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Latest Indian Army Graduate Engineer Exam Question (Objective Questions), MCQ in English
Subjects : General Knowledge, General English, Mathematics, Civil
Question Bank Indian Army Graduate Engineer (Civil) Exam - English.
General Knowledge
Q 1 :
Yojna a weekly journal
A.Ministry of Finance
B.Ministry of Information and Broadcastin
C.Ministry of Rural Development
D.Planning Commission
Q 2 :
Kurukshetra a journal on rural development is published by
A.Ministry of Finance
B.Ministry of Information and Broadcastin
C.Ministry of Rural Development
D.Planning Commission
Q 3 :
Devaluation of a currency means
A.Fixing the value of the currency in conjuction with the movement in the value of a basket of predetermined currencies
B.Reduction in the value of a currency vis-à-vis major internationally traded currencies
C.Fixing the value of currency in multilateral consultaion with the IMF the World Bank and major trading partners
D.Permitting the currency to seek its worth in the international market
Q 4 :
In India rural incomes are generally lower than the urban incomes, which of the following reasons account for this
1. a large number of farmers are illiterate and know little about scientific agriculture
2. prices of primary products are lower than those of manufactured products
3. Investments in agriculture has been low when compared to investment in industry
A.1 and 3
B.2 and 3
C.1 and 2
D.1,2 and 3
Q 5 :
Which of the following programmes aims at the promotion of savings among rural women
A.Rashtriya Mahila Kosh
B.Indira Mahila Yojna
C.Jawahar Rozgar Yojna
D.Mahila Samridhi Yojna
Q 6 :
What is Net National Product
A.the money value of final goods and services produced annually in the economy
B.the money value of annual service generation in the economy
C.the money value of tangible goods produced annually in the economy
D.The money value of tangible goods available in the economy
Q 7 :
National income is the
A.net national product at market price
B.net national product at factor cost
C.net domestic product at market price
D.net domestic product at factor cost
Q 8 :
Chelliah Committee of 1992 deals with the overhauling of our
A.financial system
B.tax system
C.patents and copyrights
D.Public sector undertakings
Q 9 :
During which Five Year Plan was the annual growth rate of National Income the lowest
A.2nd plan
B.3rd plan
C.5th plan
D.6th plan
Q 10 :
Which of the following taxes is a progressive tax
A.sales tax
B.custom tax
C.excise tax
D.income tax
Q 11 :
Which of the following estimates the National Income in India
A.National Income Committee
B.Planning Commission
C.Reserve Bank Of India
D.Central Statistical Organisation
Q 12 :
India changed over to the decimal system, coinage in
A.April 1951
B.April 1955
C.April 1957
D.April 1978
Q 13 :
11th Five Year Plan aim at achieving 10% rural tele density in India from the present 1.9% by the year
A.2008
B.2009
C.2010
D.2012
Q 14 :
Which one of the following statements Monitorable Socio Economic Target of the 11th Five Year Plan under the head Environment is not correct
A.treat urban waste water by 2011-12
B.Increase energy efficiency by 20% points by 2016-17
C.attain WHO standards of air quality in all major cities by 2011-12
D.increase forest and tree cover by 15% points
Q 15 :
Who is the ex-officio chairman of Planning commission and National Development Council
A.President
B.Prime Minister
C.Finance Minister
D.Commerce Minister
Q 16 :
Persons below the poverty line in Indian are classified as such based on wheather
A.they belong to agriculture labourer household and the scheduled caste/trive social group
B.they get work for a prescribed minimum number of days in a year
C.they are entitled to a minimum prescribed food basket
D.their daily waged fall below the prescribed minimum wages
Q 17 :
Which of the following Committee’s recommendations are being followed for estimating proverty line in India
A.Dutt committee
B.Lakdawala committee
C.Cheliah Committee
D.Chakravorty Committee
Q 18 :
In which year India adopeted liberal and free market principles
A.1975
B.1981
C.1991
D.2000
Q 19 :
Consider the following statements
1. There is persistent investment over time only in select locals
2. some areas are agro climatically less conductive to development
3. some areas continue to face little or no agrarian transformation and the consequent lack of social and
4. some areas have faced continous political instability
Which of the above statements are correct
A.1,2 and 3
B.1,2 and 4
C.1,3 and 4
D.2,3 and 4
Q 20 :
When was first human development report of India issued
A.April 2001
B.March 2000
C.June 2002
D.April 2002
Q 21 :
How many censuses have been carried out since independence
A.5
B.6
C.7
D.8
Q 22 :
For which year the latest census is being conducted in India
A.2001
B.2010
C.2012
D.2011
Q 23 :
Which of the following are the features of 12th Five Year Plan -
1. Average growth target has been set up 8.2%
2. Areas of main thrust are infrastructure, health and education
3. it seeks to achieve 4% agriculture sector growth during five year period
A.1 only
B.1 and 2
C.1 and 3
D.1,2, and 3
Q 24 :
The period of 12th Five Year Plan
A.2007-12
B.2008-13
C.2010-15
D.2012-17
Q 25 :
A closed economy is an economy in which
A.the money supply is fully controlled
B.deficit financing takes place
C.only exports take place
D.neither exports nor imports take place
Q 26 :
Which country is the highest contributor of per capita greenhouse gas emissions ?
