The first train in the country to have a Braille embedded AC coach the purushottam Express runs from
A
Delhi to puri
B
Delhi to bengaluru
C
Chennai to Rourkela
D
Kolkata to Bengaluru
E
Mumbai to Delhi
Question 2Single Answer
Where has 15 th Express Technology sabha inaugurated as an established platform
A
Hyderabad
B
Bengaluru
C
Kochi
D
Kolkata
E
Chennai
Question 3Single Answer
Justice Mudgal, Who had chaired a committee appointed by the supreme court to look into the matter of
A
International affairs
B
Law and order issues
C
Indian premier league match fixing allegations
D
Changes in the cinematograph Act 1952
E
Enactment of Rules and Regulatory act
Question 4Single Answer
India’s only and first hospital for fish will set up in
A
Goa
B
Gujarat
C
Kerala
D
Tamil nadu
E
Sikkim
Question 5Single Answer
Vinod kumar Duggal has been appointed as the new governor of
A
Mizoram
B
Manipur
C
Meghalaya
D
Asom
E
Maharashtra
Question 6Single Answer
Who became the first woman to be appointed as the Director of Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel National PoliceAcademy?
A
Aruna M Bahuguna
B
Kiran Bedi
C
Kumud Chaudhary
D
Aruna Vishwas
E
M K Lakshmi
Question 7Single Answer
The chief aim of Maulana Azad Taleem-e- Baligan is
A
fund for agriculture development
B
to spread communal harmony
C
achieve higher literacy for Muslim community
D
comprehensive adolescent health programme
E
constructing resilient houses
Question 8Single Answer
Vamsadhar water Dispute Tribunal was constituted to resolve the water sharing dispute between
A
Andhra Pradesh and Maharashtra
B
Andhra Pradesh and Karnataka
C
Odisha and Andhra Pradesh
D
Maharasrtra and Karnataka
E
Madhya pradesh and Maharashtra
Question 9Single Answer
The first High Court in the country to provide court case details and judicial information in public domain
A
Karnatak
B
Himachal Pradesh
C
Bombay
D
Madras
E
Delhi
Question 10Single Answer
Which of the following city of Pakistan is worst affected by Polio?
A
Karachi
B
Peshawar
C
Swabi
D
Lasbela
E
Islamabad
Question 11Single Answer
'Operation Valentine’ was launched in which country
A
Vietnam
B
Thailand
C
Syria
D
South Sudan
E
Libya
Question 12Single Answer
Denomination (s) of coins issued by the RBI bearing images of Goddess Vaishno Devi
A
5, 10
B
2, 10
C
5, 2
D
1, 2
E
10, 2
Question 13Single Answer
Legendary actress of yesteryears suchitra sen died in Kolkata. She was known as
A
Kokila
B
Perfectionist
C
Greta Garbo of india
D
lconic star of Tamil Cinema
E
Iron lady
Question 14Single Answer
The palatna Power Project gas based power project is situated at
A
South Western Region
B
West East Region
C
North-Southern Region
D
South-Eastern Region
E
North-Eastern Region
Question 15Single Answer
The ‘Sankirtana’ a famous tradition of ritual singing, drumming and dancing is practiced mainly in
A
Asom
B
Manipur
C
Kerala
D
Himachal Pradesh
E
Nagaland
Question 16Single Answer
Which movies has won Golden Peacock Award at the 44 th international Film Festival (India) ?
A
Kush
B
Beatriz’s War
C
Apur Panchali
D
Megha Dhaka Tera
E
Anokha
Question 17Single Answer
Who became the first female chief of police of district one (Kabul Province) in Afghanistan?
A
Jamila Bayaz
B
Amma
C
Nur Zamed
D
Shabnam Yusuf
E
Tabussom Yani
Question 18Single Answer
World's first Bitcoin Storage Service that insures deposits of the digital currency loss and theft, has been launched in
A
Sydney
B
New York
C
London
D
Beijing
E
Singapore
Question 19Single Answer
Tulsi is a medicinal plant and has anti-cancerous metabolites, is the name of compound found in Tulsi
A
Eugenol
B
Ursolic Acid
C
Rosmarinic Acid
D
Caryophyllene
E
Acetic Acid
Question 20Single Answer
The Union Health and Family Welfare Minister, Gulam Nafi Azad inaugurated the All India Institute of Medical Science (AIIMS) at
A
Bhopal
B
Bhubaneshwar
C
Ranchi
D
Jaipur
E
Ahmedabad
Question 21Single Answer
On which river the multi-purpose project pulichintala located?
A
Narmada
B
Manjira
C
Tungabhadra
D
Krishna
E
Cauvery
Question 22Single Answer
Who became the youngest person to reach the summit of Aconcagua, the highest mountain of America?
A
Arunima Singh
B
Tyler Armstrong
C
Rudolph Jackson
D
Saunim Day
E
None of these
Question 23Single Answer
At which place, the Union Health and Family Welfare Minister, Gulam Nabi Azad inaugurated the All India Institute of Medical Science (AIIMS) on February 26, 2014?
A
Bhopal
B
Bhubaneshwar
C
Ranchi
D
Jaipur
E
Hyderabad
Question 24Single Answer
The Union Government has cleared a proposal for setting up of National Cancer Institute. The proposed institute would be set-up in
A
New Delhi
B
Punjab
C
Haryana
D
Himachal Pradesh
E
Kolkata
Question 25Single Answer
'Sangharsh Ke Safar Ka Nayak Mulayam' the book is written by
A
Devika Devaiah
B
Chetan Bhagat
C
Omveer Tomar
D
R D Reddy
E
Samir Chopra
Question 26Single Answer
Indian Ordnance Factory, Kanpur manufactured India's smallest revolver naming it
A
Handgun
B
Sharpest
C
Nirbheck
D
MTH-15
E
Nirnayaka
Question 27Single Answer
Which committee has recommended the need for the creation of a special act on the lines of the SC/ST Act for Muslims in the country?
A
Sachar Committee
B
Y Sikand Committee
C
Amitabh Kund Committee
D
Sayyid Hamid Committee
E
K Mukul Committee
Question 28Single Answer
Italian Prime minister resigned after less than a year. The country’s President has accepted his resignation.He's likely to be replaced by Democratic Party leader of the country is
A
Enrico etta
B
Giorgio Napolitano
C
Matte Renzi
D
Silvio Berlusconi
E
Col Ellis
Question 29Single Answer
What is the maximum number of candidates in a constituency, for which elections can be conducted via the Electronic Voting Machines (EVM) in India?
