D.Word program
          5. E.None of these
          7
          The term Briefcase is used for
          1. A.a special folder on the windows desktop used to keep documents up to date when shared between computers
          2. B.a window that us currently open
          3. C.A folder which keeps deleted, files for a while and can be retrieved from it
          4. D.All of the above
          5. E.None of these
          8
          In a graphical user interface, what is a button primarily used for?
          1. A.Executing a command or initiating an action
          2. B.Permanently storing data
          3. C.Displaying the computer's IP address
          4. D.Formatting a disk automatically
          9
          A channel (in windows terminology) is
          1. A.a widely used online service that offers access to the internet
          2. B.a specialized web site designed to work with the windows 98 subscribing feature to automatically download information from the internet and store it on your computer for later viewing
          3. C.an area on the computer memory where text or graphics can be temporarily stored
          4. D.All of the above
          5. E.None of these
          10
          What does a checked checkbox generally indicate in a graphical user interface?
          1. A.The associated option is enabled or selected
          2. B.The application has closed
          3. C.The file has been deleted
          4. D.The computer is offline
          11
          The term classic style implies
          1. A.you can click on an item to select it and double click on an item to open it
          2. B.a folder options setting that tells double click on an item to open it
          3. C.both a and b 
          4. D.font style
          5. E.None of these
          12
          The term click implies
          1. A.to quickly push and release the main mouse button when onscreen mouse pointer is positioned over the desired item
          2. B.a button in a dialog box
          3. C.to shut down or exit a dialog box
          4. D.All of the above
          5. E.None of these
          13
          What is the primary function of the Close button marked with an X on a window?
          1. A.Minimize the window
          2. B.Close the associated window or application
          3. C.Maximize the window
          4. D.Move the window
          14
          A command button
          1. A.is a one in a dialog box such as open, close, exit OK or cancel that carries out a command
          2. B.is a symbol that designates the position on the screen where text or codes will be inserted or deleted
          3. C.is a sort on screen from where you can open and manages files and programs
          4. D.is a small button with an X on it
          5. E.None of these
          15
          What is smallest unit of the information?
          1. A.A bit
          2. B.A byte
          3. C.A block
          4. D.A nibble
          16
          A cursor is 
          1. A.to make a selection from the document from the document and duplicate it on the clipboard 
          2. B.a symbol that designated the position on the screen where text or codes will be inserted or deleted
          3. C.pressing and holding the main mouse button
          4. D.A button in a dialog box
          5. E.None of these
          17
          What is a Database Management System (DBMS)?
          1. A.A structured collection of data only
          2. B.Software used to create, manage, retrieve, and update data in databases
          3. C.A physical device for storing database backups
          4. D.A programming language used only for calculations
          18
          The meaning of cut is
          1. A.to take a selection from the document and move it to the clipboard 
          2. B.to cut a document in two unequal parts
          3. C.to cut a document in two equal parts
          4. D.Only b and c are correct
          19
          A setting or action predetermined by the program unless changed by the user is called as
          1. A.pre - determined setting
          2. B.user - setting
          3. C.default
          4. D.setting
          5. E.None of these
          20
          The search back ground and main area of windows where you can open and manage files and programs is
          1. A.wall paper
          2. B.desktop
          3. C.background      
          4. D.All of the above
          5. E.None of these
          21
          What is a dialog box in a graphical user interface?
          1. A.An on-screen window used to display information or obtain user input and selections
          2. B.A tool used exclusively for audio and video calls
          3. C.A hardware device used for voice commands
          4. D.A program used exclusively to browse websites
          22
          A letter, memo, proposal, or other that is created using Microsoft word is called as
          1. A.Master  
          2. B.slide
          3. C.document         
          4. D.worksheet
          5. E.None of these
          23
          The meaning of double click is 
          1. A.pushing and releasing the main mouse button twice in rapid succession when the on - tree mouse pointer is positioned over the desired item
          2. B.appearance of an icon
          3. C.to take a selection from the document and move it to the clipboard
          4. D.All of the above
          5. E.None of these
          24
          The term drag and drop means
          1. A.appearance of an icon
          2. B.used for selecting text
          3. C.to move text or an object by positioning the mouse pointer on the item you want to move, pressing and holding the mouse button to drop the object into its new location
          4. D.to take a selection from the document and move it to the clipboard
          5. E.None of these
          25
          What does dragging with a mouse mean?