A.China
B.USA
C.Russia
D.India
Q 27 :
Which institution released the ‘Commodity Markets Outlook report for October 2022’ ?
A.International Monetary Fund
B.World Bank
C.World Economic Forum
D.Reserve Bank of India
Q 28 :
‘Garuda VII’ is a bilateral exercise conducted by the Air Force of India and which country ?
A.Sri Lanka
B.France
C.Japan
D.Australia
Q 29 :
Which city is the host of the ‘India Space Congress, ISC 2022’ ?
A.Bengaluru
B.Mumbai
C.New Delhi
D.Hyderabad
Q 30 :
Which country co-chaired the High-Level Dialogue on Migration and Mobility (HLDMM), with the European Union ?
A.India
B.Australia
C.France
D.China
Q 31 :
Who has been appointed as the Chair of India’s Civil 20 (C20), an official engagement group of the G20, in October 2022 ?
A.Mata Amritanandamayi Devi
B.Sadhguru Jaggi Vasudev
C.PM Narendra Modi
D.Baba Ramdev
Q 32 :
India defeated Australia to win the Sultan of Johor Cup 2022 Hockey Tournament. The Final was held in ………..
A.Bangladesh
B.Oman
C.Egypt
D.Malaysia
Q 33 :
Poland has chosen the US Firm, Westinghouse, to build its first nuclear power plant. What is the Capital of Poland ?
A.Warsaw
B.Hamburg
C.Munich
D.Lublin
Q 34 :
NSDC International (NSDCI) and Perdaman have partnered to create an interface between Indian skilled youth and market opportunities in which country ?
A.Australia
B.Japan
C.South Korea
D.New Zealand
Q 35 :
Tata Steel has received Responsible Steel Certification for three of its production facilities in ………
A.Kalinganagar
B.Koraput
C.Jharia
D.Jamshedpur
General English
Q 36 :
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A.He was in the temper
B.and refused
C.discuss the matter again
D.No error
Q 37 :
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A.A flower makes no garland
B.so we must do a thing together
C.in a unit for a good result
D.No error
Q 38 :
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A.My friend is a software engineer
B.and his wife is doctor
C.so they don’t have enough time for each other
D.No error
Q 39 :
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A.I don’t have much time that
B.I hear you in detail with verbosity
C.tell everything in nutshell
D.No error
Q 40 :
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A.The atmosphere is changing
B.so I have severe pain in my body
C.if you have any painkiller, please give it to me
D.No error
Q 41 :
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A.No one is without fault
B.because no one is God
C.and only God is fault free
D.No error
Q 42 :
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A.Your
B.clock is
C.one hour fast
D.No error
Q 43 :
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A.The lose of jobs
B.is regarded by some as an necessary evil
C.in the fight against infliation
D.No error
Q 44 :
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A.In science, the credit goes to a man
B.who convinces the world
C.not to the man to whom the idea first occurs
D.No error
Q 45 :
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A.It is only after
B.the match is over
C.that people realize how exciting it is
D.No error
Q 46 :
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A.Off the two
B.sisters, she
C.is better
D.No error
Q 47 :
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A.A interesting book
B.‘A Tale of two cities’
C.was written by Alexander Dumas
D.No error
Q 48 :
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A.I shall never
B.forget a good
C.deed you did to me, when I was in crisis
D.No error
Q 49 :
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A.Wisdom of Vikramaditya
B.solved many riddles
C.that people brought to him for solution
D.No error
Q 50 :
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A.News you broke to his wife
