The payment was collected by the hardworking salesman.
A
The hardworking salesman collected the payment.
B
the salesman who worked heard was able to collect the payment.
C
to collect the payment the salesman had to work hard.
D
The hardworking salesman was able to collect the payment.
Question 4Single Answer
I had to stop all my work to complete this project.
A
All other work had to be stopped to complete this project by me
B
For completing this project all other work must be stopped
C
For completing this project I had to stop all my work
D
To complete this project all other work had been stopped by me
Question 5Single Answer
They have published the names of all the successful candidates.
A
The candidates who have succeeded their names they had published.
B
The names of all the successful candidates have been published by them
C
The candidates who have succeeded their names have been published by them.
D
The names of all the successful candidate were published by them.
Question 6Single Answer
The online shopping site lowered the prices.
A
Lowering of the prices was done by the online shopping site
B
The prices were lowered by the online shopping site
C
The prices had been lowered by the online shopping site
D
The prices have been lowered by the online shopping site
Question 7Single Answer
Who taught you to drive a truck ?
A
To drive a truck by whom were you taught?
B
Driving a truck by who were you taught?
C
Driving a truck by who were you being taught?
D
By whom were you taught to drive a truck?
Question 8Single Answer
We shall invite Suresh.
A
Suresh would be invited by us
B
Suresh would have been invited by us
C
Suresh will be invited by us
D
Suresh will have been invited by us
Question 9Single Answer
Dark clouds have overcast the evening sky.
A
By the dark clouds the evening sky was overcast.
B
The evening sky has been overcast by the dark clouds.
C
Dark clouds overcastted the evening sky.
D
The sky of the evening was overcasted by dark clouds.
Question 10Single Answer
The partners will celebrate their triumph tomorrow.
A
The triumph would be celebrated by the partners a day before
B
The triumph would be celebrated by the partners a day after
C
The triumph would have been celebrated by the partners a day after
D
The triumph will have been celebrated by the partners tomorrow
Question 11Single Answer
Why did break the vase?
A
why is the vase broken by him
B
why was the vase broken by him
C
why had been the vase broken by him
D
why has been the vase broken by him
Question 12Single Answer
Mariam was writing a note to her boss.
A
A note was written to her boss by Mariam
B
A note was wrote by Mariam to her boss
C
A note was being written by Mariam to her boss
D
A note was written by Mariam to her boss
Question 13Single Answer
The baby really enjoys that music.
A
That music was really enjoyed by the baby.
B
That music was really being enjoyed by the baby.
C
That music is really enjoyed by the baby.
D
This music was really enjoyed by the baby.
Question 14Single Answer
The weather disrupted the final match.
A
The final match has been disrupted by the weather.
B
The final match had been disrupted by the weather.
C
The final match was disrupted by the weather.
D
The final match was being disrupted by the weather.
Question 15Single Answer
The management committee is required to publish a report every year.
A
report would be published by the management committee every year.
B
A report would have been published by the management committee every year.
C
A report requires to be published by the management committee every year.
D
Every year the report would be published by the management committee.
Question 16Single Answer
Preeti ran the race in record time.
A
In record time Preeti ran the race.
B
The race was run by Preeti in record time
C
The race was being run by Preeti in record time
D
The race had been run by Preeti in record time
Question 17Single Answer
I shall have written the full thesis by December
A
By December I shall have wrote the full thesis.
B
The full thesis will have been written by me by December.
C
The full Thesis will be wrote by me by December
D
By December the full thesis must have been wrote by me.
Question 18Single Answer
One must keep one’s promises.
A
One’s promises must be kept by one.
B
One’s promises had to be kept.
C
Promises must be kept.
D
Promises have to be kept by one.
Question 19Single Answer
I read the story in one night.
A
The story had been read by me in one night.
B
The story has been read by me in one night
C
n one night the story has been read by me.
D
the story was read by me in one night
Question 20Single Answer
We must take care of the old.
A
Those who are old need to be taken care of by us.
B
The old must be taken care of by us.
C
Those who are old need care by us
D
The old should be taken care of by us.
