On-line teaching and face-to-face teaching both are effective
D
Face-to-face teaching is less effective than online teaching
Question 2Single Answer
In order to solve the problem of aimlessness in education, we should develop -
A
democratic citizenship
B
centralized education
C
education
D
reform the administrative set-up
Question 3Single Answer
If a student misbehaves with other students in the class, the teacher should -
A
report the matter to the parents
B
punish him at the time of the morning assembly in the school
C
deal with him with sympathetic understanding
D
treat him with sympathy and understanding
Question 4Single Answer
How can a failed student be encouraged to study sincerely in the same class?
A
by teacher’s counseling
B
by psychological counseling
C
by guardian’s counseling
D
by Students’ Association
Question 5Single Answer
Our examination system is -
A
defective
B
without any defect
C
in the interest of the students
D
well-planned
Question 6Single Answer
Which Article in the Constitution deals with elementary education ?
A
Article 45
B
Article 370
C
Article 19
D
Article 226
Question 7Single Answer
For physically handicapped student of the school, there should be
A
proper facility for entering the class-room and toilet
B
proper arrangement for his food and lodging
C
arrangement for his free education
D
an arrangement for necessary equipments
Question 8Single Answer
A naughty student in the class is
A
foolish and dull
B
active and intelligent
C
unadjusted and unappreciated
D
rich and careless
Question 9Single Answer
Why is syllabus necessary in school ?
A
It helps in the proper functioning of the school
B
It makes the classroom education under control
C
A teacher can rule every work outside the class in a proper manner
D
All of the above are possible
Question 10Single Answer
If a seminar or conference is being conducted in your city concerning education, what will you do ?
A
I will take part in it without the permission of the Principal
B
I shall seek the permission of the Principal
C
I shall take leave from the school
D
I shall take no interest in it
Question 11Single Answer
How will you evaluate a student on the basis of the question paper type ?
A
On the basis of objective type questions
B
Essay type questions
C
Short answer type questions
D
All of the above
Question 12Single Answer
In order to make teaching more effective in the class, what would be done?
A
After the teaching, same type of questions should be given to the students for practice
B
Home-work should be given frequently
C
Home-work should be given now and them
D
After school hours, same type of questions should be got solved from the students
Question 13Single Answer
Why did you adopt teaching profession ?
A
Your parents wanted it
B
At the advice of your friend
C
No member in your family is in this profession
D
You have interest in it
Question 14Single Answer
You will pay need to such persons who are
A
very intelligent
B
very weak in studies
C
your relatives
D
well - behaved
Question 15Single Answer
In order to become skillful in his job, a teacher
A
should study new books on his subject
B
should take part in the debates of the school
C
should write on his subject
D
All of the above
Question 16Single Answer
Why step will you take to make your students health ?
A
Make the parents aware of the importance of good health
B
Organise debate on the importance of good health
C
Give them training regarding health
D
Give examples of healthy students
Question 17Single Answer
A teacher impresses his students
A
by showing his authority and dominance
B
by his regularity in teaching
C
by misbehaving with his students
D
by indulging in gossip with the students
Question 18Single Answer
If you fail to complete your syllabus in time, what will you do ?
A
Take extra classes to complete the syllabus
B
Leave the syllabus incomplete
C
Teach selected questions out of the remaining syllabus
D
Ask the students to complete the syllabus themselves
Question 19Single Answer
If you are the administrator of the school. In your school, irregularities are on the rise.
A
Coordination between Managing Committee, Principal, Teachers and Students
B
Solve problems of students
C
Solve problems of teachers
D
Impose severe punishment
Question 20Single Answer
Should student be allowed to ask questions in the class ?
A
No
B
Yes
C
Sometimes
D
As per the wish of the teacher
Question 21Single Answer
Which is the main objective of research?