B.made her nervous
C.and she broke down
D.No error
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General English
Q 51 :
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A.I have a work
B.to do and
C.so I will reach late
D.No error
Q 52 :
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A.I saw portion
B.of the manuscript
C.on birds
D.No error
Q 53 :
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A.Talent without experience is waste
B.so one must attain some practical knowledge and
C.it is only practical knowledge through which one can be an expert
D.No error
Q 54 :
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A.The Geeta, the Bible and the Quran all show us
B.the true path of humanity
C.Ramayana also can be included in this group
D.No error
Q 55 :
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A.Gandhiji was born on 2nd October 1869
B.He devoted two thirds of his life
C.for Indian freedom movement
D.No error
Q 56 :
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A.The students who want to speak in English
B.must read Hindu newspaper
C.in their initial stage
D.No error
Q 57 :
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A.Garib rath is a facility by railway ministry
B.for the poor to enjoy express train and facilities
C.but is mostly utilized by the upper class
D.No error
Q 58 :
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A.It is
B.a quarter to ten
C.by my watch
D.No error
Q 59 :
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A.Mr. Thakur lived
B.in the three-hundred year
C.old house
D.in Patna
Q 60 :
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A.The uncle of mine who is farmer
B.gave me a piece of useful advice
C.when I went to see him three weeks ago
D.No error
Q 61 :
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A.My neighbor along with his children
B.is going tonight to see a Taj Mahal
C.At Agra
D.No error
Q 62 :
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A.Kabir an Rahim are great poets
B.but the former is
C.greater than latter
D.No error
Q 63 :
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A.He has abandoned
B.the criminal activities
C.after returning from jail
D.No error
Q 64 :
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A.We must have
B.sympathy for
C.needy and the poor
D.No error
Q 65 :
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A.The Chinese is a very
B.difficult language to understand for those
C.who have never been to China
D.No error
Mathematics
Q 66 :
The cash difference between the selling prices of an article at a profit of 4% and 6% is Rs. 3. The ratio of the two selling prices is:__________ ?
A.51:52
B.52:53
C.51:53
D.52:55
Q 67 :
Which of the following numbers is irrational ?
A.√49
B.0.125
C.√2
D.22/7
Q 68 :
356 x 936 – 356 x 836 = ?
A.35600
B.34500
C.9630
D.93600
Q 69 :
Arrange in descending order: 5/8, 7/10, 3/4
A.3/4 > 7/10 > 5/8
B.7/10 > 3/4 > 5/8
C.3/4 > 5/8 > 7/10
D.5/8 > 7/10 > 3/4
Q 70 :
What is (3^{4} times 9^{2}) ?
A.36
B.38
C.310
D.96
Q 71 :
If 34X-2 = 729, then find the value of X.
A.4
B.3
C.2
D.5
Q 72 :
Convert 0.6 into fraction ?
A.3/5
B.2/3
C.4/5
Q 73 :
The no. plate of a bus had peculiarity. The bus number was a perfect square. It was also a perfect square when the plate numbers were reversed. The bus company had only five hundred buses numbered from 1 to 500. What was the number ?
A.169
B.36
C.196
D.Can not say
Q 74 :
If a and b are positive integers, such that ab = 125, then (a-b)a+b-4 = ?
A.16
B.25
C.28
D.30
Q 75 :
If x*y = x2 + y2 – xy, then value of 9*11 is
A.93
B.103
C.60.5
D.121
Q 76 :
Which is greater ?
A.15/16
B.17/18
C.Equal
D.Cannot compare
Q 77 :
If sum of two numbers is 42 and their product is 437, then find their difference.