A
32
B
16
C
72
D
64
E
70
Question 30Single Answer
The Chief of Staff Committee (CoSC) is the seniormost officer of the three services and is in-charge for looking after the joint issues. Who took over as the new CoSC?
A
NAK Browne
B
Arup Raha
C
Bikram Singh
D
J J Singh
E
N O Nath
Question 31Single Answer
Malays n Airlines Flight-370 disappeared on 8 March, 2014 it on route was from
A
Sing ore to Canada
B
New Delhi to Bangkok
C
Atlanta to Georgia
D
Kuala Lumpur to Beijing
E
Haw I to Honolulu
Question 32Single Answer
Energy major ‘Oil india Limited’ has signed an agreement with institute Rural Management anand (IRMA) to carry out a feasibility study . This agreement relates to
A
dairy sector
B
agriculture sector
C
skill development
D
banking sector in rural areas
E
multinational companies
Question 33Single Answer
Which wo States became the first States to be issued with 'P stic Photo Identity Card' for elections in India?
A
Nagaland and Arunachal Pradesh
B
Tripura and Nagaland
C
Arunachal Pradesh and Mizoram
D
Manipur and Asom
E
Nagaland and Asom
Question 34Single Answer
The first phase of providing free compact fluorescent light bulbs to over 14lakh hut-dwellers was launched by
A
Andhra Pradesh
B
Tamil Nadu
C
Karnataka
D
Kerala
E
Jammu & Kashmir
Question 35Single Answer
As per the criteria of Election Commission, a party can be called as a state party if all its candidates get minimum
A
8% votes
B
16% votes
C
4% votes
D
10% votes
E
15% votes
Question 36Single Answer
Which among the following US States has become the first to legalize selling of Marijuana?
A
Illinois
B
Washington
C
Colorado
D
California
E
None of these
Question 37Single Answer
Name the legendary actress to get the Inaugural centenary award for Indian film personality of the year 2013
A
Waheeda Rehman
B
Aishwary Rai Bachchan
C
Vaijayanti Mala
D
Hema Malini
E
Dimple Kapadia
Question 38Single Answer
Hery Rajaonarimampianina has been declared as the new president of
A
Armenia
B
Madagascar
C
Algeria
D
Belgium
E
Italy
Question 39Single Answer
India has nominated Rani-Ki-Vav, a 11 th century step well for UNESCO world Heritage site, it is situated in
A
Odisha
B
Gujarat
C
Punjab
D
Manipur
E
Goa
Question 40Single Answer
Chief Justice of Supreme Court (India)
A
Karia Munda
B
P J Kurien
C
Najeeb Jung
D
Sam Pitroda
E
R. M. Lodha
Question 41Single Answer
Excel worksheet data can be shared with Word document by
A
Inserting an Excel file Into Word
B
copy and paste Excel worksheet into Word document
C
link Excel data In a Word document
D
All f these
E
None of the above
Question 42Single Answer
Which protocol provides E-Mail facility among different hosts?
A
SMTP
B
FTP
C
TELNET
D
SNMP
E
None of these
Question 43Single Answer
Recently Indian Parliament passed 'IIIT Bill' to bring four Institutes c Information Technology under the ambit of a single authority. Three institutes are IIIT-Allahabad, IIIT Design and Manufacturing, Jabalpur and IIIT Design and Manufacturing, Kancheepuram. The fourth one is
A
IIIT-Bhubaneswar
B
IIIT-Patna
C
IIIT-Gwalior
D
IIIT-Raipur
Question 44Single Answer
The goverment of India recently eased FDI rules in which sector?
A
IT sector
B
Construction sector
C
Mining sector
D
Tourism sector
Question 45Single Answer
Couple burial was found in which of the following Harappan sites ?
A
Chanhudado
B
Lothal
C
Mohenjodaro
D
Harappa
Question 46Single Answer
US spac agency NASA successfully launched its Orion Multi-Purpose Crew Vehicle (MPCV) and returned it to Earth. The spaceship was launched from which place?
A
Florida
B
Miami
C
Virgin ands
D
Hawaii islands
Question 47Single Answer
Doodhnath Singh from Uttar Pradesh was honoured with Bharat Bharati Samman. What was he?
A
Litterateur
B
Painter
C
Scientist
D
Kathak dancer
Question 48Single Answer
Nedunuri Krishnamurthy recently passed away at the age of 87. What was he?
A
Bharatanatyam dancer
B
Renowned Telugu dramatist
C
Malayalam Santoor player
D
Carnatic vocalist
Question 49Single Answer
An advanced version of the indigenously developed Pinaka Mark-II rocket was successfully test-fired from which place?
A
Pokhran (Rajasthan)
B
A defence base Odisha
C
Chandipur (Odisha)
D
Wheeler Island (Odisha)
Question 50Single Answer
Which Pakistani education activist won the 2014 Nobel Prize?
A
Kailash Satyarthi
B
Malala Yousatzai
C
Shuji akamura
D
Isamu Akasaki
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Reasoning
Question 51Single Answer
Among M, T, R and P, M is older than only P. T is older than R. Who among them is the oldest ?
A
T
B
R
C
T or R
D
Data inadequate
E
None of these
Question 52Single Answer
Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group ?
A
Hill
B
Valley
C
Dam
D
River
E
Mountain
Question 53Single Answer
How many meaningful English words can be formed with the letters ESRO using each letter only once in each word ?
A
None
B
One
C
Two
D
Three
E
More than three
Question 54Single Answer
If ‘P’ denotes ‘+’, ‘R’ denotes ÷, T denotes’ and ‘W’ denotes x, then
40 R 8 W 10 T 12 P 16 = ?
A
50
B
46
C
30
D
70
E
None of these
Question 55Single Answer
What should come next in the following number sequence ?
2 2 3 2 3 4 2 3 4 5 2 3 4 5 6 2 3 4 5 6 7 2 3 4
A
8
B
5
C
6
D
2
E
None of these
Question 56Single Answer
How many such pairs of letters are there in the word CONSTABLE each of which has as many letters between them in the word as in the English alphabet ?
A
None
B
One
C
Two
D
Three
E
More than three
Question 57Single Answer
In a certain code BOARD is written as 54#12 and MORE is written as 941$. How is DREAM written in the code ?
A
21$#9
B
2$1#9
C
51$#9
D
25$#9
E
None of these
Question 58Single Answer
Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group ?
A
50
B
65
C
170
D
225
E
290
Question 59Single Answer
How many such digits are there in the number 5231698 each of which is as far away from the beginning of the number as when the digits are rearranged in ascending order ?