Question 21Single Answer
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A
He was in the temper
B
and refused
C
discuss the matter again
D
No error
Question 22Single Answer
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A
A flower makes no garland
B
so we must do a thing together
C
in a unit for a good result
D
No error
Question 23Single Answer
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A
My friend is a software engineer
B
and his wife is doctor
C
so they don’t have enough time for each other
D
No error
Question 24Single Answer
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A
I don’t have much time that
B
I hear you in detail with verbosity
C
tell everything in nutshell
D
No error
Question 25Single Answer
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A
The atmosphere is changing
B
so I have severe pain in my body
C
if you have any painkiller, please give it to me
D
No error
Question 26Single Answer
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A
No one is without fault
B
because no one is God
C
and only God is fault free
D
No error
Question 27Single Answer
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A
Your
B
clock is
C
one hour fast
D
No error
Question 28Single Answer
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A
The lose of jobs
B
is regarded by some as an necessary evil
C
in the fight against infliation
D
No error
Question 29Single Answer
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A
In science, the credit goes to a man
B
who convinces the world
C
not to the man to whom the idea first occurs
D
No error
Question 30Single Answer
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A
It is only after
B
the match is over
C
that people realize how exciting it is
D
No error
Question 31Single Answer
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A
Off the two
B
sisters, she
C
is better
D
No error
Question 32Single Answer
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A
A interesting book
B
‘A Tale of two cities’
C
was written by Alexander Dumas
D
No error
Question 33Single Answer
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A
I shall never
B
forget a good
C
deed you did to me, when I was in crisis
D
No error
Question 34Single Answer
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A
Wisdom of Vikramaditya
B
solved many riddles
C
that people brought to him for solution
D
No error
Question 35Single Answer
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A
News you broke to his wife
B
made her nervous
C
and she broke down
D
No error
General Intelligence
Question 36Single Answer
Passage :
Direction:Study the given information carefully and answer the given question
P, Q, R, S, T, V, X and Y are seated in a straight line facing North. P sits fourth to the left of V. V sits either sixth from the left end of the line or fourth from the right end of the line. S sits second to the right of R. R is not an immediate neighbor of V. T and Q are immediate neighbours of each other but neither T not Q sits at extreme ends of the line. Only one person sits between T and X. X does not sit at the extreme end of the line
According to the passage, what is the main purpose of data protection laws ?
A
To ensure that foreign countries invest in research for drugs to treat diseases like TB
B
To attract Indian scientists back to the country
C
To prevent misuse of research to make profit by competing companies
D
To make clinical trials more acceptable to the public
E
None of these
Question 37Single Answer
‘Gram’ is relatd to ‘Mass’ in the same way as ‘Centimetre’ is related to
A
Area
B
Volume
C
Length
D
Sound
E
Energy
Question 38Single Answer
'Mustard' is related to 'Seed' in the same way as 'Carrot' is related to
A
Fruit
B
Stem
C
Flower
D
Root
E
None of these
Question 39Single Answer
Which of the following pairs of words have the same relationship as Fan : Heat?
A
Water : Drink
B
Light : Night
C
Teach : Student
D
Air : Breathe
E
Food : Hunger
Question 40Single Answer
'Radish' is related to 'Root', in the same way as 'Brinjal' is related to
A
Fruit
B
Stem
C
Flower
D
Root
E
None of these
Question 41Single Answer
'Jackal' is related to 'Carnivorous', in the same way as 'Goat' is related to
A
Omnivorous
B
Carnivorous
C
Herbivorous
D
Multivorous
E
None of these
Question 42Single Answer
Which of the following pairs has similar relationship as Run : Race?
A
Party : Dance
B
Study : Book
C
Lecture : Study
D
Enjoy : Journey
E
None of these
Question 43Single Answer
Which of the following has same relationship as that of Money : Wealth?
A
Pity : Kindness
B
Cruel : Anger
C
Wise : Education
D
Pride : Humility
E
None of these
Question 44Single Answer
Which of the following is related to ‘Melody’, in the same way as ‘Delicious’ is related to 'Taste'?
A
Memory
B
Highness
C
Tongue
D
Speak
E
Voice
Question 45Single Answer
Offhand’ is related to ‘Premeditation’ in the same way as ‘Above board’ is related to
A
Integrity
B
Honesty
C
Guide
D
Competition
E
None of these
Question 46Single Answer
5 : 7 : : ? : 28
A
20
B
14
C
56
D
26
E
None of these
Question 47Single Answer
Which one is different form the remaining three?
A
GIJK
B
DFGH
C
CEFG
D
ABCD
E
None of these
Question 48Single Answer
Three of the following four are alike in certain way and so form a group. Which is one that does not belong to the group?
A
71
B
73
C
77
D
67
E
None of these
Question 49Single Answer
Unscramble the letters in the given words and find the odd one out.
