How many such pairs of letters are there in the word ‘CLEANLINESS’ each of the which has as many letters between them in the word as they have in the English alphabet, in the same sequence?
A
Two
B
Three
C
Five
D
Four
E
None of these
Question 2Single Answer
Team A has scored more goals than Team B
Team C has scored fewer goals than Team B
Team A has scored fewer goals than Team C .
If the first two statements are true, the third statement is
A
True
B
False
C
Uncertain
D
None
Question 3Single Answer
If it is possible to make only one meaningful word with the second, the third, the sixth and the eight letters of the word FRAGMENT using each only once, which of the following will be the third letter of that word ? If no such word can be formed, give ‘X’ as the answer and if more than one such word can be formed, give ‘Y’ as the answer.
A
A
B
E
C
T
D
X
E
Y
Question 4Single Answer
How many such letters are there in the word ORIENTAL each of which is as far away from the beginning of the word as when they are arranged alphabetically?
A
None
B
One
C
Two
D
Three
E
More than three
Question 5Single Answer
How many such pairs of letters in the word CREDIT each of which has as many letters between them in the word as in the English alphabet?
A
None
B
One
C
Two
D
Three
E
More than three
Question 6Single Answer
How many meaningful words can be made from the letters ‘LMEA’ using each letter only once in each word?
A
None
B
One
C
Two
D
Three
E
More than three
Question 7Single Answer
If it is possible to make only one meaningful word with the first, the second, the seventh and the eighth letters of the word TEMPORAL, which of the following will be the first letter of that word? If more than one such word can be made, give ‘Y’ as the answer and if no such word can be made, give ‘X’ as the answer.
A
T
B
L
C
E
D
Y
E
X
Question 8Single Answer
If the letters of the word HANDOVER are arranged alphabetically from left to right how many letters will remain at the same position?
A
None
B
One
C
Two
D
Three
E
More than three
Question 9Single Answer
How many such pairs of letters are there in the word EXCURSION, each of which has as many letters between them in the word as they have in the English alphabet?
A
None
B
One
C
Two
D
Three
E
More than three
Question 10Single Answer
If it is possible to make only one meaningful word with the first, the second, the third, the sixth and the eighth letters of the word DEVIATION first letter of that word is your answer? If more than one such word can be made formed your answer is ‘A’ and if no such word can be formed your answer is ‘B’.
A
V
B
T
C
E
D
A
E
B
Question 11Single Answer
If each alternate letter beginning with the first in the word WORKING is replaced by the next letter in the English alphabet and each of the remaining letters is replaced by the previous letter in the English alphabet, which of the following will be the fourth from the right and after the replacement ?
A
N
B
Q
C
J
D
M
E
None of these
Question 12Single Answer
How many pairs of letters are there in the word ‘SHIFTED’ each of which has as many letters between its two letters as there are between in the English alphabet?
A
None
B
One
C
Two
D
Three
E
None of these
Question 13Single Answer
Statement: Is common currency a necessary ingredient for Europe’s growth ?
Arguments :
I. Yes, A common currency will enable entire Europe to market itself as one .
II. No, Similar experiments by Latin America countries have not affected their economies .
A
The only argument I is strong
B
Only argument II is strong
C
Either I or II is strong
D
Neither I nor II is strong
Question 14Single Answer
If it is possible to make only one meaningful word with the first, the fifth, the sixth, the tenth and the eleventh letters of the word EXCEPTIONAL using each letter only once, first letter of that word is your answer. If no such word can be made formed your answer is ‘X’ and if more than one such word can be formed your answer is ‘Y’.
A
P
B
L
C
T
D
X
E
Y
Question 15Single Answer
How many meaningful English words can be formed with the letters RAE using each letter only once in each word?
A
None
B
One
C
Two
D
Three
E
More than three
Question 16Single Answer
How many such pairs of letters are there in the word WONDERS, each of which has as many letters between its two letters as there are between them in the English alphabet?