A
To review the literature
B
To summarize what is already known
C
To get an academic degree
D
To discover new facts or to make fresh interpretation of known facts
Question 22Single Answer
Sampling error decreases with the
A
decrease in sample size
B
increase in sample size
C
process of randomization
D
process of analysis
Question 23Single Answer
The principles of fundamental research are used in
A
action research
B
applied research
C
philosophical research
D
historical research
Question 24Single Answer
Users who use media for their own ends are indentified as
A
Passive audience
B
Active audience
C
Positive audience
D
Negative audience
Question 25Single Answer
Classroom communication can be described as
A
Exploration
B
Institutionalisation
C
Unsignified narration
D
Discourse
Question 26Single Answer
Ideological codes shape our collective
A
Productions
B
Perceptions
C
Consumptions
D
Creations
Question 27Single Answer
In communication, myths have power, but are
A
Uncultural.
B
Insignificant.
C
imprecise.
D
Unpreferred.
Question 28Single Answer
The first multi-lingual news agency of India was
A
Samachar
B
API
C
Hindustan Samachar
D
Samachar Bharati
Question 29Single Answer
Organisational communication can also be equated with
A
intra-personal communication
B
inter-personal communication
C
group communication
D
mass communication
Question 30Single Answer
If two propositions having the same subject and predicate terms are such that one is the denial of the other, the relationship between them is called
A
Contradictory
B
Contrary
C
Sub-contrary
D
Sub-alternation
Question 31Single Answer
Ananya and Krishna can speak and follow English. Bulbul can write and speak. Hindi as Archana does. Archana talks with Ananya also in Bengali. Krishna can not follow Bengali. Bulbul talks with Ananya in Hindi. Who can speak and follow English, Hindi and Bengali?
A
Archana
B
Bulbul
C
Ananya
D
Krishna
Question 32Single Answer
A stipulative definition may be said to be
A
Always true
B
Always false
C
Sometimes true, sometimes false
D
Neither true nor false
Question 33Single Answer
Which one of the following references is written as per Modern Language Association (MLA) format?
A
Hall, Donald. Fundamentals of Electronics, New Delhi : Prentice Hall of India, 2006
B
Hall, Donald, Fundamentals of Electronics, New Delhi : Prentice Hall of India, 2003
C
Hall, Donald. Fundamentals of Electronics, New Delhi : Prentice Hall of India, 2002
D
Hall, Donald. Fundamentals of Electronics. New Delhi : Prentice Hall of India, 2005
Question 34Single Answer
When the conclusion of an argument follows from its premise/premises conclusively, the argument is called
A
Circular argument
B
Inductive argument
C
Deductive argument
D
Analogical argument
Question 35Single Answer
A workshop is
A
a conference for discussion on a topic.
B
a meeting for discussion on a topic.
C
a class at a college or a university in which a teacher and the students discuss a topic.
D
a brief intensive course for a small group emphasizing the development of a skill or technique for solving a specific problem.
Question 36Single Answer
A working hypothesis is
A
a proven hypothesis for an argument.
B
not required to be tested.
C
a provisionally accepted hypothesis for further research.
D
a scientific theory.
Question 37Single Answer
Saturn and Mars are planets like the earth. They borrow light from the Sun and moves around the Sun as the Earth does. So those planets are inhabited by various orders of creatures as the earth is. What type of argument is contained in the above passage?
A
Deductive
B
Astrological
C
Analogical
D
Mathematical
Question 38Single Answer
Given below are two premises. Four conclusions are drawn from those two premises in four codes. Select the code that states the conclusion validly drawn.
All saints are religious. (major)
Some honest persons are saints.(minor)Codes:
A
Codes:
All saints are hones.
B
Some saints are honest.
C
Some honest persons are religious.
D
All religious persons are honest.
Question 39Single Answer
In the process of communication, which one of the following is in chronological order?
