Supply is a flow concept and stock is not a flow.com
C
Both supply and stock are flow concepts
D
None of the above
Question 2Single Answer
What is the shape of supply curve
A
Convex to x axis or upward sloping
B
Downward sloping
C
Concave
D
Can be any of the
Question 3Single Answer
What is the relation between individual and market supply curve
A
Market supply curve is the horizontal summation of individual supply curve
B
Market demand curve is the vertical summation of individual supply curve
C
Individual supply curve is the horizontal summation of market demand curve
D
Individual supply curve is the vertical summation of market demand curve
Question 4Single Answer
Contraction and extension of supply means
A
Increase in supply due to increased price and decrease in supply due
decreased price
B
Decrease in supply due to increased price increase in supply due to decreased
price
C
Both a and b
D
None of the above
Question 5Single Answer
More supply at same price and same supply at lower price means
A
Increased supply
B
Decreased supply
C
Constant supply
D
None of the above
Question 6Single Answer
Decrease in supply means
A
Less supply at same price and same supply at higher price
B
Higher supply at same price and same supply at decreased price
C
Both a and b
D
None of the above
Question 7Single Answer
Elasticity of supply is given by
A
% A quantity supplied / %A in demand
B
% A quantity demanded / % A in supply
C
% 4 in supply / % 4 in price
D
None of the above
Question 8Single Answer
Pick the incorrect one out in terms of (es= elasticity of supply)
A) Perfectly inelastic - es = 0
B) Perfectly elastic - es = 0
C) Inelastic - es <1
D) Elastic - es = 1
E) Unitary elastic - es = 1
A
Only A
B
Only B
C
Only C
D
None of the above
Question 9Single Answer
Market is in equilibrium when
A
Quantity demanded = quantity supplied
B
Quantity demanded > quantity supplied
C
Quantity demanded < quantity supplied
D
All of the above
Question 10Single Answer
Which one of the following is not correctly matched
A
Surplus when quantity supplied > quantity demanded
B
Deficit when quantity supplied < quantity demanded
C
Elastic supply curve has elasticity > 1
D
None of the above
Question 11Single Answer
An out-of-school system of education for rural people:
A
Extension
B
Management
C
Participation
D
Communication
Question 12Single Answer
Extension literally means:
A
Stretching out
B
Talking with
C
Deciding for
D
Thinking about
Question 13Single Answer
The term ‘Extension’ have originated in:
A
Latin
B
Persian
C
Greek
D
Sanskrit
Question 14Single Answer
The Latin roots for the word ‘extension’:
A
ex and tensio
B
ex and tension
C
ex and luceo
D
ex and termo
Question 15Single Answer
The term “University Extension” was first used in:
A
1866
B
1972
C
1901
D
1921
Question 16Single Answer
According to UPOV Act 1978, the period of protection for field crops is:
A
10 Years
B
12 Years
C
15 Years
D
18 Years
Question 17Single Answer
Plant variety Protection Act was initially signed into law in the country
A
Russia
B
USA
C
Japan
D
Canada
Question 18Single Answer
The genetic purity of seed is examined by:
A
Viability test
B
Seed health test
C
Grow out test
D
Moisture test
Question 19Single Answer
Cuscuta is an objectionable weed in:
A
Lettuce
B
Cucurbits
C
Lucerne
D
Mustard
Question 20Single Answer
In sunflower, production of foundation seed requires an isolation distance of:
A
200 metres
B
100 metres
C
400 metres
D
800 metres
Question 21Single Answer
Froduction of breeder seed in cotton requires an isolation distance of:
A
20 metres
B
30 metres
C
50 metres
D
75 metres
Question 22Single Answer
Certification is not required for:
A
Breeder seed
B
Foundation seed
C
Certified seed
D
All of these
Question 23Single Answer
Which of the following are water soluble proteins ?
A
Albumins
B
Globulins
C
Prolamins
D
Glutenins
Question 24Single Answer
PPB is known as:
A
Collaborative Plant Breeding (CPB)
B
Farmers Participatory Breeding (FPB)
C
Participatory Crop Improvement
D
All of these
Question 25Single Answer
Which of the following species of Brassicn is tetraploid?