A
One
B
Two
C
Three
D
Four
E
More than four
Question 17Single Answer
If it is possible to make only one meaningful English word from the second, the fifth, the seventh and the eighth letters of the word PHYSICAL, using each letter only once, second letter of that word is your answer. If more than one such word can be formed your answer is M. if no such word can be formed your answer is N.
A
I
B
A
C
L
D
M
E
N
Question 18Single Answer
How many such pairs of letters are there in the word JUSTIFY, each of which have as many letters between them in the word as they have between them in the English alphabet?
A
None
B
One
C
Two
D
Three
E
More than three
Question 19Single Answer
If the alphabets are assigned values as A=3, D=6, G=8, I=2, L=4 and T=5 then what is the sum of values of all the alphabets in the word DIGITAL?
A
26
B
28
C
30
D
32
E
None of these
Question 20Single Answer
How many such pairs of letters are there in the word EDUCATION, each of which has as many letters between them in the word as they have in the English alphabet?
A
None
B
One
C
Two
D
Three
E
More than three
Question 21Single Answer
How many such pairs of letters are there in the word MEASURE each of which has as many letters between them in the word as in the English alphabet?
A
None
B
One
C
Two
D
Three
E
More than three
Question 22Single Answer
How many meaningful English words can be formed with the letters LMAE using each letter only once in each word?
A
None
B
One
C
Two
D
Three
E
More than three
Question 23Single Answer
If each consonant in the word EXPLORATION is replaced by previous the alphabet and each vowel replaced by alphabet following it in the English alphabetic series, and then the order of the alphabets thus formed is reversed, which of the following from the right?
A
P
B
Q
C
B
D
K
E
None of these
Question 24Single Answer
If the letters in the word AMONGST are arranged in the English alphabetical order, the position of how many letters will remain unchanged?
A
None
B
One
C
Three
D
Four
E
More than Four
Question 25Single Answer
How many meaningful English words can be formed with the letters ACRS using each letter only once in each word?
A
None
B
One
C
Two
D
Three
E
More than three
Question 26Single Answer
How many such pairs of letters there in the word, UNWANTED, each of which has as many letters between its two letters as there are between them in the English alphabets?
A
None
B
One
C
Two
D
Three
E
More than three
Question 27Single Answer
How many meaningful English words can be made with the letters EIND using each letter only once in each word?
A
None
B
One
C
Two
D
Three
E
None of these
Question 28Single Answer
How many such pairs of letters are there in the word, ‘TROUBLE’, each of which has as many letters between its two letters as there are between them in the English alphabet?
A
None
B
One
C
Two
D
Three
E
None of these
Question 29Single Answer
How many such pairs of letters there in the word DOUBTS each of which has as many letters between its two letters as there are between them in the English alphabet?
A
None
B
One
C
Two
D
Three
E
None of these
Question 30Single Answer
How many meaningful English words can be made with the letters ESDO using each letter only once in each word?
A
None
B
One
C
Two
D
Three
E
None of these
Question 31Single Answer
How many such pairs of letters there in the word, BONDING each of which has as many letters between them in the word as in the English alphabets?
A
None
B
One
C
Two
D
Three
E
None of these
Question 32Single Answer
How many such pairs of letters are there in the word CHARGES each of which has as many letters between them in the word as in the English alphabets?
A
None
B
One
C
Two
D
Three
E
None of these
Question 33Single Answer
How many meaningful English words can be made with the letters EDSU using each letter only once in each word?
A
None
B
One
C
Two
D
Three
E
More than three
Question 34Single Answer
How many meaningful English words can be made with the letters RTOU using each letter only once in each word?
A
None
B
One
C
Two
D
Three
E
More than three
Question 35Single Answer
How many such pairs of letters are there in the word ENGULFED each of which has as many letters between them in the word as in the English alphabets?
A
None
B
One
C
Two
D
Three
E
More than three
Question 36Single Answer
How many such pairs of letters are there in the word CORPORATE each of which has as many letters between them in the word as in the English alphabets?
A
None
B
One
C
Two
D
Three
E
More than three
Question 37Single Answer
If it is possible to make only one meaningful word with the first, second, fifth and sixth letters of the word ‘EDUCATION’, which would be the last letter of the word? If more than one such word can be formed, give X as the answer. If no such word can be formed, give K as your answer.