A
None
B
One
C
Two
D
Three
E
More than three
Question 60Single Answer
In a certain code ‘CREAM’ is written as NBDBQ. How is BREAD written in that code ?
A
EBFAQ
B
EBDAQ
C
BEDQA
D
BEFQA
E
None of these
Question 61Single Answer
In a certain code, the word DOUBT is written as '$#35&' and the word BONES is written as '5#@67'. How is the word STONE written in this code?
A
7@6
B
7@53#
C
7&53#
D
$673@
E
&753#
Question 62Single Answer
Amount five friend A,B,C,D and E each running at a different speed in a race. E ran faster than only two friends. A ran faster than D but slower than B. B did not run the fastest. Who ran the second slowest?
A
A
B
B
C
C
D
Cannot be determined
E
D
Question 63Single Answer
Which of the following will come next in the following series
a z a b y a b c x a b c d w a b c d
A
f
B
u
C
a
D
v
E
e
Question 64Single Answer
in a certain code language,”TONIC’ is coded as ‘CINOT’ and ‘SCALE’ is coded as ‘ACELS’ In the same code language, ‘PLANK’ will be coded as’…………?
A
KNALP
B
AKNLP
C
AKLNP
D
AKPNL
E
Cannot be determined
Question 65Single Answer
Which of the following will come in the place of the question mark (?) in the following series based on the English alphabetical order?
YS RM LH ? CA
A
DG
B
FD
C
GD
D
DF
E
GC
Question 66Single Answer
How many such pairs of letters are there in the word NEUTRAL, each of which has as many letters between them in the word (in both forward and backward directions) as they have between them in the English alphabetical series?
A
Two
B
Three
C
None
D
One
E
More than three
Question 67Single Answer
'Talk' is related to 'Speak' in a certain way. Similarly, 'Honest' is related to 'Truthful'. Following the same logic, 'Listen' is related to
A
Music
B
Ears
C
Hear
D
Ignore
E
Sound
Question 68Single Answer
Which of the following will come next in the following series?
09019012901239012349012345 9012345
A
0
B
6
C
5
D
7
E
4
Question 69Single Answer
How many such pairs of letters are there in '.he word WONDERS, each of which has as many letters between them in the word (in both forward and backward directions) as they have between them in the English alphabetical series?
A
One
B
Two
C
Three
D
More than three
E
None of these
Question 70Single Answer
In a certain code language, 'DRINK' is coded as 'JMHQC' and 'BLOTS' is coded as 'RSNKA'. In the same code language, 'HONEY' will be coded as
A
XDMOG
B
GNMDX
C
XDMNG
D
DXMGN
E
Cannot be determined
Question 71Single Answer
In a certain code PAUSE is written as OBVTD and SHIFT is written as RIJGS. How will THINK be written in the same code?
A
UGHML
B
SIJOJ
C
SILOJ
D
SIJQJ
E
SIJOL
Question 72Single Answer
Ajay walked 2m towards east, took a right turn and walked 7m. He then took a left turn and walked 5m before taking a left turn and walking 7m. He then took a final right turn and walked lm before stopping. How far is Ajay from the starting point?
A
8m
B
7m
C
6m
D
5m
E
9m
Question 73Single Answer
In a certain code DETAIL is written as BJMUFE. How is SUBMIT written in that code ?
A
UJWCVT
B
NJUCVT
C
NJUTVC
D
UJNTVC
E
None of these
Question 74Single Answer
If it is possible to make only one meaningful word from the second, the fourth, the sixth and the ninth letters of the word PROACTIVE, using each letter only once, second letter of that word is your answer. If more than one word can be formed your answer is M and if no such word can be formed your answer is N.
A
A
B
E
C
T
D
M
E
N
Question 75Single Answer
How many such pairs of letters are there in the word FOREHAND each of which have as many letters between them in the word as they have in the English alphabet ?
A
None
B
One
C
Two
D
Three
E
More than three
Question 76Single Answer
Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to the group ?
A
17
B
31
C
23
D
13
E
21
Question 77Single Answer
Veena walked 5m towards North, took a left turn and walked 7m. She took a left turn again and walked 8m before taking a left turn and walking 7m. She then took a final left turn and walked lm before stopping. How far is Veena from the starting point?
A
3 m
B
6 m
C
4 m
D
2 m
E
7 m
Question 78Single Answer
In a certain code IDEAS is written as HEDBR and WOULD is written as VPTMC. How will RIGHT be written in the same code?
A
QJHIS
B
QJFGS
C
SHHGU
D
QJFIU
E
QJFIS
Question 79Single Answer
Direction : Four of the following five are alike in a certain way based on the English alphabetical series and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group?
A
TOQR
B
YTUV
C
KFHI
D
WRTU
E
QLNO
Question 80Single Answer
Direction : Four I the following five are alike in a certain m and so form a group. Which is the one tk does not belong to that group?
A
Triumph
B
Win
C
Success
D
Growth
E
Victory
Question 81Single Answer
Direction : Four of the following five are alike in a certain way based on the English alphabetical series and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group?
A
LOK
B
WZV
C
RUQ
D
DFC
E
ILH
Question 82Single Answer
Direction : Four of the following five are alike in a certain way based on the English alphabetical series and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group?
A
XZTV
B
QSMO
C
VXSU
D
FHBD
E
MOIK
Question 83Single Answer
Direction : Four I the following five are alike in a certain m and so form a group. Which is the one tk does not belong to that group?
A
Fast
B
Quick
C
Sudden
D
Rapid
E
Speedy
Question 84Single Answer
Direction : Four of the following five are alike in a certain way based on the English alphabetical series and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group?
A
OPKL
B
TUXY
C
YZUV
D
MNLJ
E
FGHC
Question 85Single Answer
Direction : Four of the following five are alike in a certain way based on the English alphabetical series and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group?
A
GHJE
B
TUWE
C
MNPK
D
DEGC
E
WXZU
Question 86Single Answer
Direction : Four of the following five are alike in a certain way based on the English alphabetical series and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group?
A
TVQ
B
DFB
C
HJE
D
LNI
E
PRM
Question 87Single Answer
Direction : Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group?
A
Heavy
B
High
C
Short
D
Low
E
Tall
Question 88Single Answer
Direction : Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group?
A
Outstanding
B
Nice
C
Excellent
D
Good
E
Kind
Question 89Single Answer
If it is possible to make only one meaningful word with the first, fourth, fifth and tenth letters of the word TELEVISION, which of the following would be the second letter of that word from the right end? If no such word can be made, give ‘X’ as your answer and if more than one such word can be formed, give your answer as ’Y’
A
X
B
L
C
N
D
E
E
Y
Question 90Single Answer
If each of the vowels in the word ‘GOLIATHS’ is changed to the next letter in the English alphabetical series and each consonant is changed to the previous letter in the English alphabetical series and then the alphabets so formed are arranged in alphabetical order from left to right, which of the following will be sixth from the left of the new arrangement thus formed?