A.3
B.4
C.5
D.7
Q 78 :
Write the 44000 in Roman numerals
A.XLI
B.XLVI
C.XLIV
D.XLVIC
Q 79 :
Convert 0.0909… into fraction ?
A.1/11
B.9/11
C.1/9
D.9/10
Q 80 :
What is (98 times 102) ?
A.9996
B.10000
C.10096
D.10196
Q 81 :
Which is smaller ?
A.9/11
B.7/9
C.Equal
D.Cannot compare
Q 82 :
Convert 0.5777… into fraction ?
A.26/45
B.52/90
C.13/22
D.5/9
Q 83 :
Convert 0.81 into fraction ?
A.81/100
B.9/10
C.8/9
D.9/11
Q 84 :
(63)2 – (12)2 =?
A.3528
B.3852
C.3582
D.3825
Q 85 :
Which is greater ?
A.13/17
B.11/14
C.Equal
D.Cannot compare
Q 86 :
16.928 + 24.7582 5.015 =?
A.20
B.24
C.22
D.26
Q 87 :
Convert 0.75 into fraction ?
A.3/4
B.2/3
C.4/5
D.5/8
Q 88 :
Which is greater ?
A.11/13
B.12/15
C.Equal
D.Cannot compare
Q 89 :
Two numbers are co-prime if their HCF is ?
A.0
B.1
C.Same
D.Prime
Q 90 :
Product of all factors of 10 is ?
A.
10
B.100
C.1000
D.10000
Q 91 :
How many real numbers exist between 2 and 3 ?
A.1
B.10
C.Infinite
D.None
Q 92 :
Which number is divisible by 11 ?
A.12345
B.1331
C.1234
D.1213
Q 93 :
What is the unit digit of (7^{245}) ?
A.1
B.3
C.7
D.9
Q 94 :
What is (64^{2/3}) ?
A.4
B.8
C.16
D.32
Q 95 :
What is (125^{1/3}) ?
A.3
B.4
C.5
D.6
Q 96 :
Which of the following is composite ?
A.
17
B.19
C.21
D.23
Q 97 :
What is √0.0009 ?
A.0.003
B.0.03
C.0.3
D.0.09
Q 98 :
What is √1156 ?
A.32
B.34
C.36
D.38
Q 99 :
What is √2025 ?
A.35
B.40
C.45
D.50
Civil
Q 100 :
Consider the following statements :
1. There will be no defects in select grade timbers.
2. The codal values for strength of grade-II timer without defects may be reduced by 37.5%.
3. For timber used as columns, the permissible stress in ungraded timbers is adopted with a multiplying factor of 0.50.
4. In case of wind force and earthquakes, a modification factor of 1.33 is adopted. Which of the above statements are correct ?
A.1 and 3 only
B.1 and 4 only
C.2 and 4 only
D.2 and 3 only
Q 101 :
Consider the following statements regarding timber :
1. The strength of timber increases by Kiln seasoning.
2. Cutting of wood is to be done prior to treatment.
3. Water seasoning is good for prevention of warping.
4. ASCU treatment enhances the strength of wood. Which of the above statements are correct ?
A.1, 2 and 3 only
B.2, 3 and 4 only
C.1, 3 and 4 only
D.1, 2, 3 and 4
Q 102 :
Gase(s) emitted during rotting or decomposition of timber is /are mainly
A.Methane and Hydrogen
B.Hydrogen Sulphide
C.Carbonic acid and Hydrogen
D.Ammonia
Q 103 :
Efflorescence of bricks is due to
A.Excessive burning of bricks
B.High silt content in brick clay
C.High porosity of bricks
D.Soluble salts present in parent clay
Q 104 :
Disintegration of bricks masonry walls is primarily due to
1. Efflorescence
2. Magnesium sulphate in brick
3. Calcined clay admixtures
4. Kankar nodules
Which of the a above statements are correct ?
A.1, 2 and 3 only
B.1, 2 and 4 only
C.3 and 4 only
D.1, 2, 3 and 4
Q 105 :
Consider the following test :
1. Transverse strength test
2. Water absorption test
3. Impact test
4. Breaking strength test
Which of the above are relevant to testing of tiles ?