A
B. nigra
B
B. oleracea
C
B. juncea
D
B. campestris
Question 26Single Answer
Fat contain
A
3.9 Kcal. of energy per gm
B
9.3 Kcal. of energy per gm
C
9.3 Kcal. of energy per molecule
D
7.3 Kcal. of energy per gm
Question 27Single Answer
The proteins found only in animal body are
A
Glutelins
B
Albumins
C
Scleroproteins
D
All of the above
Question 28Single Answer
The sulphur containing amino acids are
A
Lysine
B
Alanine & valine
C
Arginine
D
Cysteine & methionine
Question 29Single Answer
Zwitter ion contain
A
+ve charge
B
-ve charge
C
Little or no net charge
D
More +ve charge and less -ve charge
Question 30Single Answer
The water soluble vitamins are
A
Vitamin A and D
B
Vitamin B - complex and Vitamin C
C
Vitamin E and K
D
All of the above
Question 31Single Answer
Gallic acid is chief components of
A
Condensed tannins
B
Hydrolysable tannins
C
Both (a) and (b)
D
None of the above
Question 32Single Answer
The flavonoids synthesized in plants are by
A
Mevaloni acid pathway
B
Malonic acid pathway
C
Shikmic acid pathway
D
Both (a) & (b)
Question 33Single Answer
The correct general formula of the carbohydrate is
A
Cn (H2O)n
B
C2n (H2,O)n
C
Cn (H2,O)2n
D
None of the above
Question 34Single Answer
Raffinose and gentianose are the example of
A
Disaccharides
B
Trisaccharides
C
Polysaccharides
D
Monosaccharides
Question 35Single Answer
If the optically active compound rotates the plane polarised light to right side, it is called as.........................and is denote by...............
A
Dextrorotary and is denoted by small italic letter d or + sigh
B
Levorotary and is denoted by small italic letter l or - sigh
C
Both (a) & (b)
D
None of the above
Question 36Single Answer
Which state in India receives the highest annual rainfall, making it ideal for paddy cultivation?
A
Punjab
B
Kerala
C
Uttar Pradesh
D
Jammu & Kashmir
Question 37Single Answer
The "Mediterranean climate" with mild winters and dry summers favors the growth of which major crop?
A
Rice
B
Grapes
C
Sugarcane
D
Potatoes
Question 38Single Answer
The "Black Prairies" region of the United States is known for its fertile soil and ideal climate for growing:
A
Citrus fruits
B
Corn and soybeans
C
Cotton and tobacco
D
Coffee and tea
Question 39Single Answer
Jute, a fiber crop, thrives in which Indian state with its warm, humid climate and alluvial soil?
A
Rajasthan
B
West Bengal
C
Tamil Nadu
D
Himachal Pradesh
Question 40Single Answer
Which crop is known as the "king of fruits" and requires a hot, humid climate with well-drained soil?
A
Mango
B
Apple
C
Banana
D
Grapes
Physics
Question 41Single Answer
Temperature can be expressed as derived quantity in terms of
A
length and mass
B
mass and time
C
length, mass and time
D
None of these
Question 42Single Answer
Electron volt is a unit of
A
potential difference
B
charge
C
energy
D
capacity
Question 43Single Answer
Dimensions of impulse are
A
[MLT –1]
B
[MLT²]
C
[MT–2]
D
[ML–1T–3]
Question 44Single Answer
Potential is measured in
A
joule/coulomb
B
watt/coulomb
C
newton–second
D
None of these
Question 45Single Answer
One Nanometer is equal to
A
10–9m
B
10–6m
C
10–10m
D
10–3m
Question 46Single Answer
Maxwell is the unit of
A
magnetic susceptibility
B
intensity of Magnetisation
C
magnetic Flux
D
magnetic Permeability
Question 47Single Answer
Which of the following is derived physical quantity ?
A
Mass
B
Velocity
C
Length
D
Time
Question 48Single Answer
What are the units of magnetic permeability ?
A
Wb A–1 m–1
B
Wb–1 Am
C
Wb A m–1
D
Wb A–1 m
Question 49Single Answer
The dimensions of pressure gradient are
A
[ML–2 T–2]
B
[ML–2 T–1]
C
[ML–1 T–1]
D
[ML–1 T–2]
Question 50Single Answer
The dimensions of Rydberg's constant are
A
[M0L–1T]
B
[MLT–1]
C
[M0 L–1T0]
D
[ML0 T2]
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Physics
Question 51Single Answer
'Farad' is the unit of
A
resistance
B
conductance
C
capacitance
D
inductance
Question 52Single Answer
S.I. unit of surface tension is
A
degree/cm
B
N/m
C
N/m²
D
Nm
Question 53Single Answer
Which one of the following pairs does not have the same dimension ?
A
Potential energy and Kinetic energy
B
Density and specific gravity
C
Focal length and height
D
Gravitational force and frictional force
Question 54Single Answer
Which one of the following physical quantity has the same unit as that of pressure ?
