Question for Indian Army Electrician & Telecom Mechanic 2026 - Quiz / Questions / MCQ

Objective Questions

Latest Indian Army Electrician and Telecom Mechanic Exam Question (Objective Questions), MCQ in English

Subjects : General Intelligence & Reasoning, General Awareness, General English, Numerical Aptitude, Trade Specific

Question Bank Indian Army Electrician & Telecom Mechanic Exam - English

General Intelligence & Reasoning

Question 1Single Answer

How many such pairs of letters are there in the word ‘CLEANLINESS’ each of the which has as many letters between them in the word as they have in the English alphabet, in the same sequence?

A
Two
B
Three
C
Five
D
Four
E
None of these

Question 2Single Answer

Team A has scored more goals than Team B
Team C has scored fewer goals than Team B
Team A has scored fewer goals than Team C .
If the first two statements are true, the third statement is

A
True
B
False
C
Uncertain
D
None

Question 3Single Answer

If it is possible to make only one meaningful word with the second, the third, the sixth and the eight letters of the word FRAGMENT using each only once, which of the following will be the third letter of that word ? If no such word can be formed, give ‘X’ as the answer and if more than one such word can be formed, give ‘Y’ as the answer.

Question 4Single Answer

How many such letters are there in the word ORIENTAL each of which is as far away from the beginning of the word as when they are arranged alphabetically?

A
None
B
One
C
Two
D
Three
E
More than three

Question 5Single Answer

How many such pairs of letters in the word CREDIT each of which has as many letters between them in the word as in the English alphabet?

A
None
B
One
C
Two
D
Three
E
More than three

Question 6Single Answer

How many meaningful words can be made from the letters ‘LMEA’ using each letter only once in each word?

A
None
B
One
C
Two
D
Three
E
More than three

Question 7Single Answer

If it is possible to make only one meaningful word with the first, the second, the seventh and the eighth letters of the word TEMPORAL, which of the following will be the first letter of that word? If more than one such word can be made, give ‘Y’ as the answer and if no such word can be made, give ‘X’ as the answer.

Question 8Single Answer

If the letters of the word HANDOVER are arranged alphabetically from left to right how many letters will remain at the same position?

A
None
B
One
C
Two
D
Three
E
More than three

Question 9Single Answer

How many such pairs of letters are there in the word EXCURSION, each of which has as many letters between them in the word as they have in the English alphabet?

A
None
B
One
C
Two
D
Three
E
More than three

Question 10Single Answer

If it is possible to make only one meaningful word with the first, the second, the third, the sixth and the eighth letters of the word DEVIATION first letter of that word is your answer? If more than one such word can be made formed your answer is ‘A’ and if no such word can be formed your answer is ‘B’.

Question 11Single Answer

If each alternate letter beginning with the first in the word WORKING is replaced by the next letter in the English alphabet and each of the remaining letters is replaced by the previous letter in the English alphabet, which of the following will be the fourth from the right and after the replacement ?

A
N
B
Q
C
J
D
M
E
None of these

Question 12Single Answer

How many pairs of letters are there in the word ‘SHIFTED’ each of which has as many letters between its two letters as there are between in the English alphabet?

A
None
B
One
C
Two
D
Three
E
None of these

Question 13Single Answer

Statement: Is common currency a necessary ingredient for Europe’s growth ?
Arguments :
I. Yes, A common currency will enable entire Europe to market itself as one .
II. No, Similar experiments by Latin America countries have not affected their economies .

A
The only argument I is strong
B
Only argument II is strong
C
Either I or II is strong
D
Neither I nor II is strong

Question 14Single Answer

If it is possible to make only one meaningful word with the first, the fifth, the sixth, the tenth and the eleventh letters of the word EXCEPTIONAL using each letter only once, first letter of that word is your answer. If no such word can be made formed your answer is ‘X’ and if more than one such word can be formed your answer is ‘Y’.

Question 15Single Answer

How many meaningful English words can be formed with the letters RAE using each letter only once in each word?

A
None
B
One
C
Two
D
Three
E
More than three

Question 16Single Answer

How many such pairs of letters are there in the word WONDERS, each of which has as many letters between its two letters as there are between them in the English alphabet?

A
One
B
Two
C
Three
D
Four
E
More than four

Question 17Single Answer

If it is possible to make only one meaningful English word from the second, the fifth, the seventh and the eighth letters of the word PHYSICAL, using each letter only once, second letter of that word is your answer. If more than one such word can be formed your answer is M. if no such word can be formed your answer is N.

