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Objective Questions

Latest Exam Question (Objective Questions), MCQ in English

Subjects : Physics, Chemistry, Biology, General English, General Intelligence

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Physics

Question 1Single Answer

The waves produced by a motorboat sailing in water are :

A
Transverse
B
Longitudinal
C
Longitudinal and transverse
D
Stationary

Question 2Single Answer

A student measures the distance traversed in free fall of a body, initially at rest in a given time. He uses this data to estimate g; the acceleration due to gravity. If the maximum percentage errors in measurement of the distance and the time are e¹and e²respectively the percentage error in the estimation of g is

A
e² – e¹
B
e¹+ 2e²
C
e¹+ e²
D
e¹– 2e²

Question 3Single Answer

Which of the following logic gates Is an univ eNal gate ?

A
NAND
B
AND
C
OR
D
NOT

Question 4Single Answer

A ray of light is incident on a 60° prism at the minimum deviation position. The angle of refraction at the first face (ie, incident face) of the prism is

A
zero
B
30°
C
45°
D
60°

Question 5Single Answer

   For transistor action
   (1) Base, emitter and collector regions should have similar size and doping concentrations.
   (2) The base region must be very thin and lightly doped.
   (3) The emitter-base junction is forward biased and base-collector junction is reverse biased.
   (4) Both the emitter-base junction as well as the base collector junction are forward biased.
   Which one of the following pairs of statements is correct?

A
(4) and (1)
B
(1) and (2)
C
(2) and (3)
D
(3) and (4)

Question 6Single Answer

The velocity with which a projectile must be fired so that it escapes earth’s gravitation does not depend on :

A
Mass of the earth
B
Mass of the projectile
C
Radius of the projectile’s orbit
D
Gravitational constant

Question 7Single Answer

The amount of heat measured in calories needed to raise the temperature of 1 gram of substance by 1 degree centigrade is known as

A
heat of fusion
B
specific heat
C
coefficient of expansion
D
latent heat

Question 8Single Answer

A closely wound solenoid of 2000 turns and area of cross-section 1.5 × 10^–4 m²carries a current of 2.0 A. It is suspended through its centre and perpendicular to its length, allowing it to turn in a horizontal plane in a uniform magnetic field 5 × 10^–2 T making an angle of 30° with the axis of the solenoid. The torque on the solenoid will be

A
3 × 10^–3 N-m
B
1.5 × 10^–3 N-m
C
1.5 × 10^–2 N-m
D
3 × 10^–2 N-m

Question 9Single Answer

A particle having a mass of 10^–2 kg carries a charge of 5 × 10^–6C. The particle is given an initial horizontal velocity of 105 ms^–1in the presence of electric field and magnetic field . To keep the particle moving in a horizontal direction, it is necessary that
   (1) should be perpendicular to the direction of velocity and should be along the direction of velocity.
   (2) Both and should be along the direction of velocity.
   (3) Both and are mutually perpendicular and perpendicular to the direction of velocity.
   (4) should be along the direction of velocity and should be perpendicular to the direction of velocity.
   Which one of the following pairs of statements is possible?

A
(1) and (3)
B
(3) and (4)
C
(2) and (3)
D
(2) and (4)

Question 10Single Answer

The physical quantity which has the dimensional formula M1T - Is

A
Compressibility
B
Density
C
Solar constant
D
Surface tension

Question 11Single Answer

The solid cylinder and a hollow cylinder, both of the same mass and same external diameter are released from the same height at the same time on a inclined plane. Both roll down without slipping. Which one will reach the bottom first?

A
Both together only when angle inclination of plane is 45°
B
Both together
C
Hollow cylinder
D
Solid cylinder

Question 12Single Answer

(1) Centre of gravity (CG) of a body is the point at which the weight of the body acts.
(2) Centre of mass coincides with the centre of gravity if the earth is assumed to have infinitely large radius.
(3) To evaluate the gravitational field intensity due to any body at an external point, the entire mass of the body can be considered to be concentrated at its CG.
(4) The radius of gyration of any body rotating about an axis is the length of the perpendicular dropped from the CG of the body to the axis.
Which one of the following pairs of statements is correct?