A
UMRSME
B
EIWNTR
C
PIGRSN
D
LCUOD
E
None of these
Question 50Single Answer
What should come next in the following number series?
0 2 4 6 2 3 0 2 4 6 4 5 0 2 4 6 6 7 0 2?
A
4
B
2
C
6
D
8
E
5
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General Intelligence
Question 51Single Answer
What will be there is the place of question mark in the following series?
E G 3 5, I K 9 9, M O 1 9 5, Q S 3 2 3?
A
UW483
B
ZA26
C
TU420
D
ST380
E
None of these
Question 52Single Answer
What should come next in the following letter series?
A Z A B Y A B C X A B C D W A B C D E V A B C D E
A
U
B
T
C
A
D
G
E
None of these
Question 53Single Answer
What should come next in the following letter series?
H G F E D C B A G F E D C B A G F E D C B
A
E
B
G
C
F
D
B
E
None of these
Question 54Single Answer
What should come next in the following letter series?
Z X V T R P N L J Y W U S Q O
A
M
B
K
C
H
D
J
E
None of these
Question 55Single Answer
Which of the following should come next in the given sequence of numbers?
24 3 2 4 3 1 2 4 3 1 2 2 4 3 1 2 3 1 2 3 2 4 3 1 2 3
A
2
B
3
C
4
D
5
E
None of these
Question 56Single Answer
What should come next in the following letter series?
P P O PO N PO N M P O N M L P O N M L
A
P
B
K
C
J
D
I
E
None of these
Question 57Single Answer
What should come next in the following number series?
9 8 7 6 5 4 3 2 1 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 9 8 7 6 5 4 3 2 2 3 4 5 6 7 8
A
8
B
1
C
9
D
2
E
None of these
Question 58Single Answer
What should come next in the following number series?
3 4 4 3 4 4 5 3 4 4 5 6 3 4 4 5 6 7 3 4 4 5 6
A
4
B
5
C
6
D
7
E
None of these
Question 59Single Answer
What should come next in the following letter series?
A A B A B C A B C D A B C D E A B C D E F
A
A
B
G
C
H
D
B
E
None of these
Question 60Single Answer
What should come in the place of the question mark (?) in the following series of combination of alpha-numerals and symbols?Y 9B*W*D7*U5F?
A
S 3 H *
B
T#H*
C
T*#H
D
S*H5
E
SH*1
Question 61Single Answer
What should come next in the following number series?9 7 5 3 1 1 8 6 4 2 2 9 7 5 3 1 8 6 4 2 2 9 7 5 3 1 8 6 4 2 9 7 5 3 1 8 6 4 2 9 7 5
A
1
B
8
C
3
D
5
E
None of these
Question 62Single Answer
What should come next in the place of question mark(?) in the following letter sequence?AZB, CYD, EXF,?,IVJ, KUL
A
FYH
B
GWG
C
HWH
D
GUF
E
None of these
Question 63Single Answer
Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group?
A
215
B
143
C
247
D
91
E
65
Question 64Single Answer
Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group?
A
78
B
48
C
72
D
54
E
42
Question 65Single Answer
Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group?
A
45
B
51
C
39
D
93
E
85
Question 66Single Answer
Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group?
A
39
B
27
C
48
D
42
E
24
Question 67Single Answer
Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group?
A
187
B
323
C
119
D
221
E
289
Question 68Single Answer
Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group?
A
35
B
80
C
45
D
60
E
75
Question 69Single Answer
Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group?
A
31
B
39
C
47
D
41
E
43
Question 70Single Answer
Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group?
A
27
B
64
C
125
D
216
E
384
Quantitative Aptitude
Question 71Single Answer
The cash difference between the selling prices of an article at a profit of 4% and 6% is Rs. 3. The ratio of the two selling prices is:__________ ?
A
51:52
B
52:53
C
51:53
D
52:55
Question 72Single Answer
Which of the following numbers is irrational ?
A
√49
B
0.125
C
√2
D
22/7
Question 73Single Answer
356 x 936 – 356 x 836 = ?
A
35600
B
34500
C
9630
D
93600
Question 74Single Answer
Arrange in descending order: 5/8, 7/10, 3/4
A
3/4 > 7/10 > 5/8
B
7/10 > 3/4 > 5/8
C
3/4 > 5/8 > 7/10
D
5/8 > 7/10 > 3/4
Question 75Single Answer
What is (3^{4} times 9^{2}) ?