A
Angular momentum
B
Stress
C
Strain
D
Work
Question 55Single Answer
The symbol of SI unit of inductance is H. It stands for
A
Holm
B
Halogen
C
Henry
D
Hertz
Question 56Single Answer
Light year is a measure of
A
time
B
distance
C
total amount of light falling on the Earth in a year
D
average intensity of light falling on the Earth in a year
Question 57Single Answer
Which one of the following is not a dimension less quantity ?
A
Strain
B
Relative density
C
Frequency
D
Angle
Question 58Single Answer
The dimensions of universal gas constant are
A
[L² M¹ T–2 K–1]
B
[L¹ M² T–2 K–1]
C
[L¹ M¹ T–2 K–1]
D
[L² M² T–2 K–1]
Question 59Single Answer
The dimensions of magnetic moment are
A
[L²A¹]
B
[L²A–1]
C
[L²/A³]
D
[LA²]
Question 60Single Answer
The dimensions of Wien's constant are
A
[ML0TK]
B
[M0LT0K]
C
[M0L0TK]
D
[MLTK]
Question 61Single Answer
The dimensional formula of wave number is
A
[M0L0T–1]
B
[M0L–1T0]
C
[M–1 L–1 T0]
D
[M0 L0 T0]
Question 62Single Answer
The dimensional of Hubble ‘s wave number is
A
[T–1]
B
[M0L0T–2]
C
[MLT4]
D
[MT–1]
Question 63Single Answer
The dimensions of solar constant is
A
[M0L0T0]
B
[MLT–2]
C
[ML²T–2]
D
MT–3
Question 64Single Answer
The dimensional formula for entropy is
A
[MLT–2K¹]
B
[ML2 T-2]
C
[ML²T–2K–1]
D
[ML²T–2K]
Question 65Single Answer
Dimension of specific heat are
A
[ML² T–2 K]
B
[ML² T–2 K–1]
C
[ML²T²K–1]
D
[L²T–2K–2]
Question 66Single Answer
The physical quantity which has the dimensional formula [M¹T–3] is
A
surface tension
B
solar constant
C
density
D
compressibility
Question 67Single Answer
Which one of the following elements is used as a timekeeper in atomic clocks ?
A
Potassium
B
Caesium
C
Calcium
D
Magnesium
Question 68Single Answer
Which one of the following is the value of one nanometer ?
A
10–7 cm
B
10–6 cm
C
10–4 cm
D
10–3 cm
Question 69Single Answer
What is the unit of pressure ?
A
Newton/sq. meter
B
Newton–meter
C
Newton
D
Newton/meter
Question 70Single Answer
The unit of pressure is
A
kg/cm²
B
kg/cm
C
kg/mm
D
kg/cm3
Question 71Single Answer
Which one of the following quantities doe not have unit ?
A
Stress
B
Force
C
Strain
D
Pressure
Question 72Single Answer
Dimensional formula for thermal conductivity is here K denotes the temperature:
A
MLT–2K
B
MLT–2K–2
C
MLT–3K
D
MLT–3K–1
Question 73Single Answer
Which of the following is the unit of molar gas constant ?
A
JK–1 mol–1
B
Joule
C
JK–1
D
J mol–1
Question 74Single Answer
Density of liquid is 16.8 g cm–3. Its value in the International System of Units is
A
16.8 kgm–3
B
168 kgm–3
C
1680 kgm–3
D
16800 kgm–3
Question 75Single Answer
The dimensional formula of couple is
A
[ML² T–2]
B
[MLT²]
C
[ML–1T–3]
D
[ML–2T–2]
Question 76Single Answer
Subtract 0.2 J from 7.26 J and express the result with correct number of significant figures.
A
7.1 J
B
7.06 J
C
7.0 J
D
7 J
Question 77Single Answer
Multiply 107.88 by 0610 and express the result with correct number of significant figures.
A
65.8068
B
65.807
C
65.81
D
65.8
Question 78Single Answer
When 97.52 is divided by 2.54, the correct result is
A
38.3937
B
38.394
C
38.39
D
38.4
Question 79Single Answer
Which of the following is the most accurate ?
A
200.0m
B
20 × 10¹ m
C
2×10²m
D
data is inadequate
Question 80Single Answer
The area of a square is 5.29 cm². The area of 7 such square taking into account the significant figures is:
A
37cm²
B
37.030 cm²
C
37.03 cm²
D
37.0 cm²
Chemistry
Question 81Single Answer
Which of the following is not a synthetic fibre:
A
Anygora
B
Rayon
C
Nylon
D
Polyster
Question 82Single Answer
Which one of the following is not contained in Portland cement ?