A
(4) and (1)
B
(1) and (2)
C
(2) and (3)
D
(3) and (4)

Question 13Single Answer

The momentum of a body Increases by 20%. What is the percentage increase. In Its kinetic energy ?

A
60
B
52
C
44
D
36

Question 14Single Answer

For the construction of nuclear-bomb, which of the following substance are taken?

A
U-235
B
F-14
C
Pu-239
D
Both (a) and (b)

Question 15Single Answer

Energy obtained when 1 g mass is completelyconverted into energy is

A
3 × 10⁸ J
B
9 × 10¹³ J
C
3 × 10¹⁰J
D
9 × 10¹⁸ J

Question 16Single Answer

In a nuclear reactor, the function of moderator, is to

A
slow down neutrons
B
speed up the neutrons
C
absorb the neutrons
D
catalyse the reaction

Question 17Single Answer

The energy produced in the sun, is done by

A
fission process
B
radioactivity
C
fusion process
D
burning of fossil fuels

Question 18Single Answer

Mosley’s law states that

A
v²= Z (a-b)
B
v = a (Z- b)²
C
v = a (Z-b)
D
v = [a(Z - b)]²

Question 19Single Answer

In a forward biased a p-n junction , the potential barrier

A
decreases
B
remains constant
C
increases
D
becomes zero

Question 20Single Answer

If the threshold wavelength for a certain metal is 2000 A, then the work- function of the metal is

A
6.2 J
B
6.2 MeV
C
6.2 eV
D
6.2 KeV

Chemistry

Question 21Single Answer

Among the elements Ca, Mg, P and Cl, the order of increasing atomic radii is Mg

A
Mg < Ca < Cl < P
B
Cl < P < Mg < Ca
C
P < Cl < Ca < Mg
D
Ca < Mg < P < Cl

Question 22Single Answer

The pressure exerted by 6.0 g of methane gas in a 0.03 m³vessel at 129° C is (Atomic masses : C = 12.01, H = 1.01 and R –8.314 JK^–1 mol^–1)

A
215216 Pa
B
13409 Pa
C
41648 Pa
D
31684 Pa

Question 23Single Answer

Among the following four compounds
A. Phenol
B. Methyl pheno
C. meta-nitrophenol
D. para nitrophenol the acidity order is

A
D > C > A > B
B
C > D > A > B
C
A > D > C > B
D
B > A > C > D

Question 24Single Answer

Among the following which one has the highest cation to anion size ratio?

A
Csl
B
CsF
C
LiF
D
NaF

Question 25Single Answer

Three moles of an ideal gas expanded spontaneously into vacuum. The work done will be

A
Infinite
B
3 J
C
9 J
D
Zero

Question 26Single Answer

Consider the following relations for emf of a electrochemical cell
(A) Emf of cell = (oxidation potential of anode) – (reduction potential of cathode)
(B) Emf of cell = (oxidation potential of anode) + (reduction potential of cathode)
(C) Emf of cell = (reduction potential of anode) + (reduction potential of cathode)
(D) Emf of cell = (oxidation potential anode) – (Oxidation potential of cathode)
Which of the above relations are correct?

A
(C) and (A)
B
(A) and (B)
C
(C) and (D)
D
(B) and (D)

Question 27Single Answer

Match List I (substances) with List II (processe employe in the manufacture of the substances) and select the correct option.
List I List II
(Substances) (Processes)
A.Sulphuric acid 1. Haber’s process
B.Steel 2. Bessemer’s process
C.Sodium 3. Leblanc process hydroxide
D.Ammonia 4. Contact process

A
1 4 2 3
B
1 2 3 4
C
4 3 2 1
D
4 2 3 1

Question 28Single Answer

When glycerol is treated with excess of HI, it produces

A
2-iodopropane
B
allyl iodide
C
propene
D
glycerol triiodide

Question 29Single Answer

Some statements about heavy water are given below
   (A) Heavy water is used as moderator in nuclear reactors.
   (B) Heavy water is more associated than ordinary water.
   (C) Heavy water is more effective solvent than ordinary water.
Which of the above statements are correct?