Question 18Single Answer

How many such pairs of letters are there in the word JUSTIFY, each of which have as many letters between them in the word as they have between them in the English alphabet?

A
None
B
One
C
Two
D
Three
E
More than three

Question 19Single Answer

If the alphabets are assigned values as A=3, D=6, G=8, I=2, L=4 and T=5 then what is the sum of values of all the alphabets in the word DIGITAL?

A
26
B
28
C
30
D
32
E
None of these

Question 20Single Answer

How many such pairs of letters are there in the word EDUCATION, each of which has as many letters between them in the word as they have in the English alphabet?

A
None
B
One
C
Two
D
Three
E
More than three

Question 21Single Answer

How many such pairs of letters are there in the word MEASURE each of which has as many letters between them in the word as in the English alphabet?

A
None
B
One
C
Two
D
Three
E
More than three

Question 22Single Answer

How many meaningful English words can be formed with the letters LMAE using each letter only once in each word?

A
None
B
One
C
Two
D
Three
E
More than three

Question 23Single Answer

If each consonant in the word EXPLORATION is replaced by previous the alphabet and each vowel replaced by alphabet following it in the English alphabetic series, and then the order of the alphabets thus formed is reversed, which of the following from the right?

A
P
B
Q
C
B
D
K
E
None of these

Question 24Single Answer

If the letters in the word AMONGST are arranged in the English alphabetical order, the position of how many letters will remain unchanged?

A
None
B
One
C
Three
D
Four
E
More than Four

Question 25Single Answer

How many meaningful English words can be formed with the letters ACRS using each letter only once in each word?

A
None
B
One
C
Two
D
Three
E
More than three

General Awareness

Question 26Single Answer

Yojna a weekly journal

A
Ministry of Finance
B
Ministry of Information and Broadcastin
C
Ministry of Rural Development
D
Planning Commission

Question 27Single Answer

Kurukshetra a journal on rural development is published by

A
Ministry of Finance
B
Ministry of Information and Broadcastin
C
Ministry of Rural Development
D
Planning Commission

Question 28Single Answer

Devaluation of a currency means

A
Fixing the value of the currency in conjuction with the movement in the value of a basket of predetermined currencies
B
Reduction in the value of a currency vis-à-vis major internationally traded currencies
C
Fixing the value of currency in multilateral consultaion with the IMF the World Bank and major trading partners
D
Permitting the currency to seek its worth in the international market

Question 29Single Answer

In India rural incomes are generally lower than the urban incomes, which of the following reasons account for this
1. a large number of farmers are illiterate and know little about scientific agriculture
2. prices of primary products are lower than those of manufactured products
3. Investments in agriculture has been low when compared to investment in industry

A
1 and 3
B
2 and 3
C
1 and 2
D
1,2 and 3

Question 30Single Answer

Which of the following programmes aims at the promotion of savings among rural women

A
Rashtriya Mahila Kosh
B
Indira Mahila Yojna
C
Jawahar Rozgar Yojna
D
Mahila Samridhi Yojna

Question 31Single Answer

What is Net National Product

A
the money value of final goods and services produced annually in the economy
B
the money value of annual service generation in the economy
C
the money value of tangible goods produced annually in the economy
D
The money value of tangible goods available in the economy

Question 32Single Answer

National income is the

A
net national product at market price
B
net national product at factor cost
C
net domestic product at market price
D
net domestic product at factor cost

Question 33Single Answer

Chelliah Committee of 1992 deals with the overhauling of our

A
financial system
B
tax system
C
patents and copyrights
D
Public sector undertakings

Question 34Single Answer

During which Five Year Plan was the annual growth rate of National Income the lowest

A
2^nd plan
B
3^rd plan
C
5^th plan
D
6^th plan

Question 35Single Answer

Which of the following taxes is a progressive tax

A
sales tax
B
custom tax
C
excise tax
D
income tax

Question 36Single Answer

Which of the following estimates the National Income in India

A
National Income Committee
B
Planning Commission
C
Reserve Bank Of India
D
Central Statistical Organisation

Question 37Single Answer

India changed over to the decimal system, coinage in

A
April 1951
B
April 1955
C
April 1957
D
April 1978

Question 38Single Answer

11^th Five Year Plan aim at achieving 10% rural tele density in India from the present 1.9% by the year

A
2008
B
2009
C
2010
D
2012

Question 39Single Answer

Which one of the following statements Monitorable Socio Economic Target of the 11^th Five Year Plan under the head Environment is not correct

A
treat urban waste water by 2011-12
B
Increase energy efficiency by 20% points by 2016-17
C
attain WHO standards of air quality in all major cities by 2011-12
D
increase forest and tree cover by 15% points

Question 40Single Answer

Who is the ex-officio chairman of Planning commission and National Development Council

A
President
B
Prime Minister
C
Finance Minister
D
Commerce Minister

Question 41Single Answer

What astronomical discovery was announced by astronomers in March 2026?