A
T
B
X
C
A
D
E
E
K
Question 38Single Answer
How many meaningful English words can be made with the letters ‘OEHM’ using each letter only once in each word?
A
None
B
One
C
Two
D
Three
E
More than three
Question 39Single Answer
How many such pairs of letters are there in the word CONFIRM each of which has as many letters between them in the word as in the English alphabets?
A
None
B
One
C
Two
D
Three
E
More than three
Question 40Single Answer
If JOSEPH is coded as FKOALD, then GEORGE will be coded as
A
CAKNCA
B
CADMNO
C
CAKNIT
D
JAKINS
Question 41Single Answer
How many such pairs of letters are there in the word TAILSPIN each of which has as many letters between them in the word as in the English alphabets?
A
None
B
One
C
Two
D
Three
E
More than three
Question 42Single Answer
A B C D E F G H I J K L M N O P Q R S T U V W X Y Z .
Which letter is in the middle of 13th letter from the left and 4th letter from the right ?
A
R
B
I
C
J
D
S
Question 43Single Answer
How many such pairs of letters are there in the word MINORITY each of which has as many letters between them in the word as in the English alphabets?
A
None
B
One
C
Two
D
Three
E
More than three
Question 44Single Answer
How many such pairs of letters are there in the word CHARIOT each of which has as many letters between them in the word as in the English alphabets?
A
None
B
One
C
Two
D
Three
E
More than three
Question 45Single Answer
If it is possible to make only one meaning word with the first, second, fourth, and the sixth letters of the word ’STARVING’ . Which would be the second letter of the word from the right end? If more than one such word can be formed, give X as the answer. If no such word can be formed, give K as your answer.
A
T
B
S
C
X
D
I
E
K
Question 46Single Answer
How many such pairs of letters are there in the word ELUSIVE each of which has as many letters between them in the word as in the English alphabets?
A
None
B
One
C
Two
D
Three
E
More than three
Question 47Single Answer
If it is possible to make only one meaning word with the first, third, fifth, and the ninth letters of the word ’CURVATURE’ . Which would be the second letter of the word ? If more than one such word can be formed, give X as the answer. If no such word can be formed, give K as your answer.
A
R
B
D
C
X
D
I
E
K
Question 48Single Answer
If in certain code MONKEY is written as ZFLOPN then in the same code how CHARACTER is written ?
A
SFUBIDDBS
B
SFUDBSBID
C
SFUDBSCID
D
SFUDBEBID
Question 49Single Answer
How many meaningful English words can be made with the letters NNEO using each letter only once in each word?
A
None
B
One
C
Two
D
Three
E
More than three
Question 50Single Answer
If MADRAS can be written as NBESBT, how can BOMBAY be written in that code ?
A
CPNCBX
B
CPNCBZ
C
CPOCBZ
D
CQOCBZ
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Numerical Aptitude
Question 51Single Answer
The cash difference between the selling prices of an article at a profit of 4% and 6% is Rs. 3. The ratio of the two selling prices is:__________ ?
A
51:52
B
52:53
C
51:53
D
52:55
Question 52Single Answer
Which of the following numbers is irrational ?
A
√49
B
0.125
C
√2
D
22/7
Question 53Single Answer
356 x 936 – 356 x 836 = ?
A
35600
B
34500
C
9630
D
93600
Question 54Single Answer
Arrange in descending order: 5/8, 7/10, 3/4
A
3/4 > 7/10 > 5/8
B
7/10 > 3/4 > 5/8
C
3/4 > 5/8 > 7/10
D
5/8 > 7/10 > 3/4
Question 55Single Answer
What is (3^{4} times 9^{2}) ?
A
36
B
38
C
310
D
96
Question 56Single Answer
If 34X-2 = 729, then find the value of X.
A
4
B
3
C
2
D
5
Question 57Single Answer
Convert 0.6 into fraction ?