A
S
B
P
C
G
D
J
E
F
Question 91Single Answer
In a certain code ‘TRUMP’ is written ‘SUTQN’. How is ‘FIRED’ written in that code?
A
GJQEF
B
JGEQF
C
JQGEF
D
JGQFE
E
JGQEF
Question 92Single Answer
How many such pairs of letters are there in the word FORMATION each of which has as many letters between them in the word (in both forward and backward directions) as they have between them in the English alphabetical order?
A
None
B
One
C
Two
D
Three
E
More than three
Question 93Single Answer
‘Music’ is related to ‘Notes’ in the same way as ‘Language’ is related to
A
Sentences
B
Combination
C
Grammar
D
Alphabets
E
Syntax
Question 94Single Answer
How many meaningful English words can be formed with the letters ADIC using each letter only once in each word?
A
None
B
One
C
Two
D
Three
E
More than three
Question 95Single Answer
If the digits in the number 79246358 are arranged in descending order from left to right, what will be the difference between the digits which are third from the right and second from the left in the new arrangement?
A
1
B
2
C
3
D
4
E
5
Question 96Single Answer
Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and so form a group, which is the one that does not belong to that group?
A
Violin
B
Harp
C
Guitar
D
Flute
E
Sitar
Question 97Single Answer
In a certain language ‘give me more’ is coded as ‘735’, ‘she has more’ is coded as ‘972’ and ‘she asked me gently’ is coded as ‘6321’. Which of the following is the code for ‘give’ in that language?
A
5
B
7
C
6
D
9
E
1
Question 98Single Answer
In a certain language ‘to be polite’ is coded as ‘fa so la’, ‘she is polite’ is coded as ‘so me pa’ and ‘to have manners’ is coded as ‘na la ma’. Which of the following is the code for ‘be’ in that language?
A
so
B
fa
C
la
D
me
E
na
Question 99Single Answer
Lead’ is related to ‘Pencil’, in the same way as ‘Ink’ is related to
A
Bottle
B
Pen
C
Stamp
D
Pot
E
Colour
Question 100Single Answer
How many meaningful English words can be formed with the letters ONFT using each letter only once in each word?
A
None
B
One
C
Two
D
Three
E
More than three
Technical Subjects (Civil / Mech / EEE)
Question 101Single Answer
The spot speeds (expressed in km/hr) observed at a road section are 66,62,45,79,32,51,56,60 53,and40. The median speed (expressed in km /hr )is ___________
(Note : answer with one decimal accuracy )
A
44.5
B
54.5
C
56,8
D
65.8
Question 102Single Answer
The optimum value of the function
F(x)=2 – 4 + 2 is
A
2 (maximum )
B
2(minimum)
C
-2(maximum)
D
-2minimum)
Question 103Single Answer
The kinematic indeterminacy of the place truss shown in the figure is
A
11
B
8
C
3
D
5
Question 104Single Answer
An elastic isotropic body is in a hydrostatic state of stress as shown in the figure. For on change in the volume to occur, what should be its Poisson’s ratio ?
A
0.00
B
0.25
C
0.50
D
1.00
Question 105Single Answer
A motorist traveling at 100 km/h on a highway needs to take the next exit, which had a speed limit of 50 km/h. The section of the roadway before the ramp entry has a downgrade of 3% and coefficient of friction (f) is 0.35 . In order to enter the ramp at the maximum allowable speed limit the braking distance (expressed in m ) from the exit ramp is ___________
A
32.87
B
99.00
C
33.99
D
92.32
Question 106Single Answer
The critical flow rations for a three-phase signal are found to be 0.30, 0.25 and 0.25. The total time lost in the cycle is 10s. Pedestrian crossings at this junction are not significant .The respective Green times (expressed in seconds and rounded off to the neatest integer) for the three phases are
A
34, 28 and 28
B
40, 25 and 25
C
40,30 and 30
D
50, 25, and 25
Question 107Single Answer
As per IS 456 -2000 for the design of reinforced concrete beam, the maximum allowable shear stress (jcmax) depends on the
A
grade of concrete and grade of steel
B
grade of concrete only
C
grade of steel only
D
grade of concrete and percentage of reinforcement
Question 108Single Answer
A water supply board is responsible for treating 1500m³/day of water. A settling column analysis indicates that an overflow rate of 20m/day will produce satisfactory removal for a depth of 3.1 m . It is decided to have two circular settling tanks in parallel . The required diameter (expressed in m) of the settling tanks is ___________.
A
6.450
B
5.890
C
30.89
D
6.909
Question 109Single Answer
As per Indian standards for bricks , minimum acceptable compressive strength of any class of burnt clay bricks in dry state is
A
10.0 M Pa
B
7.5MPa
C
5.0MPa
D
3.5MPa
Question 110Single Answer
A tall tower was photographed from an elevation of 700 m above the datum . The radial distances of the top and bottom of the tower from the principal points at 112.50 mm and 82 .40 mm, respectively. If the bottom of the tower is at an elevation 250 m above the datum then the height (expressed in m ) of the tower is ___________
A
120.4
B
130.6
C
132.9
D
127.5
Question 111Single Answer
A strip footing is resting on the surface of a purely clayey soil deposit , if the width of he footing is doubled , the ultimate beating capacity of the soil
A
becomes double
B
becomes half
C
becomes four –times
D
remains the same
Question 112Single Answer
The relationship between the specific gravity of sand (G) and the hydraulic gradients (i) to initiate quick condition in the sand layer having porosity of 30% is.