A
New planet in solar system
B
Discovery related to 1,900 light-years away (specific object)
C
Black hole merger
D
Exoplanet with life signs

Question 42Single Answer

On what date in March 2026 did Prime Minister Narendra Modi become India’s longest-serving head of government?

A
15 March
B
20 March
C
22 March
D
25 March

Question 43Single Answer

What major infrastructure project was inaugurated by PM Narendra Modi on 28 March 2026?

A
Mumbai Trans Harbour Link
B
Atal Tunnel
C
Noida International Airport
D
Chenab Bridge

Question 44Single Answer

What was the status of India-US trade relations highlighted in early 2026 leading into March developments?

A
Increased tariffs
B
Breakthrough deal reducing US tariffs on Indian goods to 18%
C
Complete trade halt
D
New sanctions

Question 45Single Answer

What was the fiscal deficit target set for FY 2026-27 in the Union Budget 2026-27 presented by FM Nirmala Sitharaman?

A
4.0% of GDP
B
5.0% of GDP
C
4.5% of GDP
D
4.3% of GDP

Question 46Single Answer

What was the total expenditure estimated in the Union Budget 2026-27?

A
₹49.6 lakh crore
B
₹53.5 lakh crore
C
₹55 lakh crore
D
₹60 lakh crore

Question 47Single Answer

What defence-related development was noted in the context of India’s preparedness amid global tensions in March 2026?

A
Reduction in capex
B
Withdrawal from international exercises
C
Complete self-reliance achieved
D
Surge in defence budget and modernisation push

Question 48Single Answer

What significant diplomatic agreement was announced between India and Canada in early March 2026?

A
Defence pact
B
Free Trade Agreement
C
Strengthened economic partnership
D
Climate alliance

Question 49Single Answer

Which airport or port received a critical LPG shipment (Pyxis Pioneer) in March 2026 amid West Asia tensions?

A
Mundra Port
B
Paradip Port
C
New Mangalore Port
D
Kandla Port

Question 50Single Answer

What major international sporting hosting rights did India receive in March 2026?

A
2028 World Athletics Indoor Championships
B
2028 Olympics
C
2030 Asian Games
D
2027 Cricket World Cup

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General English

Question 51Single Answer

Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.

A
He was in the temper
B
and refused
C
discuss the matter again
D
No error

Question 52Single Answer

A
A flower makes no garland
B
so we must do a thing together
C
in a unit for a good result
D
No error

Question 53Single Answer

A
My friend is a software engineer
B
and his wife is doctor
C
so they don’t have enough time for each other
D
No error

Question 54Single Answer

A
I don’t have much time that
B
I hear you in detail with verbosity
C
tell everything in nutshell
D
No error

Question 55Single Answer

A
The atmosphere is changing
B
so I have severe pain in my body
C
if you have any painkiller, please give it to me
D
No error

Question 56Single Answer

A
No one is without fault
B
because no one is God
C
and only God is fault free
D
No error

Question 57Single Answer

A
Your
B
clock is
C
one hour fast
D
No error

Question 58Single Answer

A
The lose of jobs
B
is regarded by some as an necessary evil
C
in the fight against infliation
D
No error

Question 59Single Answer

A
In science, the credit goes to a man
B
who convinces the world
C
not to the man to whom the idea first occurs
D
No error

Question 60Single Answer

A
It is only after
B
the match is over
C
that people realize how exciting it is
D
No error

Question 61Single Answer

A
Off the two
B
sisters, she
C
is better
D
No error

Question 62Single Answer

A
A interesting book
B
‘A Tale of two cities’
C
was written by Alexander Dumas
D
No error

Question 63Single Answer

A
I shall never
B
forget a good
C
deed you did to me, when I was in crisis
D
No error

Question 64Single Answer

A
Wisdom of Vikramaditya
B
solved many riddles
C
that people brought to him for solution
D
No error