A
3/5
B
2/3
C
4/5
Question 58Single Answer
The no. plate of a bus had peculiarity. The bus number was a perfect square. It was also a perfect square when the plate numbers were reversed. The bus company had only five hundred buses numbered from 1 to 500. What was the number ?
A
169
B
36
C
196
D
Can not say
Question 59Single Answer
If a and b are positive integers, such that ab = 125, then (a-b)a+b-4 = ?
A
16
B
25
C
28
D
30
Question 60Single Answer
If x*y = x2 + y2 – xy, then value of 9*11 is
A
93
B
103
C
60.5
D
121
Question 61Single Answer
Which is greater ?
A
15/16
B
17/18
C
Equal
D
Cannot compare
Question 62Single Answer
If sum of two numbers is 42 and their product is 437, then find their difference.
A
3
B
4
C
5
D
7
Question 63Single Answer
Write the 44000 in Roman numerals
A
XLI
B
XLVI
C
XLIV
D
XLVIC
Question 64Single Answer
Convert 0.0909… into fraction ?
A
1/11
B
9/11
C
1/9
D
9/10
Question 65Single Answer
What is (98 times 102) ?
A
9996
B
10000
C
10096
D
10196
Question 66Single Answer
Which is smaller ?
A
9/11
B
7/9
C
Equal
D
Cannot compare
Question 67Single Answer
Convert 0.5777… into fraction ?
A
26/45
B
52/90
C
13/22
D
5/9
Question 68Single Answer
Convert 0.81 into fraction ?
A
81/100
B
9/10
C
8/9
D
9/11
Question 69Single Answer
(63)2 – (12)2 =?
A
3528
B
3852
C
3582
D
3825
Question 70Single Answer
Which is greater ?
A
13/17
B
11/14
C
Equal
D
Cannot compare
Question 71Single Answer
16.928 + 24.7582 5.015 =?
A
20
B
24
C
22
D
26
Question 72Single Answer
Convert 0.75 into fraction ?
A
3/4
B
2/3
C
4/5
D
5/8
Question 73Single Answer
Which is greater ?
A
11/13
B
12/15
C
Equal
D
Cannot compare
Question 74Single Answer
Two numbers are co-prime if their HCF is ?
A
0
B
1
C
Same
D
Prime
Question 75Single Answer
Product of all factors of 10 is ?
A
10
B
100
C
1000
D
10000
General English
Question 76Single Answer
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A
He was in the temper
B
and refused
C
discuss the matter again
D
No error
Question 77Single Answer
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A
A flower makes no garland
B
so we must do a thing together
C
in a unit for a good result
D
No error
Question 78Single Answer
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A
My friend is a software engineer
B
and his wife is doctor
C
so they don’t have enough time for each other
D
No error
Question 79Single Answer
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A
I don’t have much time that
B
I hear you in detail with verbosity
C
tell everything in nutshell
D
No error
Question 80Single Answer
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A
The atmosphere is changing
B
so I have severe pain in my body
C
if you have any painkiller, please give it to me
D
No error
Question 81Single Answer
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A
No one is without fault
B
because no one is God
C
and only God is fault free
D
No error
Question 82Single Answer
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A
Your
B
clock is
C
one hour fast
D
No error
Question 83Single Answer
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A
The lose of jobs
B
is regarded by some as an necessary evil
C
in the fight against infliation
D
No error
Question 84Single Answer
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A
In science, the credit goes to a man
B
who convinces the world
C
not to the man to whom the idea first occurs
D
No error
Question 85Single Answer
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A
It is only after
B
the match is over
C
that people realize how exciting it is
D
No error
Question 86Single Answer
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A
Off the two
B
sisters, she
C
is better
D
No error
Question 87Single Answer
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A
A interesting book
B
‘A Tale of two cities’
C
was written by Alexander Dumas
D
No error
Question 88Single Answer
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A
I shall never
B
forget a good
C
deed you did to me, when I was in crisis
D
No error
Question 89Single Answer
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A
Wisdom of Vikramaditya
B
solved many riddles
C
that people brought to him for solution
D
No error
Question 90Single Answer
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A
News you broke to his wife
B
made her nervous
C
and she broke down
D
No error
Question 91Single Answer