A.1, 2 and 3 only
B.1, 2 and 4 only
C.3 and 4 only
D.1, 2, 3 and 4
Q 106 :
Which of the following statements is/are correct regarding the strength of cement ?
1. Particle sizes less than 3 m increases the viscous nature of the cement.
2. Finer particles in cement can be replaced by fly-ash to improve the strength.
A.1 only
B.2 only
C.Both 1 and 2
D.Neither 1 nor 2
Q 107 :
The constituent compound in Portland cement which reacts immediately with water, and also sets earliest, is
A.Tricalcium silicate
B.Dicalcium silicate
C.Tricalcium aluminate
D.Tetracalcium aluminoferrite
Q 108 :
Which of the following statements are correct with regard to cement mortar ?
1. Workability of cement mortar can be improved by addition of lime.
2. Fly-ash cement is economical in plastering jobs.
3. Addition of saw dust improves workability.
4. Sand in mortar can be replaced by finely crushed fire bricks.
A.1, 2, 3 and 4
B.1, 2 and 3 only
C.3 and 4 only
D.1, 2 and 4 only
Q 109 :
In a concrete mix of proportion 1 : 3 : 6, the actual quantity of sand, which is judged to have undergone 15% bulking, per unit volume of cement, will be
A.3.00
B.3.45
C.4.50
D.6.00
Q 110 :
Which method of curing of concrete is recommendable for rapid gain of strength of concrete ?
A.Sprinkling water
B.Membrane curing
C.High-pressure steam curing
D.Infrared radiation curing
Q 111 :
Which of the following is appropriate as simple field method for assesing consistency of concrete ?
A.Compacting factor
B.Slump test
C.Vee-Bee test
D.Kelly Ball test
Q 112 :
Which of the following are relatable to Autoclaved Aerated Concrete ?
1. Light weight
2. Strong
3 Inorganic
4. Nontoxic
A.1, 2 and 3 only
B.1, 2 and 4 only
C.3 and 4 only
D.1, 2, 3 and 4
Q 113 :
The workability of concrete becomes more reliable depending on
1. Aggregate-cement ratio
2. Time of transit
3. Grading of the aggregate
A.1 only
B.2 only
C.3 only
D.1, 2 and 3
Q 114 :
Which of the following statements are correct for stresses acting on mutually perpendicular faces of a plane element ?
1. The sum of the normal stresses in mutually perpendicular planes is equal to the sum of the principal stresses.
2. The shearing stresses in two mutually perpendicular planes are equal in magnitude and direction.
3. Maximum shear stress is half of the difference between principal stresses.
A.1, 2 and 3 only
B.1 and 2 only
C.2 and 3 only
D.1 and 3 only
Q 115 :
Which of the following statements are correct?
1. Strain in the direction of applied stress is known as longitudinal strain.
2. Tensile stress results in tensile strain in linear and lateral directions.
3. Strains in all directions perpendicular to the applied stress are known as lateral strain. 4. Ratio of change in volume to original volume is known as volumetric strain.
A.1, 2 and 3 only
B.1, 3 and 4 only
C.3 and 4 only
D.1, 2, 3 and 4
Q 116 :
In the cross-section of a timber, cambium layer can occur in
A.Inner Bark and Sap Wood
B.Pith and Heart Wood
C.Sap Wood and Heart Wood
D.Outer Bark and Sap Wood
Q 117 :
Consider the following statements :
1. In the infinitesimal strain theory, dilatation is taken as an invariant.
2. Dilatation is not proportional to the algebraic sum of all normal stresses.
3. The shearing modulus is always less than the elastic modulus.
Which of the above statements is/are correct ?
A.1 only
B.1 and 2 only
C.2 only
D.1, 2 and 3
Q 118 :
Which one of the following represents constitutive relationship ?