A
G=0.7i+1
B
G=1. 43i-1
C
G=1.43i+1
D
G=0.7i-1
Question 113Single Answer
The results of a consolidation test on an undisturbed soil , sampled at a depth of 10m below the ground level are as follows :
Saturated unit weight : 16 kN/m3
Pre –conslidation pressure : 90 kPa
The ware table was encountered at the ground level. Assuming the unit weight of water as 10kN/m3 , the over –consolidation ratio of the soil is
A
0.67
B
1.50
C
1,77
D
2.00
Question 114Single Answer
A sample of water has been analyzed for common ions and results are presented in the form of a bar diagram ad shown
The non-carbonate hardness (expressed in mg/L as Ca3) of the sample is
A
40
B
165
C
195
D
205
Question 115Single Answer
Water table fo an aquifer drops by 100 cm over an area of 1000 Km2 The porosity and specific retention of the aquifer material are 25% and 5% respectively. The amount of water (expressed in Km2 ) drained out from the area is _________
A
0.7
B
5,0
C
0.2
D
00.9
Question 116Single Answer
A tracer takes 100 days to travel from well -1 to Well -2 which are 100m apart. The elevation of water surface I Well -2 is 3m below that in Well-1. Assuming porosity equal to 15% the coefficient of permeability (expressed in m/day) is
A
8m/day
B
9m/day
C
6m/day
D
5m/day
Question 117Single Answer
The atmospheric layer closest to the earth surface is
A
the mesosphere
B
the stratosphere
C
The thermosphere
D
the troposphere
Question 118Single Answer
A water supply board is responsible for treating 1500m³/day of water. A settling column analysis indicates that an overflow rate of 20m/day will produce satisfactory removal for a depth o 3.1 m . It is decided to have two circular settling tanks in parallel . The required diameter (expressed in m) of the settling tanks is ___________.
A
6.450
B
5.890
C
30.89
D
6.909
Question 119Single Answer
The hardness of a ground water sample was found to be 420 mg/L as CaCO3 .A softener containing ion exchange resins was installed to reduce the total hardness to 75 mg/L as CaCO 3 before supplying to 4 households Each household gets treated water at a rate of 540 L/day. If the efficiency of the softener is 100% ,the bypass flow rate (expressed in L/day )is___________
A
1774.29
B
1664.29
C
1337.90
D
1267.90
Question 120Single Answer
The sound pressure (expressed in µPa) of the faintest sound that a normal healthy individual can hear is
A
0.2
B
2
C
20
D
55
Question 121Single Answer
In the context of the IRC 58 -2011 guidelines for rigid pavement design, consider the following pair of statements .
I . Radius of relative stiffness is directly related to modulus of elasticity of concrete and inversely related to Poisson’s ratio
II . Radius of relative stiffness is directly related to thickness of slab and modulus of sugared raction.
Which one of the following combination s is correct ?
A
I: True ; II :True
B
I:False : II False
C
I: True ; II :False
D
I: False ; II :True
Question 122Single Answer
If the total number of commercial vehicles per day ranges from 3000 to 6000 ,the minimum percentage of commercial traffic to be surveyed for axle load is
A
15
B
20
C
25
D
30
Question 123Single Answer
Optimal flight planning for a photogrammetric survey should be carried out considering
A
only side – lap
B
only end –lap
C
either side –lap or end –lap
D
both side- lap as well as end -lap
Question 124Single Answer
The reduced bearing of a 10m long line is N300 E .The departure of the line is
A
10.00 m
B
8.66m
C
7.52m
D
5.00m
Question 125Single Answer
A circular curve of radius R connects two straights with a deflection 600 .The tangent length is
A
0.577R
B
1.155R
C
1.732R
D
3.464R
Question 126Single Answer
Consider the following linear system
X+2y-3z=a
2x+3y+3z=b
5x+9y-6z=c
This system is consistent if a, b, and c satisfy the equation
A
7a-b-c=0
B
3a+b-c=0
C
3a-b+c=0
D
7a-b+c=0
Question 127Single Answer
OMC –SP and MDD-SP denote the optimum moisture content and maximum dry density obtained from standard Proctor compaction test, respectively OMC –MP and MDD –MP denote the optimum moisture content and maximum dry density obtained from the modified Proctor compaction test , respectively which one of the following is correct ?
A
OMC –SP < OMC –MP AND MDD –SP
B
OMC –SP > OMC –MP AND MDD –SP < MDD –MP
C
OMC –SP < OMC –MP AND MDD –SP
D
OMC –SP > OMC –MO AND MDD –SP < MDD –MP
Question 128Single Answer
The angle of intersection of the curves 2 =4y and y2 =4x at point (0,0)is
A
00
B
300
C
450
D
900
Question 129Single Answer
The area between the parabola 2 =8y and the straight line y = 8 is ___________
A
88.33
B
87.33
C
85.33
D
88.90
Question 130Single Answer
The quadratic approximation of f() = 3 – 5 atthepoint = 0 is
A
32 – 6 – 5
B
-32 -- 5
C
- 32 + 6 --5
D
32 -- 5
Question 131Single Answer
The seepage occurring through an earthen dam is represented by a flow net comprising of 10 equipotential drops and 20 flow channels. The coefficient of permeability of the soil is 3 mm /min and the head loss is 5m. The rate of seepage (expressed in c3 per m length of the dam) through the earthen dam is___________
A
400
B
600
C
500
D
800
Question 132Single Answer
The area between the parabola x2 =8y and the straight line y = 8 is ___________
A
88.33
B
87.33
C
85.33
D
88.90
Question 133Single Answer
Consider the following linear system
X+2y-3z=a
2x+3y+3z=b
5x+9y-6z=c This system is consistent if a, b, and c satisfy the equation
A
7a-b-c=0
B
3a+b-c=0
C
3a-b+c=0
D
7a-b+c=0
Question 134Single Answer
A circular curve of radius R connects two straights with a deflection 600 .The tangent length is
A
0.577R
B
1.155R
C
1.732R
D
3.464R
Question 135Single Answer
The reduced bearing of a 10m long line is N300E .The departure of the line is
A
10.00 m
B
8.66m
C
7.52m
D
5.00m
Question 136Single Answer
Optimal flight planning for a photogrammetric survey should be carried out considering
A
only side – lap
B
only end –lap
C
either side –lap or end –lap
D
both side- lap as well as end -lap
Question 137Single Answer
If the total number of commercial vehicles per day ranges from 3000 to 6000 ,the minimum percentage of commercial traffic to be surveyed for axle load is
A
15
B
20
C
25
D
30
Question 138Single Answer
In the context of the IRC 58 -2011 guidelines for rigid pavement design, consider the following pair of statements .
I . Radius of relative stiffness is directly related to modulus of elasticity of concrete and inversely related to Poisson’s ratio
II . Radius of relative stiffness is directly related to thickness of slab and modulus of sugared raction.
Which one of the following combination s is correct ?