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A
I have a work
B
to do and
C
so I will reach late
D
No error
Question 92Single Answer
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A
I saw portion
B
of the manuscript
C
on birds
D
No error
Question 93Single Answer
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A
Talent without experience is waste
B
so one must attain some practical knowledge and
C
it is only practical knowledge through which one can be an expert
D
No error
Question 94Single Answer
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A
The Geeta, the Bible and the Quran all show us
B
the true path of humanity
C
Ramayana also can be included in this group
D
No error
Question 95Single Answer
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A
Gandhiji was born on 2nd October 1869
B
He devoted two thirds of his life
C
for Indian freedom movement
D
No error
Question 96Single Answer
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A
The students who want to speak in English
B
must read Hindu newspaper
C
in their initial stage
D
No error
Question 97Single Answer
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A
Garib rath is a facility by railway ministry
B
for the poor to enjoy express train and facilities
C
but is mostly utilized by the upper class
D
No error
Question 98Single Answer
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A
It is
B
a quarter to ten
C
by my watch
D
No error
Question 99Single Answer
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A
Mr. Thakur lived
B
in the three-hundred year
C
old house
D
in Patna
Question 100Single Answer
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A
The uncle of mine who is farmer
B
gave me a piece of useful advice
C
when I went to see him three weeks ago
D
No error
General Awareness
Question 101Single Answer
Yojna a weekly journal
A
Ministry of Finance
B
Ministry of Information and Broadcastin
C
Ministry of Rural Development
D
Planning Commission
Question 102Single Answer
Kurukshetra a journal on rural development is published by
A
Ministry of Finance
B
Ministry of Information and Broadcastin
C
Ministry of Rural Development
D
Planning Commission
Question 103Single Answer
Devaluation of a currency means
A
Fixing the value of the currency in conjuction with the movement in the value of a basket of predetermined currencies
B
Reduction in the value of a currency vis-à-vis major internationally traded currencies
C
Fixing the value of currency in multilateral consultaion with the IMF the World Bank and major trading partners
D
Permitting the currency to seek its worth in the international market
Question 104Single Answer
In India rural incomes are generally lower than the urban incomes, which of the following reasons account for this
1. a large number of farmers are illiterate and know little about scientific agriculture
2. prices of primary products are lower than those of manufactured products
3. Investments in agriculture has been low when compared to investment in industry
A
1 and 3
B
2 and 3
C
1 and 2
D
1,2 and 3
Question 105Single Answer
Which of the following programmes aims at the promotion of savings among rural women
A
Rashtriya Mahila Kosh
B
Indira Mahila Yojna
C
Jawahar Rozgar Yojna
D
Mahila Samridhi Yojna
Question 106Single Answer
What is Net National Product
A
the money value of final goods and services produced annually in the economy
B
the money value of annual service generation in the economy
C
the money value of tangible goods produced annually in the economy
D
The money value of tangible goods available in the economy
Question 107Single Answer
National income is the
A
net national product at market price
B
net national product at factor cost
C
net domestic product at market price
D
net domestic product at factor cost
Question 108Single Answer
Chelliah Committee of 1992 deals with the overhauling of our
A
financial system
B
tax system
C
patents and copyrights
D
Public sector undertakings
Question 109Single Answer
During which Five Year Plan was the annual growth rate of National Income the lowest
A
2nd plan
B
3rd plan
C
5th plan
D
6th plan
Question 110Single Answer
Which of the following taxes is a progressive tax
A
sales tax
B
custom tax
C
excise tax
D
income tax
Question 111Single Answer
Which of the following estimates the National Income in India
A
National Income Committee
B
Planning Commission
C
Reserve Bank Of India
D
Central Statistical Organisation