Question 65Single Answer

A
News you broke to his wife
B
made her nervous
C
and she broke down
D
No error

Question 66Single Answer

A
I have a work
B
to do and
C
so I will reach late
D
No error

Question 67Single Answer

A
I saw portion
B
of the manuscript
C
on birds
D
No error

Question 68Single Answer

A
Talent without experience is waste
B
so one must attain some practical knowledge and
C
it is only practical knowledge through which one can be an expert
D
No error

Question 69Single Answer

A
The Geeta, the Bible and the Quran all show us
B
the true path of humanity
C
Ramayana also can be included in this group
D
No error

Question 70Single Answer

A
Gandhiji was born on 2^nd October 1869
B
He devoted two thirds of his life
C
for Indian freedom movement
D
No error

Question 71Single Answer

A
The students who want to speak in English
B
must read Hindu newspaper
C
in their initial stage
D
No error

Question 72Single Answer

A
Garib rath is a facility by railway ministry
B
for the poor to enjoy express train and facilities
C
but is mostly utilized by the upper class
D
No error

Question 73Single Answer

A
It is
B
a quarter to ten
C
by my watch
D
No error

Question 74Single Answer

A
Mr. Thakur lived
B
in the three-hundred year
C
old house
D
in Patna

Question 75Single Answer

A
The uncle of mine who is farmer
B
gave me a piece of useful advice
C
when I went to see him three weeks ago
D
No error

Numerical Aptitude

Question 76Single Answer

The cash difference between the selling prices of an article at a profit of 4% and 6% is Rs. 3. The ratio of the two selling prices is:__________ ?

A
51:52
B
52:53
C
51:53
D
52:55

Question 77Single Answer

Which of the following numbers is irrational ?

A
√49
B
0.125
C
√2
D
22/7

Question 78Single Answer

356 x 936 – 356 x 836 = ?

A
35600
B
34500
C
9630
D
93600

Question 79Single Answer

Arrange in descending order: 5/8, 7/10, 3/4

A
3/4 > 7/10 > 5/8
B
7/10 > 3/4 > 5/8
C
3/4 > 5/8 > 7/10
D
5/8 > 7/10 > 3/4

Question 80Single Answer

What is (3^{^}{4} times 9^{^}{2}) ?

A
3⁶
B
3⁸
C
3¹⁰
D
9⁶

Question 81Single Answer

If 3⁴X^-2 = 729, then find the value of X.

Question 82Single Answer

Convert 0.6 into fraction ?

A
3/5
B
2/3
C
4/5

Question 83Single Answer

The no. plate of a bus had peculiarity. The bus number was a perfect square. It was also a perfect square when the plate numbers were reversed. The bus company had only five hundred buses numbered from 1 to 500. What was the number ?

A
169
B
36
C
196
D
Can not say

Question 84Single Answer

If a and b are positive integers, such that ab = 125, then (a-b)^a+b-4= ?

A
16
B
25
C
28
D
30

Question 85Single Answer

If x^*y = x² + y² – xy, then value of 9^*11 is

A
93
B
103
C
60.5
D
121

Question 86Single Answer

Which is greater ?

A
15/16
B
17/18
C
Equal
D
Cannot compare

Question 87Single Answer

If sum of two numbers is 42 and their product is 437, then find their difference.

Question 88Single Answer

Write the 44000 in Roman numerals

A
XLI
B
XLVI
C
XLIV
D
XLVIC

Question 89Single Answer

Convert 0.0909… into fraction ?

A
1/11
B
9/11
C
1/9
D
9/10

Question 90Single Answer

What is (98 times 102) ?

A
9996
B
10000
C
10096
D
10196

Question 91Single Answer

Which is smaller ?

A
9/11
B
7/9
C
Equal
D
Cannot compare

Question 92Single Answer

Convert 0.5777… into fraction ?

A
26/45
B
52/90
C
13/22
D
5/9

Question 93Single Answer

Convert 0.81 into fraction ?

A
81/100
B
9/10
C
8/9
D
9/11

Question 94Single Answer

(63)² – (12)² =?

A
3528
B
3852
C
3582
D
3825

Question 95Single Answer

Which is greater ?

A
13/17
B
11/14
C
Equal
D
Cannot compare

Question 96Single Answer

16.928 + 24.7582

5.015 =?

A
20
B
24
C
22
D
26

Question 97Single Answer

Convert 0.75 into fraction ?