A
36
B
38
C
310
D
96
Question 76Single Answer
If 34X-2 = 729, then find the value of X.
A
4
B
3
C
2
D
5
Question 77Single Answer
Convert 0.6 into fraction ?
A
3/5
B
2/3
C
4/5
Question 78Single Answer
The no. plate of a bus had peculiarity. The bus number was a perfect square. It was also a perfect square when the plate numbers were reversed. The bus company had only five hundred buses numbered from 1 to 500. What was the number ?
A
169
B
36
C
196
D
Can not say
Question 79Single Answer
If a and b are positive integers, such that ab = 125, then (a-b)a+b-4 = ?
A
16
B
25
C
28
D
30
Question 80Single Answer
If x*y = x2 + y2 – xy, then value of 9*11 is
A
93
B
103
C
60.5
D
121
Question 81Single Answer
Which is greater ?
A
15/16
B
17/18
C
Equal
D
Cannot compare
Question 82Single Answer
If sum of two numbers is 42 and their product is 437, then find their difference.
A
3
B
4
C
5
D
7
Question 83Single Answer
Write the 44000 in Roman numerals
A
XLI
B
XLVI
C
XLIV
D
XLVIC
Question 84Single Answer
Convert 0.0909… into fraction ?
A
1/11
B
9/11
C
1/9
D
9/10
Question 85Single Answer
What is (98 times 102) ?
A
9996
B
10000
C
10096
D
10196
Question 86Single Answer
Which is smaller ?
A
9/11
B
7/9
C
Equal
D
Cannot compare
Question 87Single Answer
Convert 0.5777… into fraction ?
A
26/45
B
52/90
C
13/22
D
5/9
Question 88Single Answer
Convert 0.81 into fraction ?
A
81/100
B
9/10
C
8/9
D
9/11
Question 89Single Answer
(63)2 – (12)2 =?
A
3528
B
3852
C
3582
D
3825
Question 90Single Answer
Which is greater ?
A
13/17
B
11/14
C
Equal
D
Cannot compare
Question 91Single Answer
16.928 + 24.7582 5.015 =?
A
20
B
24
C
22
D
26
Question 92Single Answer
Convert 0.75 into fraction ?
A
3/4
B
2/3
C
4/5
D
5/8
Question 93Single Answer
Which is greater ?
A
11/13
B
12/15
C
Equal
D
Cannot compare
Question 94Single Answer
Two numbers are co-prime if their HCF is ?
A
0
B
1
C
Same
D
Prime
Question 95Single Answer
Product of all factors of 10 is ?
A
10
B
100
C
1000
D
10000
Question 96Single Answer
How many real numbers exist between 2 and 3 ?
A
1
B
10
C
Infinite
D
None
Question 97Single Answer
Which number is divisible by 11 ?
A
12345
B
1331
C
1234
D
1213
Question 98Single Answer
What is the unit digit of (7^{245}) ?
A
1
B
3
C
7
D
9
Question 99Single Answer
What is (64^{2/3}) ?
A
4
B
8
C
16
D
32
Question 100Single Answer
What is (125^{1/3}) ?
A
3
B
4
C
5
D
6
General Knowledge
Question 101Single Answer
Yojna a weekly journal
A
Ministry of Finance
B
Ministry of Information and Broadcastin
C
Ministry of Rural Development
D
Planning Commission
Question 102Single Answer
Kurukshetra a journal on rural development is published by
A
Ministry of Finance
B
Ministry of Information and Broadcastin
C
Ministry of Rural Development
D
Planning Commission
Question 103Single Answer
Devaluation of a currency means
A
Fixing the value of the currency in conjuction with the movement in the value of a basket of predetermined currencies
B
Reduction in the value of a currency vis-à-vis major internationally traded currencies
C
Fixing the value of currency in multilateral consultaion with the IMF the World Bank and major trading partners
D
Permitting the currency to seek its worth in the international market
Question 104Single Answer
In India rural incomes are generally lower than the urban incomes, which of the following reasons account for this
1. a large number of farmers are illiterate and know little about scientific agriculture
2. prices of primary products are lower than those of manufactured products
3. Investments in agriculture has been low when compared to investment in industry
A
1 and 3
B
2 and 3
C
1 and 2
D
1,2 and 3
Question 105Single Answer
Which of the following programmes aims at the promotion of savings among rural women
A
Rashtriya Mahila Kosh
B
Indira Mahila Yojna
C
Jawahar Rozgar Yojna
D
Mahila Samridhi Yojna
Question 106Single Answer
What is Net National Product
A
the money value of final goods and services produced annually in the economy
B
the money value of annual service generation in the economy
C
the money value of tangible goods produced annually in the economy
D
The money value of tangible goods available in the economy
Question 107Single Answer
National income is the
A
net national product at market price