A
A and B
B
A, B and C
C
B and C
D
A and C

Question 30Single Answer

Which of the following oxidation states is the most common among the lanthanoids?

Question 31Single Answer

Fructose reduces Tollen’s reagent due to

A
Asymmetric carbons
B
Primary alcoholic group
C
Secondary alcoholic group
D
Enoiisation of fructose followed conversion to aldehyde by base

Question 32Single Answer

hreshold frequency of a metal is 5 × 10¹³ s^–1upon which 1 × 10¹⁴ s^–1 frequency light is focused. Then the maximum kinetic energy of emitted electron is

A
3.3 × 10^–21
B
3.3 × 10^–20
C
6.6 × 10^–21
D
6.6 × 10^–20

Question 33Single Answer

A compound has an empirical formula CH₂O . If its vapour dencity is 45, is molecular formula is

A
C₈H₆O₈
B
C₄H₈O₄
C
C₃H₆O₃
D
C₅H₁₀O₅

Question 34Single Answer

How many P = O bond present in (HPO₃)₃?

Question 35Single Answer

At STP, the dencity of a gas (molecular weight 45) is

A
2 g/litre
B
22.4 g/litre
C
11.2 g/litre
D
26.6 g/litre

Question 36Single Answer

A certain sample of gas has a volume of 0.2 litres measured at 1 atm . pressure and 0º C .at the same pressure but at 273ºC , its volume will be

A
0.4 litre
B
1.4 litre
C
0.8 litre
D
1.8 litre

Question 37Single Answer

If the equivalent weight of a bivalent metal is 37.2 then the molecular weight of its chloride is

A
108.2
B
216.6
C
145.4
D
412.2

Question 38Single Answer

The e.m.f. of a galvanic cell , with electrode potentials of zinc = + 0.76 V and that of copper = - 0.34 V , is

A
-1.1 V
B
+0.34 V
C
+1.1 V
D
+0.76 V

Question 39Single Answer

Most favourable conditional for iopnic bonding are

A
low charge on ions, large cation, large anion
B
low charge on ions, large cation, small anion
C
high charge on ions , large cations , small anion
D
high charge on ions , large cations , large anion

Question 40Single Answer

Sulphur -35 (34.96903 a.m.u. ) emits a β- particles but no γ- ray. The product is chlorine -35 (34.96885 a.m.u.) The maximum energy emitted by the β- particles is

A
16.758 MeV
B
0.16758 MeV
C
1.6758 MeV
D
0.016767 MeV

Biology

Question 41Single Answer

Which one of the following pairs of structures is correctly matched with their correct description?

A
Structure Description
Tibia and fibula Both form parts of knee joint
B
Cartilage and cornea No blood supply but do require oxygen for respiratory need
C
Shoulder joint and elbow joint Ball and socket type of joint
D
Premolars and molars 20 in all and 3 rooted

Question 42Single Answer

Fastest distribution of some injectible material/medicine and with no risk of any kind can be achieved by injecting it into the

A
muscles
B
arteries
C
veins
D
lymph vessels

Question 43Single Answer

Which one of the following statements about the particular entity is true?

A
Centromere is found in animal cells which produces aster during cell division
B
The gene for producing insulin is present in every body cell
C
Nucleosome is formed of nucleotides
D
DNA consists of a core of eight histones

Question 44Single Answer

Which one of the following is a xerophytic plant in which the stem is modified into the flat green and succulent structure?

A
Opuntia
B
Casuarina
C
Hydrilla
D
Acacia

Question 45Single Answer

Which of the following is used in gene cloning?