A.Vertical displacements in a structure
B.Rotational displacements in a structure
C.System of forces in equilibrium
D.Stress-strain behavior of a material
Q 119 :
Principal stresses at a point are 80 N/mm2 and 40 N/mm2, both tensile. The yield stress in simple tension for this material is 200 N/mm2. The values of factors of safety according to maximum principal stress theory and maximum shear stress theory, respectively, are
A.2.5 and 2.5
B.2.5 and 5
C.5 and 1.67
D.6 and 2.50
Q 120 :
The principal stresses at a point are 2 (tensile) and (compressive), and the stress at elastic limit for the material in simple tension is 210 N/mm2. According to maximum shear strain theory, the value of at failure is
A.70 N/mm2
B.105 N/mm2
C.140 N/mm2
D.210 N/mm2
Q 121 :
Which of the following statements are correct ?
1. Cranes are employable in moving and/or hoisting loads.
2. With the use of dipper and stick, power shovels can be used as hoes.
3. Ovedrive for higher speeds is a facility often used comfortably in the working of a tractor.
4. Clam shells are less desirable than draglines if the material is water-saturated.
A.1 and 4 only
B.1 and 2 only
C.2 and 3 only
D.3 and 4 only
Q 122 :
Two similar bars of Steel and Aluminium are heated to a same temperature. Forces are applied at the ends of the bars to maintain their lengths unaltered. If the ratio of Young’s moduli of Steel and Aluminium is 3, and the ratio of the coefficients of thermal expansion of Steel to that of aluminium is 0.5, what is the stress on the Aluminium bar if the stress on the Steel bar is 100 MPa ?
A.16.7 MPa
B.66.7 MPa
C.136.7 MPa
D.150.0 MPa
Q 123 :
A structural steel beam has an unsymmetrical I-cross-section. The overall depth of the beam is 200 mm. The flange stresses at the top and bottom are 120 N/mm2 and 80 N/mm2, respectively. The depth of the natural axis from the top of the beam will be
A.120 mm
B.100 mm
C.80 mm
D.60 mm
Q 124 :
In the analysis of beams subjected to loads, the point with Nil Bending Moment can be a
1. Point of Contraflexure
2. Point of Maximum Shear Force
3. Point of Inflection
Which of the above statements is/are correct ?
A.1 only
B.2 only
C.3 only
D.1, 2 and 3
Q 125 :
A tractor has a permissible loaded speed of 200 m/minute, which can increase by 25% when the load is removed/deposited. Generally, it is operated at 80% of the permissible speed (loaded unloaded). It works at a location where haul distance is 120 m. Rest allowance per round-trip is taken as 50 seconds on an average. Fixed time per trip, for loading and unloading and turnaround, etc., is 30 seconds. What is its effective cycle time?
A.157 seconds
B.161 seconds
C.173 seconds
D.182 seconds
Q 126 :
The purpose of lateral ties in a short RC column is to
A.Avoid buckling of longitudinal bars
B.Facilitate compaction of concrete
C.Increase the load carrying capacity of the column
D.Facilitate construction
Q 127 :
When a two-hinged parabolic arch is subjected to a rise in ambient temperature, the horizontal thrust at the support will
A.Increase
B.Decrease
C.Remain same
D.Increase or decrease depending on the span
Q 128 :
In the slope-deflection equations, deformations are considered to be caused by
A.Shear forces and bending moments only
B.Axial forces, shear forces and bending moments
C.Axial forces and bending moments only
D.Bending moments only
Q 129 :
The maximum bending moment caused by a set of concentrated moving loads is
A.Always at the midpoint of span
B.Between the midpoint and concentrated load next to the midpoint of the span
C.Not definable
D.Always under a load close to the centroid of the set of loads
Q 130 :
Force method of analysis of a structure is particularly preferred when
1. The degrees of freedom of the structure become large
2. The structure has less number of static, and more number of kinematic, indeterminacies
3. The structure has more numbers of static, and less numbers of kinematic, indeterminacies
A.1 only
B.2 only
C.3 only
D.1, 2 and 3
Q 131 :
Stiffness matrix method is the category of
1. Compatibility method
2. Displacement method
3. Force method
4. Equilibrium method
A.1 and 3 only
B.1 and 4 only
C.2 and 3 only
D.2 and 4 only
Q 132 :