Question 112Single Answer
India changed over to the decimal system, coinage in
A
April 1951
B
April 1955
C
April 1957
D
April 1978
Question 113Single Answer
11th Five Year Plan aim at achieving 10% rural tele density in India from the present 1.9% by the year
A
2008
B
2009
C
2010
D
2012
Question 114Single Answer
Which one of the following statements Monitorable Socio Economic Target of the 11th Five Year Plan under the head Environment is not correct
A
treat urban waste water by 2011-12
B
Increase energy efficiency by 20% points by 2016-17
C
attain WHO standards of air quality in all major cities by 2011-12
D
increase forest and tree cover by 15% points
Question 115Single Answer
Who is the ex-officio chairman of Planning commission and National Development Council
A
President
B
Prime Minister
C
Finance Minister
D
Commerce Minister
Question 116Single Answer
Persons below the poverty line in Indian are classified as such based on wheather
A
they belong to agriculture labourer household and the scheduled caste/trive social group
B
they get work for a prescribed minimum number of days in a year
C
they are entitled to a minimum prescribed food basket
D
their daily waged fall below the prescribed minimum wages
Question 117Single Answer
Which of the following Committee’s recommendations are being followed for estimating proverty line in India
A
Dutt committee
B
Lakdawala committee
C
Cheliah Committee
D
Chakravorty Committee
Question 118Single Answer
In which year India adopeted liberal and free market principles
A
1975
B
1981
C
1991
D
2000
Question 119Single Answer
Consider the following statements
1. There is persistent investment over time only in select locals
2. some areas are agro climatically less conductive to development
3. some areas continue to face little or no agrarian transformation and the consequent lack of social and
4. some areas have faced continous political instability
Which of the above statements are correct
A
1,2 and 3
B
1,2 and 4
C
1,3 and 4
D
2,3 and 4
Question 120Single Answer
In ruby laser, the stimulated emission is due to transition from
A
metastable state to any lower state
B
any higher state of lower state
C
metastable state to ground state
D
any higher state to ground state
Question 121Single Answer
A direct current I flows along the length of an infinitely long straight thin walled pipe, then the magnetic field is
A
uniform throughout the pipe not zero
B
zero only along the axis of the pipe
C
zero at any point inside the pipe
D
maximum at the centre and minimum at the edge
Question 122Single Answer
convex lens made of glass has focal length 0.15m in air. If the refractive index of glass is 3/2, and that of water is 4/3 the focal length of lens when immersed in water is
A
0.45 m
B
0.15 m
C
0.30 m
D
0.6 m
Question 123Single Answer
Two sources are said to be coherent if they produce waves
A
having a constant phase difference
B
of equal wavelength
C
of equal speed
D
having same shape of wavefront
Question 124Single Answer
Three resistors 1 Ω, 2 Ω, 3Ω resistor a 3 V battery is connected. The current through 3 Ω resistor is -
A
0.75 A
B
1 A
C
2 A
D
1.5 A
Question 125Single Answer
10-6 M NaOH is diluted 100 times. The pH of the diluted base is
A
between 7 and 8
B
between 5 and 6
C
between 6 and 7
D
between 10 and 11
Question 126Single Answer
In the electrolysis of acidulated water, it is desired to obtain 1.12 cc of hydrogen per second under STP condition. The current to be passed is
A
1.93 A
B
9.65 A
C
19.3 A
D
0.965 A
Question 127Single Answer
The one which decreases with dilution is
A
molar conductance
B
conductance
C
specific conductance
D
equivalent conductance
Question 128Single Answer
Vapour pressure of pure ‘A’ is 70 mm of Hg at 25oC. It forms an ideal solution with ‘B’ in which mole fraction of A is 0.8. if the vapour pressure of the solution is 84 mm of Hg at 25oC, the vapour pressure of pure ‘B’ at 25oC is
A
28 mm
B
56 mm
C
70 mm
D
140 mm
Question 129Single Answer
A 6% solution of urea is isotonic with
A
1 M solution of glucose
B
0.05 M solution of glucose
C
6% solution of glucose
D
25% solution of glucose
Question 130Single Answer
The respiratory quotient during cellular respiration would depend on
A
the nature of enzymes involved
B
the nature of the substrate
C
the amount of carbon dioxide released
D
the amount of oxygen utilised
Question 131Single Answer
Which of the following is not a green - house gas ?