A
Communicator, Medium, Receiver, Effect, Message
B
Medium, Communicator, Message, Receiver, Effect
C
Communicator, Message, Medium, Receiver, Effect
D
Message, Communicator, Medium, Receiver, Effect
Question 40Single Answer
Bengal Gazette, the first Newspaper in India was started in 1780 by
A
Dr. Annie Besant
B
James Augustus Hicky
C
Lord Cripson
D
A.O. Hume
Question 41Single Answer
Press censorship in India was imposed during the tenure of the Prime Minister
A
Rajeev Gandhi
B
Narasimha Rao
C
Indira Gandhi
D
Deve Gowda
Question 42Single Answer
Communication via New media such as computers, teleshopping, internet and mobile telephony is termed as
A
Entertainment
B
Interactive communication
C
Developmental communication
D
Communitarian
Question 43Single Answer
Classroom communication of a teacher rests on the principle of
A
Infotainment
B
Edutainment
C
Entertainment
D
Enlightenment
Question 44Single Answer
Identify the region that has shown hyper growth rate of foreign tourist arrivals than the growth rate of the total FTAs in India in 2008.
A
Western Europe
B
North America
C
South Asia
D
East Asia
Question 45Single Answer
____ is important when a teacher communicates with his her student.
A
Sympathy
B
Empathy
C
Apathy
D
Antipathy
Question 46Single Answer
In a certain code GALIB is represented by HBMJC. TIGER will be represented by
A
UJHFS
B
UHJSF
C
JHUSF
D
HUJSF
Question 47Single Answer
In a certain cricket tournament 45 matches were played. Each team played once against each of the other teams. The number of teams participated in the tournament is
A
8
B
10
C
12
D
14
Question 48Single Answer
The missing number in the series 40, 120, 60, 180, 90, ?, 135 is
A
110
B
270
C
105
D
210
Question 49Single Answer
The post-industrial society is designated as
A
Information society
B
Technology society
C
Mediated society
D
Non-agricultural society
Question 50Single Answer
The initial efforts for internet based communication was for
A
Commercial communication
B
Military purposes
C
Personal interaction
D
Political campaigns
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Law
Question 51Single Answer
A. Government of India Act 1858 control 1. Absolute imperial
B.Indian Councils Act 1861 2.Non official members in executive council
C. Indian Council 3.Separate representation of Muslim community Act1909
D. Government of 4.Dyarchy in the India Act 1919 provinces
A
A B C D
2 3 1 4
B
4 1 2 3
C
3 4 1 2
D
1 2 3 4
Question 52Single Answer
Which of the following is/are the principal features of the government of India Act 1919?
1. Introduction of diarchy in the executive government of the provinces.
2. Introduction of separate communal electorate for Muslims.
3. Devolution of legislative authority by the centre to the provinces.
4. Expansion and reconstitution of central and provincial legislatures.
A
1, 2 and 3
B
1, 2 and 4
C
2, 3 and 4
D
1, 3 and 4
Question 53Single Answer
Consider the following statements:
The Indian constitution is
1. Unwritten constitution
2. Written constitution
3. Largely based on government of India
Act, 1935
A
1 and 2 are correct
B
2 and 3 are correct
C
1 and 3 are correct
D
None of the above
Question 54Single Answer
What is the main objective of the Specific Relief Act, 1963, in India ?
A
To provide compensation to the injured party
B
To provide a specific remedy for breach of contract
C
To punish the defaulting party
D
To create a new contract
Question 55Single Answer
Which court in India has jurisdiction to grant specific relief under the Specific Relief Act ?
A
Supreme Court of India
B
High Court
C
District Court
D
Any court of competent jurisdiction
Question 56Single Answer
In cases of breach of contract, what is the primary remedy provided under the Specific Relief Act ?
A
Damages
B
Rescission
C
Specific performance
D
Restitution
Question 57Single Answer
Hindu Law is
A
Civil Law
B
Personal Law
C
Constitutional Law
D
Criminal Law
Question 58Single Answer
Who amongst the following had said while defining the Hindu law that "Hindu Law is law of Smritis" ?
A
Derret
B
Salmond
C
Maine
D
K.P. Rangaswami
Question 59Single Answer
Who among the following is known as founder of Hindu Law ?