A
Ca3Al2O6
B
Ca3SiO5
C
Ca2SiO4
D
Ca3(PO4)2
Question 83Single Answer
What is the reson for white cement to be white ?
A
It does not contain carbon
B
It does not contain silicon
C
It does not contain iron
D
It does not contain calcium
Question 84Single Answer
Which fertilizer is assimilated directly by the plant ?
A
Super phosphate
B
Nitrolim
C
Muriate of Potash
D
Humus
Question 85Single Answer
Which of the following chemicals is used in foam fire extinguishers ?
A
Aluminium sulphate
B
Copper sulphate
C
Cobalt sulphate
D
Nickel sulphate
Question 86Single Answer
What is a mixture of potassium nitrate, powdered charcoal and sulphur called ?
A
Glass
B
Cement
C
paint
D
Gun powder
Question 87Single Answer
Which one of the following chemicals is used in beauty parlours for hair – setting ?
A
Sulphur based
B
Phosphorus based
C
Silicon based
D
Iron based
Question 88Single Answer
Which one of the following is used as a mordant in dyeing and tanning industry ?
A
Magnesium oxide
B
Magnesium carbonate
C
Magnesium chloride
D
Magnesium sulphate
Question 89Single Answer
Which one of the following substances is used in the manufacture of safety matches ?
A
Red phosphorus
B
White phosphorus
C
Phosphorus trioxide (P2O3)
D
Black phosphorus
Question 90Single Answer
Which one of the following polymeric materials is used for making bullet proof jacket ?
A
Nylon –6, 6
B
Rayon
C
Kevlar
D
Dacron
Question 91Single Answer
Which one of the following is another name of RDX
A
Cyanohydrin
B
Dextran
C
Cyclohexane
D
Cyclonite
Question 92Single Answer
Which one of the following is used as an explosive ?
A
Phosphorus trichloride
B
Mercuric oxide
C
Graphite
D
Nitroglycerine
Question 93Single Answer
Flint glass is obtained from which of the following ?
A
Zinc and barium borosilicate
B
Sand, red lead and potassium carbonate
C
Sodium aluminium borosilicate
D
Pure silica and zinc oxide
Question 94Single Answer
Which one of the following correctly defines the state of glass ?
A
Crystalline solid
B
Super cooled liquid
C
Condensed gas
D
Liquid crystal
Question 95Single Answer
Which one of the following is not used as fertilizer ?
A
Ammonium nitrate
B
Ammonium sulphide
C
Ammonium phosphate
D
Ammonium sulphate
Question 96Single Answer
Which one of the following elements is needed in the human body to transfer electrical signals by nerve cells ?
A
Lithium
B
Sodium
C
Rubidium
D
Caesium
Question 97Single Answer
Which one of the following is NOT true for bleaching powder ?
A
It is used as a reducing agent in chemical industries
B
It is used for bleaching wood pup in paper factories
C
It is used for disinfecting drinking water
D
It is used for bleaching linen in textile industry
Question 98Single Answer
Hard glass having the same ingredientsas soft glass excepts.
A
hard glass have Na in place of K
B
hard glass having K in place of Na
C
hard glass having both Na and K
D
None of the above
Question 99Single Answer
A complete fertilizer provides
A
N,P, K
B
S, K, N
C
S, B, K
D
N, S, P
Question 100Single Answer
Antacids are commonly used to get rid of acidity in the Stomach. A commonly used antacid is.
A
sodium hydrogen phthalate
B
magnesium hydroxide
C
calcium hydroxide
D
manganese acetate
Question 101Single Answer
Annealing of glass is done to.
A
make it brittle
B
make it opaque
C
make it transparent
D
None of the above
Question 102Single Answer
Petrochemicals are obtained from.
A
coal
B
petroleum
C
coal tar
D
All of these
Question 103Single Answer
The use of chemicals for treatment of diseases is called as.
A
isothermotherapy
B
angiotherapy
C
physiotherapy
D
chemotherapy
Question 104Single Answer
Which of the following is a hypnotic drug ?
A
luminal
B
salol
C
catechol
D
chemisol
Question 105Single Answer
Teflon is a polymer of which of the following monomers ?
A
Tetrafluoroethylene
B
Vinyl chloride
C
Acetylene dichloride
D
None of the above/More than one of the above
Question 106Single Answer
LPG used as domestic fuel chiefly contains–
A
Methane
B
Propane
C
Ethylene
D
Butane
E
None of the above/More than one of the above
Question 107Single Answer
Glass is a.