A
3/4
B
2/3
C
4/5
D
5/8

Question 98Single Answer

Which is greater ?

A
11/13
B
12/15
C
Equal
D
Cannot compare

Question 99Single Answer

Two numbers are co-prime if their HCF is ?

A
0
B
1
C
Same
D
Prime

Question 100Single Answer

Product of all factors of 10 is ?

A
10
B
100
C
1000
D
10000

Trade Specific

Question 101Single Answer

When a very small amount of higher conducting metal is added to a conductor, its conductivity will

A
increase
B
decrease
C
remain the same
D
increase or decrease depending on the impurity

Question 102Single Answer

An electrically balanced atom has 30 protons in its nucleus and 2 electrons in its outermost shell. The materials made of such atom is

A
a conductor
B
an insulator
C
a semiconductor
D
a superconductor

Question 103Single Answer

The temperature coefficient of resistance of a doped semiconductor is

A
always positive
B
always negative
C
zero
D
positive or negative depending upon the level of doping

Question 104Single Answer

In the slice processing of an integrated circuit

A
components are formed in the areas where silicon dioxide remains
B
components are formed in the areas where silicon dioxide has been removed
C
the diffusing elements diffuse through silicon dioxide
D
only on diffusion process is used

Question 105Single Answer

Permanent magnet loses the magnetic behaviour when heated because of
1. atomic vibration
2. dipole vibration
3. realignment of dipoles
Which of the above are correct?

A
1 and 2 only
B
1 and 3 only
C
1, 2 and 3
D
2 and 3

Question 106Single Answer

A Zener regulator has an input voltage varying between 20 V and 30 V. The desired regulated voltage is 12 V, while the load varies between 140

and 10k The maximum resistance in series with the unregulated source and Zener diode would be

A
3.3
B
6.6
C
36.6
D
93.3

Question 107Single Answer

A short in any type of circuit (series, parallel or combination) causes the total circuit
1. resistance to decrease
2. power to decreases
3. current to increase
Which of the above are correct?

A
2 and 3
B
2 and 4
C
1 and 4
D
1 and 3

Question 108Single Answer

An air-cored solenoid of 250 turns has a cross-sectional area A = 80 cm² and length l = 100 cm. The value of its inductance is

A
0.425 mH
B
0.628 mH
C
0.751 mH
D
0.904 mH

Question 109Single Answer

The current in a coil changes uniformly from 10 A to 1 A in half a second. A voltmeter connected across the coil gives a reading of 36 V. The self-inductance of the coil is

A
0.5 H
B
1 H
C
2 H
D
4 H

Question 110Single Answer

In a mutually coupled circuit, the primary current is reduced from 4A to zero in 10 s. A voltage of 40000 V is observed across the secondary. The mutual inductance between the coils is

A
100 H
B
10 H
C
0.1 H
D
0.01 H

Question 111Single Answer

A semiconductor differs from a conductor in that it has

A
Only one path for the free electrons in the valence band
B
Only one path for holes in the conduction band
C
Two paths followed by free electrons and holes, one an ordinary path in the conduction band and the other one an extraordinary path in the valence band, respectively
D
Two paths followed by free electrons and holes, one an extraordinary path in the conduction band and the other one an ordinary path in valence band, respectively

Question 112Single Answer

Which of the following circuits is used for converting a sine wave into a square wave?

A
Monostablemultivibrator
B
Bistablemultivibrator
C
Schmitt trigger circuit
D
Darlington complementary pair

Question 113Single Answer

Which of the following elements of electrical engineering cannot be analyzed using Ohm’s law ?

A
Capacitors
B
Inductors
C
Transistors
D
Resistance

Question 114Single Answer

Consider the following statements: A power supply uses bridge rectifier with a capacitor input filter. If one of the diodes is defective, then
1. The dc load voltage will be lower than its expected value
2. Ripple frequency will be lower than its expected value
3. The surge current will increase considerably
Which of the above statements are correct?

A
1 and 2 only
B
1 and 3 only
C
2 and 3 only
D
1, 2 and 3

Question 115Single Answer

Three identical amplifiers each having a voltage gain of 50 are cascaded. The open loop voltage gain of the combined amplifier is

A
71 dB
B
82 dB
C
91 dB
D
102 dB

Question 116Single Answer

A clamper circuit
1. Adds or subtracts a dc voltage to or from a waveform
2. Does not change the shape of the waveform
Which of the above statements are correct?