          1. A.Holding down a mouse button while moving the mouse pointer
          2. B.Closing an application
          3. C.Double-clicking an icon without moving the mouse
          4. D.Restarting the computer
          26
          What is the purpose of a drop-down list in a graphical user interface?
          1. A.To display a list of selectable choices when expanded
          2. B.To permanently delete selected files
          3. C.To close all running applications
          4. D.To display only error messages
          27
          The default name for a desktop icon that opens an explore window displaying information about your system’s disk drives and also special system folders like printers and control panel
          1. A.my computer     
          2. B.news groups
          3. C.message box                
          4. D.network neighbourhood
          5. E.None of these
          28
          ________________ means to enlarge window to its maximum area so that it will full entire desktop
          1. A.maximize          
          2. B.zoom
          3. C.enlarge
          4. D.extend
          5. E.None of these
          29
          What is HTML primarily used for?
          1. A.Defining the structure and meaning of content on web pages
          2. B.Managing computer hardware drivers
          3. C.Encrypting all Internet traffic
          4. D.Controlling the computer's BIOS
          30
          What is the process of visually emphasizing selected text or an object on a computer screen commonly called?
          1. A.Shading
          2. B.Hyperlinking
          3. C.Highlighting
          4. D.Compiling
          31
          What is an icon in a graphical user interface?
          1. A.An action performed when a button is clicked
          2. B.A small graphical representation of an application, command, file, folder, or function
          3. C.A type of computer memory
          4. D.A text-only command prompt
          32
          In graphical user interfaces, what does an ellipsis (...) following a menu command commonly indicate?
          1. A.The command will open a dialog box or require additional input
          2. B.The command will immediately shut down the computer
          3. C.The command has already been executed
          4. D.The command cannot be selected
          33
          _____________ is an area of memory assigned to store any e-mail message for the user
          1. A.Outlook express
          2. B.yahoo.com
          3. C.post- box          
          4. D.mail box
          5. E.None of  these
          34
          Group of letters, numbers, and symbols with a common typerface is called as
          1. A.file        
          2. B.font
          3. C.style
          4. D.GUI
          5. E.None of these
          35
          A___ is an electronic device that process data converting into information.
          1. A.processor
          2. B.computer
          3. C.menu
          4. D.mouse
          5. E.None of these
          36
          This is the process of getting access to the computer
          1. A.sign in  
          2. B.log in
          3. C.log off
          4. D.enter     
          5. E.None of these
          37
          The full step wise process of closing a computer is called
          1. A.shutting            
          2. B.closing 
          3. C.log off  
          4. D.shut down
          5. E.None of these
          38
          What is a clickable connection from one web document or resource to another called?
          1. A.Hyperlink
          2. B.Compiler
          3. C.Cursor
          4. D.Clipboard
          39
          This device is used to connect your computer with a telephone line, so that can access information form other servers and ordinary users too, said device is called
          1. A.modem
          2. B.set top box
          3. C.LAN card
          4. D.UPS
          5. E.None of these
          40
          What is an Internet discussion area where users exchange messages about a particular subject traditionally called?
          1. A.Newsgroup
          2. B.Spreadsheet
          3. C.Search engine
          4. D.Device driver
          41
          Which two functional units are fundamental components of a CPU?
          1. A.Control Unit and Arithmetic Logic Unit
          2. B.Keyboard and mouse
          3. C.Monitor and printer
          4. D.Hard disk and optical drive
          42
          Hardware that are easily attached to computer and can be played instantly are called as
          1. A.multimedia        
          2. B.plug and play
          3. C.digital   
          4. D.point to point
          5. E.None of these
          43
          There is a central file in windows OS that is used to keep track of information about installed hardware and software and their preferences on the specific computer. This file is
          1. A.system database
          2. B.main menu
          3. C.registry
          4. D.directory
          5. E.None of these
          44
          It is the smallest dot that can be uniquely drawn on a computer screen.This is 
          1. A.Boxel               
          2. B.Computer dort
          3. C.Cursor  
          4. D.Pixel
          5. E.None of these
          45
          In an office document, a picture, chart, shape, or other inserted item is generally treated as what?