A
liquid
B
colloid
C
non–crystalline amorphous solid
D
crystalline solid
Question 108Single Answer
Which one of the following acids is used for etching glass ?
A
H2SO4
B
HNO3
C
HF
D
HCI
Question 109Single Answer
What is the purpose of adding plasticizers in paint manufacturing process ?
A
They act as a film–forming constituent
B
They reduce the viscosity
C
They prevent the polymerization and condensation
D
They provide elasticity to the film and minimize its cracking
Question 110Single Answer
Which raw material is used in the preperation of soft glass ?
A
K2CO3, SiO2, CaCO3
B
K2CO3, SiO2, PbCO3
C
Na2CO3, SiO2, CaCO3
D
Na2CO3, SiO2, PbO
Question 111Single Answer
What is the composition of nitrolim – a chemical fertilizer ?
A
Nitrogen and limestone
B
Calcium carbide and nitrogen
C
Calcium carbide and carbon
D
None of above
Question 112Single Answer
the major component used in preparation of different type of glasses is.
A
Silica
B
Sodium borate
C
Calcium silicate
D
Sodium silicate
Question 113Single Answer
Salts of which of the following elements provide colours to fireworks ?
A
Zinc and sulphur
B
Potassium and mercury
C
Strontium and barium
D
Chromium and nickel
Question 114Single Answer
Given below are two statements :
Statement I : Phenyl is used as a household germicide.
Statement II : Phenyl is phenol derivative and phenol is an effective germicide.
In the light of the above statement, choose the correct answer from the options given below:
A
Both Statement I and II are correct and Statement II is the correct explanation of Statement I
B
Both Statement I and Statement II are true but Statement II is NOT the correct explanation of Statement I
C
Statement I is correct, but Statement II is incorrect
D
Statement I is incorrect, but Statement II is correct
Question 115Single Answer
Given below are two statements :
Statement I : Coal–based thermal power stations contribute to acid–rain.
Statement II : Oxides of carbon are emitted when coal burns.
In the light of the above statement, choose the correct answer from the options given below:
A
Both Statement I and II are individually correct and Statement II is the correct explanation of Statement I
B
Both Statement I and Statement II are individiaully correct but Statement II is not the correct explanation of Statement I
C
Statement I is correct, but Statement II is incorrect
D
Statement I is incorrect, but Statement II is correct
Question 116Single Answer
Terfenadine is commonly used as a/an.
A
transquilizer
B
antihistamine
C
antimicrobial
D
antibiotic
Question 117Single Answer
Which one of the following is not a tranqualizer ?
A
Equanil
B
Veronal
C
Salvarsan
D
Serotonin
Question 118Single Answer
Barbituric acid and its derivatives are well known.
A
antipyretics
B
analgesics
C
antiseptics
D
tranquilizers
Question 119Single Answer
Which one among is not an analgesic ?
A
Ibuprofen
B
Naproxen
C
Aspirin
D
Valium
Question 120Single Answer
Various phenol derivatives, tincture of iodine (2 – 3%) I 2 in (water/alcohol) and some dyes like methylene blue are.
A
antiseptics
B
disinfectants
C
analgesics
D
antipyretics
Biology
Question 121Single Answer
Plant viruses usually contain :
A
RNA
B
DNA
C
DNA and RNA
D
DNA or RNA
Question 122Single Answer
Viruses were discovered by :
A
Stanley
B
Ivanowski
C
Twort
D
Herelle
Question 123Single Answer
Which statement best defines viruses?
A
Acellular infectious agents that replicate only inside living host cells
B
Cellular microorganisms containing only DNA
C
Free-living microorganisms capable of independent metabolism
D
Cellular microorganisms containing only RNA
Question 124Single Answer
Which infectious agents consist essentially of small, naked RNA molecules without a protein coat?
A
Virions
B
Prions
C
Viroids
D
Bacteriophages
Question 125Single Answer
Coliphage f X 174 contains :
A
double stranded RNA
B
single stranded DNA
C
double stranded DNA
D
single stranded RNA
Question 126Single Answer
Viruses differ from living organisms in that, they :
A
can grow inside a living host
B
can multiply inside a living host
C
can undergo mutation inside a living host
D
are non-cellular
Question 127Single Answer
Virus which attacks E.coli is called :
A
bacteriophage
B
coliphage
C
phytophage
D
zoophage
Question 128Single Answer
Which characteristic distinguishes viruses from cellular organisms?
A
They possess ribosomes for protein synthesis
B
They have independent energy metabolism
C
They are acellular and depend on host cells for replication
D
They reproduce by binary fission
Question 129Single Answer
The genome of a temperate bacteriophage integrated into the bacterial chromosome is termed as?