Muller-Breslau Principal for obtaining influence lines is applicable to
1. Statically determinate beams and frame
2. Statically indeterminate structures, the material of which is elastic, and follows Hooke’s law.
3. Any statically indeterminate structure
A.1 and 2 only
B.1 only
C.2 only
D.1 and 3 only
Q 133 :
The plastic neutral axis
1. Divides the given section into two equal halves
2. Divides the given section into two unequal parts
3. Lies on the centroidal axis of the section
A.1 only
B.2 only
C.3 only
D.2 and 3 only
Q 134 :
The plastic moment capacity MP is
A.Less than the yield moment
B.Equal to the yield moment
C.Greater than the yield moment
D.Dependent on section dimensions
Q 135 :
Web crippling is caused by
A.Excessive bending moment
B.Failure of web under point loads
C.Width of flanges
D.Column action of web
Q 136 :
The block shear failure of a bolted joint in tension occurs because of
1. Use of higher shear strength bolts
2. Use of paltes with higher bearing strength
A.1 only
B.2 only
C.Both 1 and 2
D.Neithter 1 nor 2
Q 137 :
As per IS code, the maximum longitudinal pitch allowed in bolted joints of tension members is nominally
A.12 times the thickness of the plate
B.12 times the diameter of the bolt
C.16 times the thickness of the plate
D.16 times the diameter of the bolt
Q 138 :
ISMB 100 (rx = 40 mm, ry = 10 mm) has been used as a column in a industrial shed. Along the minor axis, the the column has restraints in the form of purlins at 1.0 m intervals. Effective length factor along major and minor axes are 1.2 and 1.0, respectively. If the slenderness ratio is restricted to 120, the maximum column height will be
A.1.0 m
B.2.4 m
C.4.0 m
D.4.8 m
Q 139 :
As per IS 800 – 2007, the permitted slenderness ratio for a bracing member in case of hangers shall be
A.140
B.145
C. 150
D.160
Q 140 :
A rectangular beam of depth d is under bending. Load has been gradually increased when the top fibre has obtained five times the strain at the first yield. What depth of the beam will still respond by elastic conditions?
A.0.16 d
B.0.20 d
C.0.25 d
D.0.40
Q 141 :
The ultimate moment capacity of a mild steel section is usually
A.Equal to the plastic moment capacity
B.More than the yield moment capacity
C.Let than the yield moment capacity
D.More than the plastic moment capacity
Q 142 :
The portal bracing in a truss-bridge is used to
A.Transfer load from top of end posts to bearings
B.Maintain the rectangular shape of the bridge cross-section
C.Stiffen the structure laterally
D.Prevent the buckling of top chord under side sway
Q 143 :
Consider the following cases in the design of reinforced concrete members in flexure:
1. Over-reinforced section
2. Tension failure
3. Compression failure
4. Under-reinforced section
Which of the above cases are considered for safe design of R.C members in flexure?
A.1 and 2 only
B.2 and 4 only
C.3 and 4 only
D.1 and 3 only
Q 144 :
The bond between steel and concrete is mainly due to
1. Mechanical resistance
2. Pure adhesive resistance
3. Frictional resistance
A.1 and 2 only
B.1 and 3 only
C.2 and 3 only
D.1, 2 and 3
Q 145 :
The carbonation process is demonstrated more by
A.Atmospheric corrosion
B.Chloride corrosion
C.Stress corrosion
D.Hydrogen embrittlement
Q 146 :
When a sprially reinforced short column is loaded axially, the concrete inside the core is subjected to
A.Bending and compression
B.Biaxial compression
C.Triaxial compression
D.Uniaxial compression
Q 147 :
In a reinforced concrete section, shear stress distribution is diagrammatically
A.Wholly Parabolic
B.Wholly Rectangular
C.Parabolic above NA and Rectangular below NA
D.Rectangular above NA and Parabolic below NA
Q 148 :
As per IS 456 – 2000, the maximum permissible shear stress, TCmax' is based on
A.Diagonal tension failure
B.Diagonal compression failure
C.Flexural tension failure
D.Flexural compression failure
Q 149 :
Footings shall be designed to sustain the
1. Applied loads
2. Moments and forces under relatable loading conditions
3. Induced reactions
5.015 =?