A
Water vapour
B
Carbon monoxide
C
Methane
D
Oxygen
Question 132Single Answer
Both husband and wife have normal vision though their fathers were colorblind and mothers did not have any gene for colorblindness. The probability of their daughters becoming colorblind is
A
50%
B
75%
C
0%
D
25%
Question 133Single Answer
An animal, which has both exoskeleton and endoskeleton structures is a
A
fresh-water mussel
B
tortoise
C
frog
D
jelly fish
Question 134Single Answer
Identify the group, which includes animals all of which give birth to young ones directly?
A
Dolphin, kangaroo, bat, cat
B
Platypus, penguin, bat, hippopotamus
C
shrew, bat, kiwi, car
D
Lion, whale, ostrich, bat
Question 135Single Answer
Sattriya dance form is famous in which of these states ?
A
Assam
B
Himachal Pradesh
C
Punjab
D
Tamil Nadu
Question 136Single Answer
Which of the following statements is true ?
Statement I: Indian techniques such as Rasa and Bhawa in classical dances have their origins in Bharatmuni's Natyashastra.
Statement II: Bharatanatyam has its origin in Odisha.
A
Only Statement II is true
B
Both Statement I and Statement II are true
C
Neither Statement I nor Statement II is true
D
Only Statement I is true
Question 137Single Answer
Padma Bhushan, Guru Vempati Chinna Satyam is renowned for having trained hundreds of students in which of the following dance forms ?
A
Kuchipudi
B
Odissi
C
Bharatnatyam
D
Kathak
Question 138Single Answer
As an exponent of Khayal, Pandit Bhimsen Joshi belonged to which music Gharana ?
A
Agra
B
Benaras
C
Kirana
D
Gwalior
Question 139Single Answer
Which state gives the annual award Guru Kelucharan Mohapatra ?
A
Karnataka
B
Odisha
C
Tamil Nadu
D
Manipur
Question 140Single Answer
When was the Constituent Assembly of India formed?
A
1946
B
1947
C
1948
D
1950
Question 141Single Answer
Who was the Chairman of the Drafting Committee of the Indian Constitution?
A
Dr. Rajendra Prasad
B
Dr. B.R. Ambedkar
C
Jawaharlal Nehru
D
Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel
Question 142Single Answer
The idea of the Constituent Assembly was first put forward by:
A
Mahatma Gandhi
B
M.N. Roy
C
Jawaharlal Nehru
D
Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel
Question 143Single Answer
The Cabinet Mission Plan for India was proposed in:
A
1942
B
1945
C
1946
D
1947
Question 144Single Answer
The Constitution of India was adopted on:
A
15th August 1947
B
26th January 1950
C
26th November 1949
D
30th January 1948
Question 145Single Answer
Who is known as the "Father of the Indian Renaissance" ?
A
Raja Ram Mohan Roy
B
Swami Vivekananda
C
Rabindranath Tagore
D
Mahatma Gandhi
Question 146Single Answer
What astronomical discovery was announced by astronomers in March 2026?
A
New planet in solar system
B
Discovery related to 1,900 light-years away (specific object)
C
Black hole merger
D
Exoplanet with life signs
Question 147Single Answer
On what date in March 2026 did Prime Minister Narendra Modi become India’s longest-serving head of government?
A
15 March
B
20 March
C
22 March
D
25 March
Question 148Single Answer
What major infrastructure project was inaugurated by PM Narendra Modi on 28 March 2026?
A
Mumbai Trans Harbour Link
B
Atal Tunnel
C
Noida International Airport
D
Chenab Bridge
Question 149Single Answer
What was the status of India-US trade relations highlighted in early 2026 leading into March developments?
A
Increased tariffs
B
Breakthrough deal reducing US tariffs on Indian goods to 18%
C
Complete trade halt
D
New sanctions
Question 150Single Answer
What was the fiscal deficit target set for FY 2026-27 in the Union Budget 2026-27 presented by FM Nirmala Sitharaman?