A
Nucleoids
B
Lomasomes
C
Mesosomes
D
Plasmids

Question 46Single Answer

When domestic sewage mixes with river water

A
small animals like rats will die after drinking river water
B
the increased microbial activity releases micronutrients such as iron
C
the increased microbial activity uses up dissolved oxygen
D
the river water is still suitable for drinking as impurities are only about 0.1%

Question 47Single Answer

In which one of the following organism, its excretory organs are correctly stated?

A
Humans — Kidneys, sebaceous glands and tear glands
B
Earthworm — Pharyngeal, integumentary and septal nephridia
C
Cockroach — Malpighian tubules and enteric caeca
D
Frog — Kidneys, skin and buccal epithelium

Question 48Single Answer

The most apparent change during the evolutionary history of Homo sapiens is traced in

A
loss of body hair
B
walking upright
C
shortening of the jaws
D
remarkable increase in the brain size

Question 49Single Answer

Which one of the following is now commercially produced by biotechnolo procedures?

A
Nicotine
B
Morphine
C
Quinine
D
Insulin

Question 50Single Answer

If for some reason the parietal cells of the gut epithelium become partially non-functional, what is likely to happen?

A
The pancreatic enzymes and specially the trypsin and lipase will not work efficiently
B
The pH of stomach will fall abruptly
C
Steapsin will be more effective
D
Proteins will not be adequately hydrolysed by pepsin into proteoses and peptones

Biology

Question 51Single Answer

Which one of the following is most appropriately defined?

A
Host is an organism, which provides food to another organism
B
Amensalism is a relationship in which one species is benefited whereas the other is unaffected
C
Predator is an organism that catches and kills other organism for food
D
Parasite is an organism, which always lives inside the body of other organism and may kill it

Question 52Single Answer

Read the following four statements, A, B, C and D and select the right option having both correct statements.
A. Z secheme of light reaction takes place in presence of PS-I only.
B. Only PS-I is functional in cyclic photophosphorylation.
C. Cyclic photophosphorylation results into synthesis of ATP and NADPH2.
D. Stroma lamellae lack PS-II as well as NADP.

A
B and D
B
A and B
C
B and C
D
C and D

Question 53Single Answer

Which one of the following techniques is safest for the detection of cancer?

A
Magnetic Resonance Imaging (MRI)
B
Radiography (X-ray)
C
Computed Tomography (CT)
D
Histopathological Studies

Question 54Single Answer

Signals from fully developed foetus and placenta ultimately lead to parturition which requires the release of

A
oestrogen from placenta
B
oxytocin from maternal pituitary
C
oxytocin from foetal pituitary
D
relaxin from placenta

Question 55Single Answer

Select the correct matching of a hormone its source and function.

A
Hormone Source Function
Vasopressin Posterior pituitary Increases loss of water through urine
B
Norepinephrine Adrenal medulla Increases heart beat, rate of respiration and alertness
C
Glucagon Beta-cells of Islets glycogenolysis Langerhans Stimulates
D
Prolactin Posterior pituitary Regulates growth and milk formation in females

Question 56Single Answer

In eukaryotic cell transcription, RNA splicing and RNA capping take place inside the

A
ribosomes
B
nucleus
C
dictyosomes
D
ER

Question 57Single Answer

Given below are four statements (A-D) regarding human blood circulatory system
A. Arteries are thick-walled and have narrow lumen as compared to veins.
B. Angina is acute chest pain when the blood circulation to the brain is reduced.
C. Persons with blood group-AB can donate blood to any person with any blood group under ABO system.
D. Calcium ions play a very important role in blood clotting.
Which two of the above statements are correct?