A
Prophage
B
Episome
C
Plasmid
D
Capsomere
Question 130Single Answer
Virus was crystallized and isolated first by :
A
J.D. Ivanowski
B
F.C. Bawden
C
W.M. Stanley
D
K.M. Smith
Question 131Single Answer
Little leaf disease of brinjal is primarily associated with which pathogen?
A
Phytoplasma
B
Begomovirus
C
Fungus
D
Viroid
Question 132Single Answer
Which approximate size range includes many of the smallest known conventional virus particles?
A
20–30 nm
B
100–150 nm
C
500–700 nm
D
1–2 µm
Question 133Single Answer
Which of the following is devoid of protein coat, with a constitution of RNA only ?
A
Tobacco mosaic virus
B
Poxvirus
C
Potato spindle tuber virus
D
None of the above
Question 134Single Answer
Genetic modification brought about by a virus in a bacteria is known as :
A
transformation
B
transduction
C
conjugation
D
candidiasis
Question 135Single Answer
Which property makes the classification of viruses as strictly living or non-living problematic?
A
They reproduce independently outside cells
B
They possess cellular organelles but lack DNA
C
They replicate in host cells but are metabolically inactive outside them
D
They perform independent respiration outside host cells
Question 136Single Answer
Influenza viruses contain which type of genetic material?
A
Double-stranded DNA
B
Single-stranded RNA
C
Single-stranded DNA
D
Double-stranded RNA
Question 137Single Answer
Edward Jenner is best known for pioneering vaccination against which disease?
A
Smallpox
B
Chickenpox
C
Rabies
D
Poliomyelitis
Question 138Single Answer
Roux Sarcoma virus contains :
A
RNA
B
DNA
C
DNA and RNA
D
None of these
Question 139Single Answer
Which of the following is a viral disease of potato ?
A
Early blight of potato
B
Late blight of potato
C
Leaf roll of potato
D
None of the above
Question 140Single Answer
The term Virus' has been derived from a Latin word meaning :
A
poison
B
secretion
C
cell
D
venom
Question 141Single Answer
What generally happens to contractile-vacuole activity when a freshwater Amoeba is transferred to a sufficiently hypertonic saline solution?
A
It increases rapidly
B
It remains unchanged
C
It decreases markedly or may cease
D
The vacuole divides repeatedly
Question 142Single Answer
What is the median adhesive pad located between the two terminal claws of a cockroach leg called?
A
Unguis
B
Arolium
C
Tibial spur
D
Cercus
Question 143Single Answer
The binomial system of Carolus Linnaeus was devoid of which of the following categories ?
A
Genus and species
B
Class and order
C
Phylum and family
D
Kingdom and class
Question 144Single Answer
The mouthparts of a cockroach are adapted primarily for which mode of feeding?
A
Biting and chewing
B
Piercing and sucking
C
Siphoning
D
Sponging
Question 145Single Answer
Which mosquito is the biological vector responsible for natural transmission of human malaria?
A
Male Culex
B
Female Culex
C
Female Aedes
D
Female Anopheles
Question 146Single Answer
Amniota group includes :
A
Aves and Reptiles
B
Pisces, Amphibia and Reptiles
C
Amphibia, Reptiles and Aves
D
Reptiles, Aves and Mammalia
Question 147Single Answer
Which combination correctly represents the principal mouthparts of a cockroach?
A
Labrum, mandibles, first maxillae, labium and hypopharynx
B
Labrum, antennae, tibia, labium and cerci
C
Mandibles, antennae, femur, maxillae and labium
D
Labrum, wings, mandibles, hypopharynx and tibia
Question 148Single Answer
In a typical winged insect, the two pairs of wings are borne on which thoracic segments?
A
Prothorax and mesothorax
B
Mesothorax and metathorax
C
Prothorax and metathorax
D
Prothorax and first abdominal segment
Question 149Single Answer
Which is true ?
A
Pisces, Reptiles and birds are poikilotherms
B
Pisces, Amphibians and Reptiles are Anamniota
C
Aves, Mammals and Reptiles are homeotherms
D
Reptiles, Aves and Mammais are Amniota
Question 150Single Answer
Which sequence correctly represents the general forward flow of haemolymph through the dorsal vessel of a cockroach?
What are the dorsal sclerites of the three thoracic segments of an insect collectively called?
A
Sterna
B
Pleura
C
Nota
D
Coxae
Question 152Single Answer
Amniotes do not include :
A
Amphibia
B
Reptiles
C
Birds
D
Mammals
Question 153Single Answer
Which vector transmits visceral leishmaniasis or kala-azar?