          1. A.Object
          2. B.Clipboard
          3. C.Cursor
          4. D.Taskbar
          46
          What is a quick press and release of the secondary mouse button called?
          1. A.Right-click
          2. B.Double-click
          3. C.Drag
          4. D.Scroll
          47
          An operation to retrieve information image as well as text which is stored in clip board and inset it at the destined place is
          1. A.copy     
          2. B.insert
          3. C.select
          4. D.paste
          5. E.None of these
          48
          Display bar that list all the open folders and active application is
          1. A.menu bar 
          2. B.tool bar
          3. C.task bar            
          4. D.window list
          5. E.None of these
          49
          A large space common in most of the windows which is for user’s work with that application is
          1. A.application view
          2. B.work area
          3. C.project view      
          4. D.tool bars
          5. E.None of these
          50
          __________- is the list of print jobs waiting to be sent to a particular printer
          1. A.print list
          2. B.job queue
          3. C.print requests
          4. D.print queue
          5. E.None of these

          English

          1
          Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
          1. A.He was in the temper
          2. B.and refused
          3. C.discuss the matter again
          4. D.No error
          2
          Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
          1. A.A flower makes no garland
          2. B.so we must do a thing together
          3. C.in a unit for a good result
          4. D.No error
          3
          Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
          1. A.My friend is a software engineer
          2. B.and his wife is doctor
          3. C.so they don’t have enough time for each other
          4. D.No error
          4
          Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
          1. A.I don’t have much time that
          2. B.I hear you in detail with verbosity
          3. C.tell everything in nutshell
          4. D.No error
          5
          Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
          1. A.The atmosphere is changing
          2. B.so I have severe pain in my body
          3. C.if you have any painkiller, please give it to me
          4. D.No error
          6
          Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
          1. A.No one is without fault
          2. B.because no one is God
          3. C.and only God is fault free
          4. D.No error
          7
          Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
          1. A.Your
          2. B.clock is
          3. C.one hour fast
          4. D.No error
          8
          Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
          1. A.The lose of jobs
          2. B.is regarded by some as an necessary evil
          3. C.in the fight against infliation
          4. D.No error
          9
          Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
          1. A.In science, the credit goes to a man
          2. B.who convinces the world
          3. C.not to the man to whom the idea first occurs
          4. D.No error
          10
          Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
          1. A.It is only after
          2. B.the match is over
          3. C.that people realize how exciting it is
          4. D.No error
          11
          Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
          1. A.Off the two
          2. B.sisters, she
          3. C.is better
          4. D.No error
          12
          Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
          1. A.A interesting book
          2. B.‘A Tale of two cities’
          3. C.was written by Alexander Dumas
          4. D.No error
          13
          Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
          1. A.I shall never
          2. B.forget a good
          3. C.deed you did to me, when I was in crisis
          4. D.No error
          14
          Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
          1. A.Wisdom of Vikramaditya
          2. B.solved many riddles
          3. C.that people brought to him for solution
          4. D.No error
          15
          Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
          1. A.News you broke to his wife
          2. B.made her nervous
          3. C.and she broke down
          4. D.No error
          16
          Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
          1. A.I have a work
          2. B.to do and
          3. C.so I will reach late
          4. D.No error
          17
          Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
          1. A.I saw portion
          2. B.of the manuscript
          3. C.on birds
          4. D.No error
          18
          Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
          1. A.Talent without experience is waste
          2. B.so one must attain some practical knowledge and
          3. C.it is only practical knowledge through which one can be an expert
          4. D.No error
          19
          Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
          1. A.The Geeta, the Bible and the Quran all show us
          2. B.the true path of humanity
          3. C.Ramayana also can be included in this group
          4. D.No error
          20
          Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
          1. A.Gandhiji was born on 2nd October 1869
          2. B.He devoted two thirds of his life
          3. C.for Indian freedom movement
          4. D.No error
          21
          Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
          1. A.The students who want to speak in English
          2. B.must read Hindu newspaper
          3. C.in their initial stage
          4. D.No error
          22
          Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
          1. A.Garib rath is a facility by railway ministry
          2. B.for the poor to enjoy express train and facilities