B
net national product at factor cost
C
net domestic product at market price
D
net domestic product at factor cost
Question 108Single Answer
Chelliah Committee of 1992 deals with the overhauling of our
A
financial system
B
tax system
C
patents and copyrights
D
Public sector undertakings
Question 109Single Answer
During which Five Year Plan was the annual growth rate of National Income the lowest
A
2nd plan
B
3rd plan
C
5th plan
D
6th plan
Question 110Single Answer
Which of the following taxes is a progressive tax
A
sales tax
B
custom tax
C
excise tax
D
income tax
Question 111Single Answer
Which of the following estimates the National Income in India
A
National Income Committee
B
Planning Commission
C
Reserve Bank Of India
D
Central Statistical Organisation
Question 112Single Answer
India changed over to the decimal system, coinage in
A
April 1951
B
April 1955
C
April 1957
D
April 1978
Question 113Single Answer
11th Five Year Plan aim at achieving 10% rural tele density in India from the present 1.9% by the year
A
2008
B
2009
C
2010
D
2012
Question 114Single Answer
Which one of the following statements Monitorable Socio Economic Target of the 11th Five Year Plan under the head Environment is not correct
A
treat urban waste water by 2011-12
B
Increase energy efficiency by 20% points by 2016-17
C
attain WHO standards of air quality in all major cities by 2011-12
D
increase forest and tree cover by 15% points
Question 115Single Answer
Who is the ex-officio chairman of Planning commission and National Development Council
A
President
B
Prime Minister
C
Finance Minister
D
Commerce Minister
Question 116Single Answer
Persons below the poverty line in Indian are classified as such based on wheather
A
they belong to agriculture labourer household and the scheduled caste/trive social group
B
they get work for a prescribed minimum number of days in a year
C
they are entitled to a minimum prescribed food basket
D
their daily waged fall below the prescribed minimum wages
Question 117Single Answer
Which of the following Committee’s recommendations are being followed for estimating proverty line in India
A
Dutt committee
B
Lakdawala committee
C
Cheliah Committee
D
Chakravorty Committee
Question 118Single Answer
In which year India adopeted liberal and free market principles
A
1975
B
1981
C
1991
D
2000
Question 119Single Answer
Consider the following statements
1. There is persistent investment over time only in select locals
2. some areas are agro climatically less conductive to development
3. some areas continue to face little or no agrarian transformation and the consequent lack of social and
4. some areas have faced continous political instability
Which of the above statements are correct
A
1,2 and 3
B
1,2 and 4
C
1,3 and 4
D
2,3 and 4
Question 120Single Answer
When was first human development report of India issued
A
April 2001
B
March 2000
C
June 2002
D
April 2002
Question 121Single Answer
How many censuses have been carried out since independence
A
5
B
6
C
7
D
8
Question 122Single Answer
For which year the latest census is being conducted in India
A
2001
B
2010
C
2012
D
2011
Question 123Single Answer
Which of the following are the features of 12th Five Year Plan -
1. Average growth target has been set up 8.2%
2. Areas of main thrust are infrastructure, health and education
3. it seeks to achieve 4% agriculture sector growth during five year period
A
1 only
B
1 and 2
C
1 and 3
D
1,2, and 3
Question 124Single Answer
The period of 12th Five Year Plan
A
2007-12
B
2008-13
C
2010-15
D
2012-17
Question 125Single Answer
A closed economy is an economy in which
A
the money supply is fully controlled
B
deficit financing takes place
C
only exports take place
D
neither exports nor imports take place
Question 126Single Answer
Choose the industrial cities that grew rapidly in Britain in the nineteenth and twentieth centuries:
A
Leeds and Manchester
B
Bristol and Manchester
C
Carlisle and Leeds
D
Chester and Leeds
Question 127Single Answer
Which were the three Presidency cities of Colonial India in late eighteenth century?
A
Calcutta, Bombay and Madras
B
Calcutta, Bombay and Surat
C
Bombay, Madras and Delhi
D
None of these
Question 128Single Answer
What is Urbanization?