A
A and D
B
A and B
C
B and C
D
C and D

Question 58Single Answer

In human female, the blastocyst

A
forms placenta even before implantation
B
gets implanted into uterus three days after ovulation
C
gets nutrition from uterine endometrial secretion only after implantation
D
gets implanted in endometrium by the trophoblast cells

Question 59Single Answer

The haemoglobin content per 100 mL of blood of a normal healthy human adult is

A
5-11 g
B
25-30 g
C
17-20g
D
12-16 g

Question 60Single Answer

An example of endomycorrhiza is

A
Nostoc
B
Glomus
C
Agaricus
D
Rhizobium

General English

Question 61Single Answer

Direction : Read each sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The error, if any, will be in one part of the sentence. The number of that part is the answer. If there is no error, the answer is (5) i.e., 'No error'. (Ignore the errors of punctuation, if any.)

A
The principle that
B
a pen is mightier
C
then a sword
D
was known to early Greeks.
E
No error

Question 62Single Answer

A
Martha missed her dog
B
who died of a
C
skin infection at a
D
very young age.
E
No error

Question 63Single Answer

A
There was such
B
a crowd that
C
he would not
D
find his brother.
E
No error

Question 64Single Answer

A
Having managed the
B
team of two
C
years, he knew
D
his players well.
E
No error

Question 65Single Answer

A
Because of heavy
B
rains the trains
C
are disable to
D
run on time.
E
No error

Question 66Single Answer

A
The State Government
B
has send reports
C
to the centre
D
on the situation.
E
No error

Question 67Single Answer

A
Whether a person
B
takes to smoking
C
depends a lot
D
in his social network.
E
No error

Question 68Single Answer

A
Every home and every office
B
needs the latest equipment
C
for keep up
D
with times.
E
No error

Question 69Single Answer

A
The idea of turning
B
invisible with the
C
swish of clock have
D
always fascinated scientists.
E
No error

Question 70Single Answer

A
She had seen
B
the approaching truck
C
and had jumping
D
out of the way.
E
No error

Question 71Single Answer

Direction: Read each sentence to find Out whether here is any grammatical error in it. The error if any, will be in one part of the sentence, the number of the part is the answer. If there is no error, the answer is (5) (ignore the errors of punctuation, if any)

A
No country can long endure
B
if its foundations
C
were not laid deep
D
in the material prosperity.
E
No error

Question 72Single Answer

A
I went 0 the liberarian and cashier
B
and they gave me
C
all facilities required
D
to complete the project
E
No error

Question 73Single Answer

A
When she comes
B
to see us
C
she usually were bring
D
somethings with her.
E
No errors

Question 74Single Answer

A
Why did you
B
not told me
C
that the meeting
D
was postponed.
E
No error

Question 75Single Answer

A
He picked up
B
the books
C
and put it
D
on the table.
E
No error

Question 76Single Answer

Direction: In each question below a sentence with four words printed in bold type is given.
These are numbered as (1), (2), (3) and (4). One of these four words may be either wrongly spelt or inappropriate in the context of the sentence. Find out the word which is wrongly spelt or inappropriate, if any. The number of that word is your answer. If all the four words are correctly spelt and also appropriate in the context of the sentence, mark (5) i.e., 'All correct' as your answer.

A
Almost
B
two hours have elapsed
C
since he fell
D
asleep.
E
All correct

Question 77Single Answer

A
Have you noticed
B
that the country is on the brink
C
of a serious
D
dissaster
E
All correct

Question 78Single Answer

Direction : Read each sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The error if any will be in one part of the sentence. The number of that part is the answer. If there is no error the answer is (5) (Ignore the errors of punctuation, if any)

A
If the worst
B
comes to
C
worst,
D
I will have to bid good bye to my studies and join my family business.
E
No error

Question 79Single Answer

A
Because of heavy
B
rains the trains
C
are disable to
D
run on time.
E
No error

Question 80Single Answer

A
The institute
B
imparts training
C
in
D
the French.
E
No error

General Intelligence

Question 81Single Answer

In a certain code ‘ke pa lo ti’ means ‘lamp is burning bright’ and ‘lo si ti ba ke’ means ‘bright light is from lamp’Which of the following is the code for ‘burning’ in that language ?