          3. C.but is mostly utilized by the upper class
          4. D.No error
          23
          Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
          1. A.It is
          2. B.a quarter to ten
          3. C.by my watch
          4. D.No error
          24
          Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
          1. A.Mr. Thakur lived
          2. B.in the three-hundred year
          3. C.old house
          4. D.in Patna
          25
          Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
          1. A.The uncle of mine who is farmer
          2. B.gave me a piece of useful advice
          3. C.when I went to see him three weeks ago
          4. D.No error
          26
          Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
          1. A.My neighbor along with his children
          2. B.is going tonight to see a Taj Mahal
          3. C.At Agra
          4. D.No error
          27
          Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
          1. A.Kabir an Rahim are great poets
          2. B.but the former is
          3. C.greater than latter
          4. D.No error
          28
          Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
          1. A.He has abandoned
          2. B.the criminal activities
          3. C.after returning from jail
          4. D.No error
          29
          Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
          1. A.We must have
          2. B.sympathy for
          3. C.needy and the poor
          4. D.No error
          30
          Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
          1. A.The Chinese is a very
          2. B.difficult language to understand for those
          3. C.who have never been to China
          4. D.No error
          31
          Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
          1. A.The old women placed
          2. B.kettle on fire
          3. C.come back to the bedroom
          4. D.No error
          32
          Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
          1. A.The singing is both
          2. B.my vocation and avocation because it is a
          3. C.source of joy and bread to me
          4. D.No error
          33
          Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
          1. A.Snake we saw was
          2. B.very deadly thought
          3. C.it left the kitchen quietly
          4. D.No error
          34
          Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
          1. A.Being M.A. only he
          2. B.could not be appointed
          3. C.to the post of a lecturer
          4. D.No error
          35
          Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
          1. A.Our first trip was the most interesting one
          2. B.but our second one
          3. C.was even more interesting
          4. D.No error
          36
          Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
          1. A.Mahatma Gandhi did not solve
          2. B.all the problems of future
          3. C.but he did solve problems of
          4. D.No error
          37
          Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
          1. A.Having finished his breakfast
          2. B.he started working on the problem
          3. C.that had been awaiting disposal for the long time
          4. D.No error
          38
          Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
          1. A.The new railway line will
          2. B.greatly improve transport and communication
          3. C.in eastern part of the country
          4. D.No error
          39
          Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
          1. A.It being rainy day most of
          2. B.the people out on the street
          3. C.were carrying umbrellas
          4. D.No error
          40
          Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
          1. A.More you
          2. B.think of it
          3. C.the worse it becomes
          4. D.No error
          41
          Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
          1. A.I like to travel
          2. B.by the air as
          3. C.I am a very busy person
          4. D.No error
          42
          Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
          1. A.This is
          2. B.most important
          3. C.lesson which we will have to study very carefully
          4. D.No error
          43
          Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
          1. A.Hasan plays
          2. B.both cricket and billiards
          3. C.at the national level
          4. D.No error
          44
          Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
          1. A.The USA has a strong army
          2. B.that is capable of fighting
          3. C.against any army of the world
          4. D.No error
          45
          Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
          1. A.A man cannot be judged
          2. B.by his external appearance
          3. C.but by internal beauty
          4. D.No error
          46
          Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
          1. A.I met the gentleman
          2. B.today morning on my way
          3. C.to the market
          4. D.No error
          47
          Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
          1. A.It seems as the Sun
          2. B.is coming much closer because
          3. C.earth is greeting hotter
          4. D.No error
          48
          Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
          1. A.I know student
          2. B.who has stolen my book
          3. C.the boy replied to his mother on her asking about the book
          4. D.No error
          49
          Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
          1. A.Equator
          2. B.divides the Earth
          3. C.into two hemispheres
          4. D.No error
          50
          Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
          1. A.In world of ours
          2. B.one has to compete
          3. C.for almost everything
          4. D.No error