A
Glossina
B
Aedes
C
Pediculus
D
Phlebotomus
Question 154Single Answer
What are the corpora allata of a cockroach?
A
Excretory organs
B
Tactile organs
C
Endocrine glands
D
Digestive glands
Question 155Single Answer
The group amniota includes :
A
Reptiles and birds
B
Reptiles and mammals
C
Reptiles, birds and mammals
D
Birds and mammals
Question 156Single Answer
Wingless insects, with abdominal appendages in the adult, are put under the sub - class :
A
apterygota
B
pterygota
C
exopterygota
D
endopterygota
Question 157Single Answer
In cockroach, the type of metamorphosis is :
A
metabolus
B
hemimetabolus
C
paurometabolus
D
holometabolous
Question 158Single Answer
In which kingdom prokaryotic organisms were placed by Whittaker ?
A
Animalia
B
Plantae
C
Monera
D
Protista
Question 159Single Answer
Approximately how many eggs may a female Anopheles mosquito lay in a single batch?
A
5–20
B
50–200
C
300–500
D
More than 1,000
Question 160Single Answer
A dorsal sclerite of cockroach is called :
A
pleuron
B
plastrom
C
tergum
D
sternum
Mathematics
Question 161Single Answer
The elements of the set {x : x is an integer, x2 : 4} can be represent as .....Z..... . Here, Z refers to
A
{–2, 2}
B
{–1, 0, 1}
C
{–2, –1, 0, 1, 2}
D
{0, 1, 2}
Question 162Single Answer
A
B
C
D
None of these
Question 163Single Answer
If Y = {x : x is a positive factor of the number 2p – 1(2p – 1), where 2p – 1 is a prime number}, then Y can be represent in roster form as
A
{2}
B
{1, 2}
C
{1, 2, 22, ....., 2p – 1}
D
{1, 2, 22, 23,.... 2p – 1, (2p – 1)}
Question 164Single Answer
The set {x : x is a positive integer less than 6 and 3x – 1 is an even number} in roster form is
A
{1, 2, 3, 4, 5}
B
{1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6}
C
{2, 4, 6}
D
{1, 3, 5}
Question 165Single Answer
If A B and A B, then
A
A is called a proper subset of B
B
A is called a super set of B
C
A is not a subset of B
D
B is a subset of A
Question 166Single Answer
The number of non-empty subsets of the set{1, 2, 3, 4} is
A
15
B
14
C
16
D
17
Question 167Single Answer
The number of elements of the power set of a set containing m elements is
A
2m – 1
B
m
C
m2
D
2m
Question 168Single Answer
If A = {x : x = n2, n = 1, 2, 3}, then number of proper subsets is
A
3
B
8
C
7
D
None of these
Question 169Single Answer
If A = {x : x = 4n + 1, 2 £ n £ 5},then number of subsets of A is
A
16
B
15
C
4
D
None of these
Question 170Single Answer
Let A and B be two non-empty subsets of a set X such that A is not a subset of B, then
A
A is always a subset of the complement of B
B
B is always a subset of A
C
A and B are always disjoint
D
A and the complement of B are always non-disjoint
Question 171Single Answer
Which of the following is/are empty set?
A = {x : x2 + x + 1 = 0 and x Î Z} B = {x : x is a prime number and 19 < x < 23}
A
A
B
B
C
Both A and B
D
None of the above
Question 172Single Answer
The set {x : x4 = 1 and x R} is .....X.... set. Here, X refers to
A
empty
B
finite
C
infinite
D
singleton
Question 173Single Answer
The universal set for the sets
A = {x : x2 – 5x + 6 = 0} and
B = {x : x2 – 3x + 2 = 0} having least number of elements is
A
{1, 2}
B
{1, 3}
C
{1, 2, 3}
D
{0, 1, 2, 3}
Question 174Single Answer
If A = {1, 2, 3}, B = {x € R : x2 – 2x + 1 = 0},
C = {1, 2, 2, 3} and
D = {x € R : x3 – 6x2 + 11x – 6 = 0}, then the equal sets are
A
A and B
B
A and C
C
A, B and C
D
A, C and D
Question 175Single Answer
If A = (–3, 5) and B = [–7, 9], then
A
A = B
B
A B
C
B A
D
None of these
Question 176Single Answer
Two finite sets have m and n elements, respectively. The total number of subsets of first set is 56 more than the total number of subsets of the second set. The value of m and n respectively are
A
7, 6
B
5, 1
C
6, 3
D
8, 7
Question 177Single Answer
Combine terms: 12a + 26b - 4b – 16a .