A
Narad
B
Manu
C
Yajnavalkya
D
Vigyaneswara
Question 60Single Answer
In respect of family relations, the law applicable in India is
A
Secular law in India
B
Statutory law
C
Religious law
D
Personal law of the parties
Question 61Single Answer
Under the Muslim Law, marriage is regarded as a -
A
Sacrament
B
Contract
C
Social need
D
Tradition
Question 62Single Answer
A muslim goes to any country of the world -
A
With his personal law
B
Without his personal law
C
Leaving his personal law in his country
D
With an object of obeying the laws of the country concern which includes personal law
Question 63Single Answer
Which Act gave separate electorate rights to Muslims in India ?
A
The Indian Councils Act, 1909
B
The Government of India Act, 1915
C
The Government of India Act, 1919
D
The Government of India Act, 1935
Question 64Single Answer
Which one of the following made the Indian Legislature bicameral ?
A
The Indian Councils Act, 1909
B
Government of India Act, 1919
C
Government of India Act, 1935
D
Indian Independence Act, 1947
Question 65Single Answer
'Diarchy' was established in India by which of the following ?
A
The Indian Councils Act, 1909
B
The Government of India Act, 1935
C
The Government of India Act, 1919
D
None of the above
Question 66Single Answer
Which one of the following aimed at providing a federal structure for India ?
A
Indian Councils Act, 1909
B
Government of India Act, 1919
C
Government of India Act, 1935
D
Indian Independence Act, 1947
Question 67Single Answer
As a guardian of the government of India Act, 1935 a Court was constituted which was called.
A
Privy Council
B
Supreme Court
C
High Court
D
Federal Court
Question 68Single Answer
Under the Government of India Act 1935, the Federal court had -
A
Original jurisdiction only
B
Appellate jurisdiction only
C
Advisory jurisdiction only
D
Original, appellate and advisory jurisdiction
Question 69Single Answer
Under the Government of India's Act 1935, how many Governors and Chief Commissioners provinces constituted in British India ?
A
14 and 7
B
11 and 7
C
15 and 9
D
None of the above
Question 70Single Answer
The Mountbaten plan led to the enactment of :
A
Government of India Act, 1919
B
Government of India Act, 1935
C
The Indian Independence Act, 1947
D
None of the above
Question 71Single Answer
The word 'Tort' has been derived and has its origin in :
A
Freanc Language
B
Latin Language
C
Romon Language
D
None of the above
Question 72Single Answer
The word 'Tort' has been derived from the Latin word
A
Tortus
B
Tortum
C
Torrent
D
Torture
Question 73Single Answer
The law of torts is based on :
A
Indian penal code
B
separate statute
C
Judicial decision
D
civil procedure code
Question 74Single Answer
The Specific Relief act, 1963 was enacted on
A
11th December, 1963
B
14th December, 1963
C
21stDecember, 1963
D
13th December, 1963
Question 75Single Answer
Specific Relief Act, 1963, came into operation on -
A
December 14, 1963
B
January 1, 1964
C
Febuary1, 1964
D
March 1, 1964
Question 76Single Answer
An instrument is not "settlement" under the Specific Relief Act
A
wherebyan interest in the property is devolved by a will
B
whereby devolution of an interest in a movable property is disposed of
C
whereby devolution of successive interests in an immovable property is disposed of
D
whereby devolution of interest in an immovable property is only agreed to be disposed of
Question 77Single Answer
The concept of 'trusts' originated in"
A
France
B
Germany
C
England
D
Rome
Question 78Single Answer
Who gave the following comment? "Trust is the very centre and kernel of equity"
A
Bacon
B
Story
C
Snell
D
Hanbury
Question 79Single Answer
The term ces-tui que trust was sued by -
A
Queen's Court
B
High Court
C
Court of Equity
D
None of the above
Question 80Single Answer
The Negotiable Instruments Act, 1881, deals primarily with:
A
Contracts
B
Property
C
Negotiable instruments
D
Company law
Question 81Single Answer
Which of the following is not considered a negotiable instrument?