A
I: True ; II :True
B
I:False : II False
C
I: True ; II :False
D
I: False ; II :True
Question 139Single Answer
The hardness of a ground water sample was found to be 420 mg/L as CaCO3 .A softener containing ion exchange resins was installed to reduce the total hardness to 75 mg/L as CaCO 3 before supplying to 4 households Each household gets treated water at a rate of 540 L/day. If the efficiency of the softener is 100% ,the bypass flow rate (expressed in L/day )is___________
A
1774.29
B
1664.29
C
1337.90
D
1267.90
Question 140Single Answer
The seepage occurring through an earthen dam is represented by a flow net comprising of 10 equipotential drops and20 flow channels. The coefficient of permeability of the soil is 3mm /min and the head loss is 5m. The rate of seepage (expressed in cm3 /s per m length of the dam) through the earthen dam is___________
A
400
B
600
C
500
D
800
Question 141Single Answer
The atmospheric layer closest to the earth surface is
A
the mesosphere
B
the stratosphere
C
The thermosphere
D
the troposphere
Question 142Single Answer
OMC –SP and MDD-SP denote the optimum moisture content and maximum dry density obtained from standard Proctor compaction test, respectively OMC –MP and MDD –MP denote the optimum moisture content and maximum dry density obtained from the modified Proctor compaction test , respectively which one of the following is correct ?
A
OMC –SP < OMC –MP AND MDD –SP
B
OMC –SP > OMC –MP AND MDD –SP < MDD –MP
C
OMC –SP < OMC –MP AND MDD –SP
D
OMC –SP > OMC –MO AND MDD –SP < MDD –MP
Question 143Single Answer
The relationship between the specific gravity of sand (G) and the hydraulic gradients (i) to initiate quick condition in the sand layer having porosity of 30% is.
A
G=0.7i+1
B
G=1. 43i-1
C
G=1.43i+1
D
G=0.7i-1
Question 144Single Answer
A strip footing is resting on the surface of a purely clayey soil deposit , if the width of the footing is doubled , the ultimate beating capacity of the soil
A
becomes double
B
becomes half
C
becomes four –times
D
remains the same
Question 145Single Answer
As per Indian standards for bricks, minimum acceptable compressive strength of any class of burnt clay bricks in dry state is
A
10.0 M Pa
B
7.5MPa
C
5.0MPa
D
3.5MPa
Question 146Single Answer
The ordinates of a one –hour unit hydrograph a sixty minute interval are 0,3,12,8,6,3 and 0m3 /s A two –hour storm of 4cm excess rainfall occurred in the basin from 10aM . Considering constant base flow of 20m3 /s ,the flow fi the fiver (expressed in m3 /s at 1Pm is __________
A
66
B
77
C
60
D
65
Question 147Single Answer
A 3m wide rectangular channel carries a flow of 6m3 /s .The depth of flow at a section P is 0.5 m. A flat – topped hump is to be placed at the downstream of the section P. Assume negligribe energy loss between section P and hump , and consider g as 9.81 m/s2 . The maximum height of the hump (expressed in m) which will not change the depth of flow at section P is __________
A
0.20
B
0.80
C
0.76
D
0.40
Question 148Single Answer
A penstock of 1m diameter and 5 km length is used to supply water from a reservoir to an impulse turbine. A nozzle of 15cm diameter is fixed at the end of the penstock . The elevation difference between the turbine and water level in the reservoir is 500 m. Consider the head loss due to friction as 5% of the velocity head available at the jet. Assume unit weight of water = 10kN/m3 and acceleration due to gravity (g) =10kN / s2 If the overall efficiency is 80% power generated (expressed in kW and rounded to nearest integer ) is ………..
A
6570
B
6670
C
7078
D
6859
Question 149Single Answer
A tracer takes 100 days to travel from well -1 to Well -2 which are 100m apart. The elevation of water surface I Well -2 is 3m below that in Well-1. Assuming porosity equal to 15% the coefficient of permeability (expressed in m/day )is
A
8m/day
B
9m/day
C
6m/day
D
5m/day
Question 150Single Answer
The optimum value of the function F(x)= x2 - 4x + 2 is
A
2 (maximum)
B
2(minimum)
C
-2(maximum)
D
-2minimum
Question 151Single Answer
A noise meter located at a distance of 30 m from a point source recorded 74 dB. The reading at a distance of 60 m from the point source would be ___________
A
67.979
B
68.889
C
897.55
D
674.76
Question 152Single Answer
For a wastewater sample , the three –day biochemical oxygen demand at incubation temperature of 200 C (BOD3day,200c) is estimated as 200mg/L. Taking the value fo the first order BoD reacting rate constant as 0.22 day1 the five day BOD (expressed I nmg /L ) of he wastewater at incubation temperature o f20 0C (BOD 5day,200c) would be __________
A
276.19
B
267.91
C
266.77
D
233.56
Question 153Single Answer
The critical flow rations for a three-phase signal are found to be 0.30 , 0.25 and 0.25. The total time lost in the cycle is 10s. Pedestrian crossings at this junction are not significant .The respective Green times (expressed in seconds and rounded off to the neatest integer ) for the three phases are
A
34,28 and28
B
40,25 and25
C
40,30,and30
D
50, 25, and25
Question 154Single Answer
A motorist traveling at 100 km/h on a highway needs to take the next exit, which had a speed limit of 50 km/h. The section o the roadway before the ramp entry has a downgrade of 3% and coefficient of friction (f) is 0.35 . In order to enter the ramp at the maximum allowable speed limit the braking distance (expressed in m ) from the exit ramp is ___________
A
32.87
B
99.00
C
33.99
D
92.32
Question 155Single Answer
A tall tower was photographed from an elevation of 700 m above the datum . The radial distances of the top and bottom of the tower from the principal points at 112.50 mm and 82 .40 mm, respectively. If the bottom of the tower is at an elevation 250 m above the datum then the height (expressed in m ) of the tower is ___________
A
120.4
B
130.6
C
132.9
D
127.5
Question 156Single Answer
The is no aloe of x that can simultaneously satisfy both the given equations Therefore find the teats squares error ‘ solution to the two equation I .e. find the value of x that minimizes the sum of squares of the errors in the two equations ____________
2x = 3
4x = 1
A
0.1
B
0.2
C
0.4
D
0.5
Question 157Single Answer
What is the minimum number is multiplications involved in computing the matrix product PQR ? Matrix P has 4 rows and 2 columns matrix Q has 2 rows and 4 columns and matrix R has 4 rows and 1 column ___________________
A
12
B
14
C
16
D
18
Question 158Single Answer
A 1-h rainfall of 10cm magnitude at a station has a return period of 50 years.The probability that a1-h rainfall of magnitude 10cm or more will occur in each of two successive years is
A
0.04
B
0.2
C
0.02
D
0.0004
Question 159Single Answer
Maximum possible value of compacting Factor for fresh (green )concrete is
A
0.5
B
1.0
C
1.5
D
2.0
Question 160Single Answer