A
Migration of population from rural to urban area
B
Migration of people from urban to rural
C
Migration of people from one country to another
D
Migration of population from one state to another one
Question 129Single Answer
What is de urbanization in the colonial context?
A
The process by which many old towns, trading centers and ports emerged due to emergence of new cities.
B
The process by which many old towns, trading centers and ports declined due to emergence of new cities.
C
a and b both
D
None of these
Question 130Single Answer
Which of the following Indian cities which were de-urbanized during the nineteenth century?
i. Machlipatnam
ii. Surat
iii. Seringapatam
iv. Bombay
A
i and ii
B
i, iv and ii
C
i, ii and iii
D
i, ii, iii and iv
Question 131Single Answer
Temperature can be expressed as derived quantity in terms of
A
length and mass
B
mass and time
C
length, mass and time
D
None of these
Question 132Single Answer
Electron volt is a unit of
A
potential difference
B
charge
C
energy
D
capacity
Question 133Single Answer
Which of the following is not a synthetic fibre:
A
Anygora
B
Rayon
C
Nylon
D
Polyster
Question 134Single Answer
Which of the following contain enzymes for cellular respiration ?
A
Dictyosomes
B
Endoplasmic reticulum
C
lysosomes
D
Mitochondria
Question 135Single Answer
Which one among the following nutrients is a strctural
A
Cell membrane
B
Plasma membrane
C
Cell wall
D
Nucleus
Question 136Single Answer
Which country's Supreme Leader, Ali Khamenei, was assassinated in a joint US-Israel strike in late February 2026?
A
Syria
B
Iraq
C
Lebanon
D
Iran
Question 137Single Answer
What was the primary goal stated for the 2026 Israeli–United States strikes on Iran?
A
Nuclear disarmament only
B
Border security
C
Economic sanctions enforcement
D
Regime change in Tehran
Question 138Single Answer
Which Indian state won its maiden Ranji Trophy title recently (reported in early March 2026)?
A
Mumbai
B
Tamil Nadu
C
Jammu & Kashmir
D
Karnataka
Question 139Single Answer
What funding amount did Germany announce for a new climate resilience initiative with India in February 2026?
A
EUR 10 million
B
EUR 100 million
C
EUR 50 million
D
EUR 20 million
Question 140Single Answer
Which Indian state launched its first Dark Sky Park in Kolli Hills in February 2026?
A
Kerala
B
Tamil Nadu
C
Uttarakhand
D
Himachal Pradesh
Question 141Single Answer
Who inaugurated three major inland waterways projects on National Waterway-2 in Assam in February 2026?
A
Nitin Gadkari
B
Jyotiraditya Scindia
C
Narendra Modi
D
Sarbananda Sonowal
Question 142Single Answer
Which event is scheduled for inauguration by PM Narendra Modi in March 2026 in Uttar Pradesh?
A
New Parliament building
B
Noida International Airport
C
Bullet train launch
D
Smart City project
Question 143Single Answer
In response to the assassination of Ali Khamenei, which group fired projectiles at northern Israel?
A
Hamas
B
IRGC
C
Houthis
D
Hezbollah
Question 144Single Answer
What is the name of the operation or escalation linked to recent US-Israel actions against Iran (reported in early March 2026)?
A
Operation Epic Fury
B
Operation Roar of the Lion
C
Operation Desert Storm
D
Operation True Promise
Question 145Single Answer
Which country’s Prime Minister visited Israel in late February 2026 to elevate bilateral ties?
A
Canada
B
India (Narendra Modi)
C
Germany
D
UK
Question 146Single Answer
Who is the current RBI Governor commenting on India's 'Goldilocks' economy in early March 2026?
A
Sanjay Malhotra
B
Shaktikanta Das
C
Urjit Patel
D
Raghuram Rajan
Question 147Single Answer
Which Gulf cities experienced explosions from Iranian strikes in response to the conflict?
A
Riyadh and Jeddah
B
Dubai, Doha, Manama
C
Cairo and Amman
D
Istanbul and Ankara
Question 148Single Answer
What major geopolitical meeting is scheduled between US President Trump and China's Xi Jinping in March 2026?
A
Bilateral meeting in Beijing
B
G20 Summit
C
APEC Summit
D
WTO Conference
Question 149Single Answer
0 in early 2026?
A
Assam
B
Tripura
C
Meghalaya
D
Sikkim
Question 150Single Answer
What did Rajasthan remove as a disqualification criterion for local polls in recent updates?