A
1 only
B
2 only
C
Both 1 and 2
D
Neither 1 nor 2

Question 117Single Answer

If a carrier of 100% modulated AM is suppressed before transmission, the power saving is nearly

A
50%
B
67%
C
100%
D
125%

Question 118Single Answer

When the modulating frequency is doubled the modulation index is halved and the modulating voltage remains constant. This happens when the modulating system is

A
AM
B
PM
C
FM
D
Delta Modulation

Question 119Single Answer

The four basic elements in a PLL are loop filter, loop amplifier, VCO and

A
Up converter
B
Down converter
C
Phase detector
D
Frequency multiplier

Question 120Single Answer

In a frequency modulated (FM) system, when the audio frequency is 500 Hz and audio frequency voltage is 2.4 V, the frequency deviation is 4.8 kHz. If the audio frequency voltage is now increased to 7.2 V then what is the new value of deviation?

A
0.6 kHz
B
3.6 kHz
C
12.4 kHz
D
14.4 kHz

Question 121Single Answer

If a square matrix of order 100 has exactly 15 distinct eigenvalues, then the degree of the minimum polynomial is

A
At least 15
B
At most 15
C
Always 15
D
Exactly 100

Question 122Single Answer

For high speed reading and storing of information in a computer, the core shall be of

A
Ferrite
B
Piezoelectric
C
Pyroelectric
D
Ferromagnetic above 768°C

Question 123Single Answer

Soft magnetic materials should have

A
Large saturation magnetization and large permeability
B
Low saturation magnetization and large permeability
C
Large saturation magnetization and low permeability
D
Low saturation magnetization and low permeability

Question 124Single Answer

Orbital magnetic moment of an electron, in an atom, is of the order of

A
0.1 Bohr magneton
B
1.0 Bohr magneton
C
10 Bohr magneton
D
100 Bohr magneton

Question 125Single Answer

When the temperature of a ferromagnetic material exceeds the Curie temperature, it behaves similar to a

A
Diamagnetic material
B
Ferrimagnetic material
C
Paramagnetic material
D
Antiferromagnetic material

Question 126Single Answer

What is the correct sequence of the following materials in ascending order of their resistivity ?
1. Iron
2. Silver
3. Constantan
4. Mica
5. Aluminium
Select the correct answer using the codes given below :

A
2, 5, 1, 3 and 4
B
4, 5, 3, 1 and 2
C
2, 3, 1, 5 and 4
D
4, 5, 1, 3 and 2

Question 127Single Answer

In the first Cauer network, with a pole at infinity, the first element must be

A
Series capacitor
B
Series inductor
C
Shunt capacitor
D
Shunt inductor

Question 128Single Answer

The total magnetic moment
1. is called saturation magnetization.
2. depends on the number of magnetic dipoles per unit volume, the instant electric current and the area of the current loop.
Which of the above statements is/are correct ?

A
1 only
B
2 only
C
Both 1 and 2
D
Neither 1 nor 2

Question 129Single Answer

Susceptibility of a diamagnetic material is 1. Negative
2. Positive
3. Dependent on the temperature
4. Independent of the temperature

A
1 and 2 only
B
1 and 3 only
C
2 and 3 only
D
1, 2 and 3

Question 130Single Answer

Superconductivity is a material property associated with

A
Changing shape by stretching
B
Stretching without breaking
C
A loss of thermal resistance
D
A loss of electrical resistance

Question 131Single Answer

An atom in a crystal vibrates at a frequency, determined by
1. Crystal heat current
2. Crystal temperature
3. The stiffness of the bonds with neighbour atoms
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

A
1 only
B
2 only
C
3 only
D
1, 2 and 3

Question 132Single Answer

Consider the following statements:
1. Nano means 10^–9 so that nano materials have an order of dimension higher than the size of atom and come in the form of rods, tubes, spheres or even thin sheets/films
2. Nano materials have enhanced of changed structural property
3. Nano elements lend themselves to mechanical processing like rolling, twisting, positioning
4. Nano elements show important electrical, magnetic and optical characteristics that are useful in electrical industry
Which of the above statements are correct?

A
1, 2 and 3 only
B
1, 2, 3 and 4
C
3 and 4 only
D
1, 2 and 4 only

Question 133Single Answer

For a two-part reciprocal network, the three transmission parameters are A = 4, B = 7 and C = 5. What is the value of D?