As per Is 800: 2007 , the cross section in which the extreme fiber can reach the yield stress, but cannot develop the plastic moment of resistance due to failure by local buckling is classified as
A
plastic section
B
compact section
C
semi-compact section
D
slender section
Question 161Single Answer
The creep strains are
A
caused due to dead loads only
B
caused due to live loads only
C
caused due to cyclic loads only
D
independent of loads
Question 162Single Answer
As per is 456-2000 for M20 grade concrete and plain basin tension the design bond stress jbd=1.2 M Pa Further IS 456 ;2000 permits this design bond stress value to be increased by 60% for HSD bars. The stress in the HSD Reinforcing steel basin tension as =360 M Pa. Find the required development length Ldfor HSD basin terms of the bar diameter ⍰ ____________
A
45 to 46
B
46 to 47
C
47 to 48
D
48 to 49
Question 163Single Answer
The ‘plane section remains plane’ assumption in bending theory implies :
A
strain profile is linear
B
stress profile is linear
C
both strain and stress profiles are linear
D
shear deformations are neglected
Question 164Single Answer
Two steel columns P (length L and yield strength fy = 250MPa) and Q (length 2L and yield strength fy = 500MPa) have the same cross – sections and end – conditions The ratio of buckling load of Colum P to that of column Q is
A
0.5
B
1.0
C
2.0
D
4.0
Question 165Single Answer
The pin –jointed 2-D truss is loaded with a horizontal l force of 15 kN at joint s and another 15 kN vertical force at joint U as shown. Find the force in member Rs (in kN ) and report your answer taking tension as positive and compression as negative ____________
A
0
B
1
C
3
D
4
Question 166Single Answer
A symmetric I-section (with width of each flange = 50 mm , thickness of each flange =10 mm depth of web = 100 mm , and thickness of web = 10mm ) of steel is subjected top shear force of 100 kN. Find the magnitude of the shard stress (in N/mm2)in the web at its junction with the top flange __________
A
70 to 72
B
72 to 74
C
74 to 76
D
76 to 78
Question 167Single Answer
In its natural condition , a soil sample has a mass of 1.980 kg and a volume of 0.001 m3 . After being completely dried in an oven the mass of the sample is 1.800 kg . Specific gravity G is 2.7 Unit weight of water is 10 kN/m3 .The degree of saturation of the soil is
A
0.65
B
0.70
C
0.54
D
0.61
Question 168Single Answer
The ratio Nf/ Nd is known as shape factor where N f is the number of flow lines and Nd is the number f oequipltential drops. Flow net is always drawn with a constant b/a ratio ,where b and a are distances between two consecutive flow lines and equipotential lines respectively. Assuming that b/a ratio remains the same the shape factor of a flow nit will change if the
A
upstream and downstream heads are interchanged
B
soil in the flow space is changed
C
dimensions of the flow space are changed
D
head difference causing the flow is changed
Question 169Single Answer
Following statements are made of on compacted soils wherein DS stands for the coils compacted on dry side of optimum moisture content and WS stands side for the soils compacted on wet side of optimum moisture content Identify the Incorrect statement
A
Soil structure is flocculated on
B
construction pore water pressure is low on DS and high on WS
C
On drying shrinkage is high on DS and low on Ws
D
On access to water swelling is high on DS and low on WS
Question 170Single Answer
Four columns of a building are to be located within a plot size of 10m x10m The expected load on each column is 4000 kN . Allowable bearing capacity of the soil deposit is 100 kN/m2 the type of foundation best suited is
A
isolated footing
B
raft foundation
C
pile foundation
D
combined footing
Question 171Single Answer
For subcritical flow in an open channel, the control section for gradually varied flow profiles is
A
at the downstream end
B
at the upstream end
C
at both upstream and downstream ends
D
at any intermediate section
Question 172Single Answer
Group –I contains dimensionless parameters and Group II contains the rations Group I Group II
P. Mach Number 1. Ratio of inertial force and
gravitational force
Q. Reynolds Number 2. Ratio of fluid velocity and velocity of sound
R . Weber Number 3. Ratio of inertial force and viscous force
S. Froude Number 4. Ratio of inertial force and surface tension force
The correct match of dimensionless parameters in Group –I with ratios in group II is
A
P -3 ,Q-2 ,R –4,S-1
B
P -3 ,Q-4 ,R –2,S-1
C
P -2 ,Q-3 ,R –4,S-1
D
P -1 ,Q-3 ,R –2,S-4
Question 173Single Answer
For a two dimensional flow field the stream function id given n as the magnitude of discharge occurring between the stream lines passing through points (0.3) and (3,4 )is
A
6
B
3
C
1.5
D
2
Question 174Single Answer
An isohyets is a line joining points of
A
equal temperature
B
equal humidity
C
equal rainfall depth
D
equal evaporation
Question 175Single Answer
Some of the water quality parameters are measured by titration a water sample with a tartan Group –I gives list of parameters and Group –II gives the list of tartans Group –I Group –II
P. Alkalinity 1 .N/35.5 agNO3
Q. Hardness 2. N/40 Na2S2O3
R. chloride 3. N/50 H2 SO2
S. Dissolved oxygen 4, N/50 EDTA
The correct match of water quality parameters in Group I with tartans in Group –II is
A
P -1 ,Q-2 ,R –3,S-4
B
P -3 ,Q-4 ,R –1,S-2
C
P -2 ,Q-1 ,R –4,S-3
D
P -4 ,Q-3 ,R –2,S-1
Question 176Single Answer
A water treatment plant is designed to treat 1m3/s of raw water. It has 14 sand filters Surface area of each filter is 50m2 What is the loading rate with two filters out of service for routine backwashing ?______________
A
143 to 145
B
147 to 149
C
150 to 152
D
153 to 155
Question 177Single Answer
Select the strength parameter o f concrete used in design of plain jointed cement concrete pavements from the following choices
A
Tensile strength
B
Compressive strength
C
Flexural strength
D
Shear strength
Question 178Single Answer
For two major roads with divided carriageway crossing at right angle a full clover leaf interchange with four indirect ramps is provided Following statements made on turning movements of vehicles to all directions from both roads Identify the correct statement
A
Merging from left is possible but diverging to left is not possible
B
Both merging from left and diverging to left are possible .
C
Merging from left is not possible but diverging t oleft is possible
D
Neither merging from left not diverging to left is possible
Question 179Single Answer
The latitude and departure of a line AB are +78 m and -45 .1m respectively The whole circle beating of the line AB is
A
300
B
1500
C
2100
D
3300
Question 180Single Answer
The state of 2D –stress at a point is given by the following marix of stresses :
What is the magnitude of maximum shear stress in MPa ?