A
Cheque
B
Bill of exchange
C
Promissory note
D
Contract
Question 82Single Answer
A negotiable instrument must be:
A
Signed by the payee
B
In writing
C
Not transferable
D
Executed in duplicate
Question 83Single Answer
The Motor Vehicle Act, 1988, primarily regulates:
A
Public transportation
B
Road safety and traffic rules
C
Vehicle manufacturing
D
Fuel consumption
Question 84Single Answer
Under the Motor Vehicle Act, 1988, the term 'motor vehicle' includes:
A
Bicycles
B
Tractors
C
Pedestrian vehicles
D
None of the above
Question 85Single Answer
The Motor Vehicle Act, 1988, mandates the use of helmets for:
A
All road users
B
Only two-wheeler riders
C
Four-wheeler drivers
D
None of the above
Question 86Single Answer
A contract is defined as:
A
An agreement enforceable by law
B
A mutual understanding between parties
C
A promise without consideration
D
A legal obligation without agreement
Question 87Single Answer
Which of the following is NOT an essential element of a valid contract?
A
Offer and acceptance
B
Free consent
C
Registration
D
Lawful consideration
Question 88Single Answer
The consideration in a contract must be:
A
Adequate
B
Lawful
C
Uncertain
D
Personal
Question 89Single Answer
What is the definition of a company under the Companies Act, 2013?
A
A body corporate formed under a partnership agreement.
B
A legal entity formed by two or more persons to carry out business.
C
A company incorporated under the laws of a foreign country.
D
A business entity recognized by the government.
Question 90Single Answer
Which of the following is a type of company classification?
A
Private company
B
Public company
C
Limited liability partnership (LLP)
D
All of the above
Question 91Single Answer
What is the first step in the process of company incorporation?
A
Filing the Memorandum of Association
B
Appointment of directors
C
Name approval from the Registrar of Companies (RoC)
D
Drafting Articles of Association
Question 92Single Answer
Which one of the following Law Commissions made the draft of Transfer or Property Act ?
A
First Law Commission
B
Second Law Commission
C
Third Law Commission
D
Fourt Law Commission
Question 93Single Answer
Before commencement of the Transfer of Property Act-1882, the transfer of immovable property in India was governed by the
A
Indian Registration Act, 1908
B
Principles of English Law and Equity
C
British Sale of Goods Act, 1880
D
Indian Contract Act, 1972
Question 94Single Answer
The Transfer of Property Act was enacted in the year
A
1883
B
1882
C
1881
D
1880
Question 95Single Answer
The Indian Contract Act, 1872 became operative from the date of
A
25th April 1872
B
25th May 1872
C
1st September, 1872
D
18th September, 1872
Question 96Single Answer
The India Contract Act, 1872 extends to
A
The whole of India
B
The whole of India except the state of Jammu & Kashmir
C
The whole of India except the state of Jammu & Kashmir, Nagaland and Sikkim
D
None of the above
Question 97Single Answer
The Interpretation clause of the Indian Contract Act, 1872 has been provided in
A
Section 1
B
Section 2
C
Section 3
D
Under none of the above
Question 98Single Answer
When did the Sale of Goods Act, 1930 come into force?
A
1st January 1930
B
1st July 1930
C
1st September 1930
D
1st December 1930
Question 99Single Answer
Which law governs the sale of movable property in India?
A
Transfer of Property Act, 1882
B
Sale of Goods Act, 1930
C
Indian Contract Act, 1872
D
Indian Partnership Act, 1932
Question 100Single Answer
A contract of sale may be:
A
Oral
B
Written
C
Partly oral and partly written
D
All of the above
Question 101Single Answer
Which of the following is not considered a primary source of international law?
A
Treaties
B
Customs
C
General Principles of Law
D
Judicial Decisions
Question 102Single Answer
The primary sources of international law are mentioned in which article of the ICJ Statute?