A
Si
B
Pa
C
Ti
D
Ke
E
None of these

Question 82Single Answer

What will come in place of question mark (?) in the alphabetic order given below?
C B A A C B A A B C B A A B C C B A A B ?

Question 83Single Answer

How many meaningful English works can be formed with the letters ‘RAE’ using each letter only once in each word ?

A
None
B
One
C
Two
D
Three
E
More than three

Question 84Single Answer

The following groups of alphabets form a certain pattern with regard to their position in the English alphabetic series. Based upon the pattern, which of the following five alternative shall replace the question mark?
AD, C, HK, MJ,?

A
NQ
B
OQ
C
OR
D
MP
E
None of these

Question 85Single Answer

If the letters in the word 'DOLPHIN' are rearranged as they appear in English alphabetical order, which of the following letters will be the fifth from left?

A
O
B
D
C
I
D
L
E
None of these

Question 86Single Answer

In a certain code EXPERT is written as $Z%$Q5 and PETROL is written as %$5Q#9. How will 'EXPLORE' be writ n in that code?

A
$ Z % 9 Q # $
B
$ Z % 9 # Q $
C
$ Z % 9 # $ Q
D
$ Z % 9 $ # Q
E
None of these

Question 87Single Answer

Sunil walks towards the East from point A, turns right at point B and walks the same distance as he walked towards the East. He now turns left, walks the same distance again and finally makes a left turn and stops at point C after walking the same distance. The distance between A and C is how many times as that of A and B?

A
Cannot be determined
B
Two
C
Three
D
Four
E
None of these

Question 88Single Answer

In a certain code 'BACK' is written as '5914' and 'KITE' is written as '4876'. How is 'BEAT' written in that code?

A
5697
B
5967
C
4697
D
5687
E
None of these

Question 89Single Answer

West : North - East :: South : ?

A
North - West
B
South - East
C
North
D
East

Question 90Single Answer

How many meaningful English words can be made with the letters ALEP using each letter only once in each word?

A
None
B
one
C
Two
D
Three
E
More than three

Question 91Single Answer

Four of the following, five are alike in a certain way and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group?

A
39
B
48
C
56
D
31
E
72

Question 92Single Answer

In a certain code language, 'go and come' is written as 'na ta ka' and 'black and white' is written as 'pa ma ta'. How is 'go' written in that code language?

A
na
B
ka
C
pa
D
na or ka
E
None of these

Question 93Single Answer

How many such pairs of letters are there in the word CHANNEL each of which has as many letters between them in the word as in the English alphabet?

A
None
B
One
C
Two
D
Three
E
More than three

Question 94Single Answer

How many meaningful English words can be made with the letters ATLE using each letter only once in each word?

A
None
B
One
C
Two
D
Three
E
More than three

Question 95Single Answer

In a certain code GROWN is written as 7 @ % 36 and NAME written as 64 $ How is GEAR written in that code ?

A
74$@
B
7$4@
C
7%4@
D
7@$4
E
none of these

Question 96Single Answer

How many pairs of digits are there in the number 6315784 each of which has as many digits between them in the number as when the digits are rearranged in descending order ?

A
None
B
One
C
Two
D
Three
E
More than three

Question 97Single Answer

What should come next in the following letter series?
BDFH L NACE GIKMBDFHJ LACEGIKBDFBJ

A
B
B
L
C
M
D
F
E
None of these

Question 98Single Answer

In a certain code DISPLAY is written as RHCQZBM. How is GROU ED written in that code?

A
PSH EFO
B
NOFVCDO
C
NOF IEFO
D
PSHTCDO
E
None of these

Question 99Single Answer

Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group?

A
169
B
441
C
361
D
529
E
289

Question 100Single Answer

Among P, Q, R, T and W each having different weight, T is heavier than Wand lighter than only P. Q is not the lightest. Who among them is definitely the lightest?

A
R
B
W
C
R or W
D
Data inadequate
E
None of these

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