A
50
B
75
C
100
D
110
Question 181Single Answer
Find the magnitude of the error (correct to two decimal places )in the estimation of following integral using Simpson’s Rule Take the step length as1._________
A
0.52 to 0.55
B
0.57 to 0.59
C
0.60 to 0.62
D
0.63 to 0.65
Question 182Single Answer
The solution for
A
0
B
1
15
C
1
D
8
3
Question 183Single Answer
Find the value of λ such that the function f(x) is a valid probability density function ________ f() = λ (x – 1)(2 – x) for 1< x > 2 = 0 otherwise
A
2
B
4
C
6
D
8
Question 184Single Answer
Laplace equation for water flow in soils in given blow
Head H does not vary in U and z directions Boundary conditions are : x=0,H=5; and =-1
What sit h value of Hat x =1.2 ? __________
A
3.2
B
3.4
C
3.6
D
3.8
Question 185Single Answer
All members in the rigid –jointed frame shown are prismatic and have the same flexural stuffiness EI . Find the magnitude of the bending moment at Q (in kN m )due to the given loading ____________
A
20
B
22
C
25
D
28
Question 186Single Answer
A uniform beam(EI=constant ) PQ in the in the form of a quarter- circle of radius R is fixed attend P and free at the en Q where aloud W is applied as shown the vertical downward displacement δα at the loaded point Q is given by : Find the value of β (correct t o4-decimal places ) .
A
0.785 to 0.786
B
0.777 to 0.779
C
0.790 to 0.792
D
0.798 to 0.799
Question 187Single Answer
A uniform beam weighting 1800 N is supported at E and F by cable ABCD. Determine the tension (in N ) in segment AB of this cable (correct of 1-decimal place ) .Assume the cables ABCD BE and CF to be weightless __________
A
1310 to 1313
B
1313 to 1315
C
1316 to 1318
D
1315 to 1317
Question 188Single Answer
Bean PQRS has internal hinges in spans PQ and RS as shown . The beam may be subjected to a moving distributed vertical load of maximum intensity 4kN/m of any length anywhere on the beam the maximum absolute value of the shard force (in kN) that can occur due to this loading just to the right of support Q shall be
A
30
B
40
C
45
D
55
Question 189Single Answer
A rectangular concrete beam 250 mm wide and 600 deep is pre –stressed by means of 16 high tensile wits each of 7mm diameter, located at 200mm from the bottom face of the beam at a given section .If the effective pre – stress in the wires is 700 M Pa . What is the maximum sagging bending moment (in kN m )correct to 1- decimal place ) due to live load that this section of the beam can withstand without causing ensile stress at the bottom face of the beam ? Neglect the effect of dead load of beam ____________
A
84.5 to 85.5
B
85.5 to 86.5
C
86.5 to 87.5
D
87.5 to 88.5
Question 190Single Answer
The soil profile elbow a lake with water level at elevation -0 m and lake bottom at elevation =- 10m is shown in the figure where k is the permeability coefficient. A pyrometer (stand pipe ) installed in the sand layer shows reading of +10 m elevation . Assume that the piezometric head is uniform in the sand layer. The quantity of water (in ) flowing in to the lake from the and layer through he silt layer per unit area o the lade bed is
A
1.5 x 10–6
B
12.0 x 10–6
C
1.0 x 10–6
D
0.5 x 10–6
Question 191Single Answer
The soil profile above the rock surface for a 250infinite slope is shown in the figure where su is the undrained shear strength and yt is total unit weight the slip will occur at a depth o f
A
8.83 m
B
9.79m
C
7.83 m
D
6.53 m
Question 192Single Answer
Two different soil types (Soil 1 and Soil 2) are used as backfill behind a retaining wall as shown in the figure where yt is total unit weight and c’ and ⍰ are effective cohesion and effective angle of shearing resistance .The resultant active earth force per unit length (in kN/M ) acting on the wall is
A
31.7
B
35.2
C
51.8
D
57.0
Question 193Single Answer
A 2 km long pipe of 0.2 m diameter connects two reservoirs. The difference between water levels in the reservoirs is 8 m. The Darcy Weisbachfriction factor of the pipe is 0.04 Accounting for frictional entry and exit losses the velocity in the pipe (in m /s) is
A
0.63
B
0.35
C
2.52
D
1.25
Question 194Single Answer
The normal depth in a wide rectangular channel is increased by 10%. The percentage increase in the discharge in the channel is
A
20.1
B
15.4
C
10.5
D
17.2
Question 195Single Answer
The transplantation of rice requires10days and total depth of water required during transplant total depth of water required. during transplantation is 48 cm. During transplantation there is an effective rainfall (useful for irrigation of 8cm. The duty of irrigation water ( in hectares/cumec) is
A
612
B
216
C
300
D
108
Question 196Single Answer
A settling tank in a water treatment plant is designed for a surface overflow rate of 30 . Assume specific gravbity of sediment particles = 2.65, density of water (p) = 1000 kg/m3, dynamic viscosity of water (µ) = 0.001 N.s/ m2, and Stokes’ law is valid. The approximate minimum size of particles that would be completely removed is
A
0.01 mm
B
0.02 mm
C
0.03 mm
D
0.04 mm
Question 197Single Answer
A student began experiment for determination of 5-day, 200 C BOD on Monday. Since the 5th day fell on Saturday, the final DO readings were taken on next Monday. On calculation, BOD (i.e. 7 day, 200 C) was found to be 150 mg/L. What would be the 5-day, 200 C BOD (in mg/L)? Assume value of BOD rate constant (k) at standard temperature of 200 C as 0.23/day (base e). _________
A
127 to 132
B
133 to 137
C
138 to143
D
144 to 149
Question 198Single Answer
Elevation and temperature data for a place are tabulated below:
Elevation, m
Temperature, 0C
4
21.25
444
15.70
Based on the above data, lapse rate can be referred as
A
Super-adiabatic
B
Neutral
C
Sub-adiabatic
D
Inversion
Question 199Single Answer
The percent voids in mineral aggregate (VMA) and percent air voids (Vu)in a compacted cylindrical bituminous mix specimen are 15 and 4.5 respectively. The percent voids filled with bitumen (VFB) for this specimen is
A
24
B
30
C
54
D
70
Question 200Single Answer
Following bearings are observed while traversing with a compass.
Line
Fore Bearing
Back Bearing
AB
126045’
308000'
BC
49015'
227030'
CD
340030'
161045'
DE
258030'
78030'
EA
212030'
31045'
After applying the correction due to local attraction, the corrected fore bearing of line BC will be