A
9.5
B
9.0
C
8.5
D
8.0

Question 134Single Answer

Consider the following as representations of reciprocity in terms of z-parameters:
1. z₁₁ = z₁₂ 2. z₁₂ = z₂₂
3. z₁₂ = z₂₁
Which of the above representations is/are correct?

A
1 only
B
2 only
C
3 only
D
1, 2 and 3

Question 135Single Answer

Kirchhoff’s current law is applicable to
1. Closed loops in a circuit
2. Junction in a circuit
3. Magnetic circuits
Which of the above is/are correct?

A
1 only
B
2 only
C
3 only
D
1, 2 and 3

Question 136Single Answer

Assuming both the voltage sources are in phase, the value of R for which maximum power is transferred from circuit A to circuit B is

A
0.8 Ω
B
1.4 Ω
C
2 Ω
D
2.8 Ω

Question 137Single Answer

For the intrinsic gallium-arsenide, the conductivity at room temperature 25°C is 10^-6 (ohm-m)^-1, the electron and hole nobilities are 0.85 m²/V-s and 0.04 m²/V-s respectively. What is the intrinsic carrier concentration at the room temperature?

A
7.0 × 10¹² m^-3
B
7.0 × 10^-12 m^-3
C
7.0 × 10^-12 m³
D
7.0 × 10¹² m³

Question 138Single Answer

The resistivity of intrinsic germanium at 30°C is 0.46 –m. What is the intrinsic carrier density at 30°C if the electron mobility is 0.38 m²/V-s and the hole mobility is 0.18 m²/V-s?

A
9.2 × 10⁵/m³
B
2.77 × 10³/m³
C
2.43 × 10¹⁹/m³
D
8.9 × 10¹²/m³

Question 139Single Answer

Heat conduction in a semiconductor takes place

A
By the mobility of the carriers
B
Due to energy gap between conduction band and valency band
C
By the holes and thermal vibrations of atoms
D
By the electrons and thermal vibrations of atoms

Question 140Single Answer

Brewster angle is the angle when a wave is incident on the surface of a perfect dielectric at which there is no reflected wave and the incident wave is

A
Parallel polarized
B
Perpendicularly polarized
C
Normally polarized
D
None of the above

Question 141Single Answer

An electrical breakdown of a p-n junction occurs if

A
Forward voltage increases up to the rating
B
Reverse voltage increases beyond the rating
C
Forward voltage decreases below the rating
D
Reverse voltage decreases below the rating

Question 142Single Answer

The chief deterrent to the widespread application of superconducting materials is

A
Very difficult to form, machine or case
B
The difficult in attaining and maintaining extremely low temperature
C
The poor strength-to-weight ratio
D
The lower oxidation rate at elevated temperatures

Question 143Single Answer

Which one of the following properties is not observed in the carbon nanotubes ?

A
High stiffness and strengths
B
Low densities
C
Unusual electrical property
D
Non-ductile

Question 144Single Answer

The evidence for the importance of electron-phonon interaction in super-conductors comes from

A
Meissner effect
B
Josephson effect
C
Isotope effect
D
x quantization experiments

Question 145Single Answer

Which one of the following materials is used for cable insulation ?

A
Phenol formaldehyde
B
Polytetrafluoroethylene
C
Polyvinyl chloride
D
Acrylonitrile butadiene styrene

Question 146Single Answer

For high speed reading and storing of information in a computer, the material used is

A
Ferrite
B
Piezoelectric
C
Pyroelectric
D
Ferromagnetic above 768°C

Question 147Single Answer

The temperature above which an anti-ferromagnetic material becomes paramagnetic is called

A
Peak temperature
B
Neel temperatur
C
Critical temperature
D
Weiss temperature

Question 148Single Answer

Which effect is the converse of Peltier effect ?

A
Seeback effect
B
Thomson effect
C
Hall effect
D
Joule effect

Question 149Single Answer

Magnetic materials which may be readily magnetized in either direction are

A
Soft magnetic materials
B
Hard magnetic materials
C
High eddy current loss materials
D
High hysteresis loss materials

Question 150Single Answer

Consider the following statements regarding a ferromagnetic material:
1.Below the ferromagnetic Curie temperature, the ferromagnetic materials exhibit hysteresis effect.
2.The coercive force is the filed required to reduce the flux density to zero.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?

A
Both 1 and 2
B
Neither 1 nor 2
C
1 only
D
2 only

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