A
4a + 22b
B
-28a + 30b
C
-4a + 22b
D
28a + 30b
Question 178Single Answer
The average of first 50 natural numbers is ………… .
A
25.30
B
25.5
C
25.00
D
12.25
Question 179Single Answer
60 Times of 8 Equals to
A
480
B
300
C
250
D
400
Question 180Single Answer
Consider the sets
A = {x : x is a real number and x2 + 1 = 0}
B = {x : x is a real number and x2 – 16 = 0}
C = {x : x is a real number and x2 = x + 2}
Which of the following is are null set ?
A
A
B
A and B
C
A and C
D
A, B and C
Question 181Single Answer
If X = {4n – 3n – 1: n Î N} and Y = {9(n – 1): n Î N}; where N is the set of natural numbers, then X È Y is equal to
A
N
B
Y – X
C
X
D
Y
Question 182Single Answer
Which of the following is / are correct?
I. {2, 3, 4} {1, 2, 3, 4, 5}
II. {a, b, c} {b, c, d}
III. {x : x is an equilateral triangle in a plane} Ì {x : x is a triangle in the same plane}
IV. {x : x is an even natural number} {x : x is an integer}
A
I and III are correct
B
II and III are correct
C
Only IV is correct
D
All above are correct
Question 183Single Answer
A
B
C
D
Question 184Single Answer
Consider the following statements :
1. The set of all irrational numbers between √2 and √5 is an infinite set .
2. The set of all odd integers less than 100 is a finite set .
Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
A
1 only
B
2 only
C
Both 1 and 2
D
Neither 1 nor 2
Question 185Single Answer
What is the Next Prime Number after 7 ?
A
13
B
12
C
14
D
11
Question 186Single Answer
If A and B are two given sets, then A (A B)C is equal to
A
A
B
B
C
D
Question 187Single Answer
121 Divided by 11 is
A
11
B
10
C
19
D
18
Question 188Single Answer
Let X be the universal set for sets A and B, if n(A) = 200, n(B) = 300 and n = 100, then n is equal to 300 provided n(X) is equal to
A
600
B
700
C
800
D
900
Question 189Single Answer
A
{3, 4, 10}
B
{2, 8, 10}
C
{4, 5, 6}
D
{3, 5, 14}
Question 190Single Answer
Let A = {x : x is a prime factor of 240} B = {x : x is the sum of any two prime factors of 240}, then
A
B
C
D
Question 191Single Answer
If A = {x : x is a multiple of 4 and x N} and B = {x : x is a multiple of 6 and x N}, then A B consists of all multiples of
A
16
B
12
C
8
D
4
Question 192Single Answer
A
A = B
B
B = C
C
A = C
D
None of these
Question 193Single Answer
A
equal
B
disjoint
C
either equal or disjoint
D
none of the above
Question 194Single Answer
A
{–i, i}
B
{–1, 1}
C
{–1, 1, i, –i}
D
None of these
Question 195Single Answer
If A = {x : f(x)= 0} and
B = {x : g(x) = 0}, then A B will be
A
[f(x)]2 + [g(x)]2 = 0
B
C
D
None of the above
Question 196Single Answer
In a group of 400 people, 250 can speak Hindi and 200 can speak English. Then, people who can speak both Hindi and English are
A
60
B
80
C
50
D
45
Question 197Single Answer
20 teachers of a school either teach Mathematics or Physics. 12 of them teach Mathematics while 4 teach both the subjects. The number of teacher teaching Physics only, is
A
12
B
8
C
16
D
20
Question 198Single Answer
In a class of 100 students, 70 have taken Science, 60 have taken Mathematics, 40 have taken both Science and Mathematics. The number of students who have not taken Science or Mathematics or both Science and Mathematics, is equal to
A
90
B
10
C
30
D
20
Question 199Single Answer
A market research group conducted a survey of 1000 consumers and reported that 720 consumers like product A and 450 consumers like the product B, then least number that must have like both products, is
A
730
B
170
C
180
D
1270
Question 200Single Answer
If there are three athletic teams in a school, 21 are in the basketball team, 26 in hockey team and 29 in the football team. 14 play hockey and basketball, 15 play hockey and football, 12 play football and basketball and 8 play all the games. The total number of members is
B and A
B, then
R} is .....X.... set. Here, X refers to
B 
A
(A 
= 100, then n
is equal to 300 provided n(X) is equal to
N} and B = {x : x is a multiple of 6 and x 
N}, then A 
B consists of all multiples of
B will be