A
Article 38
B
Article 51
C
Article 1
D
Article 14
Question 103Single Answer
Treaties are also known as:
A
International conventions
B
International obligations
C
International contracts
D
International protocols
Question 104Single Answer
The principle of 'Audi alteram partem' ensures:
A
Right to self-defense
B
Right to be heard
C
Right to be silent
D
Right to reject a judgment
Question 105Single Answer
'Nemo judex in causa sua' means:
A
No one should be a judge in their own case
B
Justice delayed is justice denied
C
No one should be deprived of natural justice
D
Everyone should be heard equally
Question 106Single Answer
Which of the following is a fundamental rule of natural justice?
A
Bias should not be present in decision-making
B
The principle of res judicata should be followed
C
The principle of strict liability should apply
D
Administrative decisions should not be reviewed
Question 107Single Answer
What does the term "environment" broadly encompass?
A
Only natural elements
B
Only man-made elements
C
The totality of man's surroundings, both natural and man-made
D
Only biological factors
Question 108Single Answer
What is environmental pollution?
A
Natural changes in the environment
B
Contamination of the environment by pollutants
C
Weather changes
D
Seasonal variations
Question 109Single Answer
Which of the following is a type of environmental pollution?
A
Photosynthesis
B
Water pollution
C
Seed germination
D
Evaporation
Question 110Single Answer
What is the primary purpose of comparative law?
A
To promote national legal systems
B
To understand and analyze different legal systems
C
To create a uniform global legal system
D
To replace domestic law
Question 111Single Answer
Which methodology is commonly used in comparative law?
A
Historical analysis only
B
Functional analysis
C
Statistical analysis only
D
Philosophical analysis only
Question 112Single Answer
What is a key problem in comparative law?
A
Overemphasis on similarities
B
Difficulty in translating legal concepts
C
Lack of available legal systems
D
Too much focus on domestic law
Question 113Single Answer
"Judges not only discover law but they also made law."
Who among the following was supporter of this view?
A
Gray
B
Diecy
C
Salmond
D
Blackstone
Question 114Single Answer
"Jurisprudence is concerned primarily with the effects of law upon society and only to a lesser extent with questions about the social determination of law." Who said it?
A
Roscoe Pound
B
Eugen Ehrlich
C
Emile Durkheeim
D
Max Weber
Question 115Single Answer
Law according to Joseph Raz is a:
A
Social engineering
B
Social fact
C
Political principle
D
Normative science
Question 116Single Answer
Can a minor sue their guardian for mismanagement of property?
A
No, not until they reach a certain age
B
Yes, upon attaining majority
C
Only if the guardian consents
D
Only if relatives agree
Question 117Single Answer
What is the legal position of a guardian's actions that are beyond their authority?
A
They are valid
B
They can be challenged
C
They are automatically ratified
D
They are automatically transferred to the government
Question 118Single Answer
Can a guardian use the minor's property for their own benefit?
A
Yes, always
B
No, unless authorized by the court
C
Only if the minor is above 16
D
Only if relatives agree
Question 119Single Answer
Section 43 of the Information Technology Act, 2000 deals with:
A
Punishment for cyber terrorism.
B
Penalty and compensation for damage to computer, computer system, etc.
C
Punishment for publishing obscene material.
D
Compensation for failure to protect data.
Question 120Single Answer
Under Section 43 of the IT Act, 2000, what can be imposed for damaging a computer system without permission?
A
Imprisonment only.
B
Fine only.
C
Penalty and compensation to the affected person.
D
Both imprisonment and fine.
Question 121Single Answer
Section 43A of the Information Technology Act, 2000 pertains to:
A
Tampering with computer source documents.
B
Punishment for identity theft.
C
Compensation for failure to protect sensitive personal data or information.
D
Punishment for cyber terrorism.
Question 122Single Answer
What permit is required for driving a vehicle temporarily abroad under Chapter IX?
A
International driving permit
B
Local driving license
C
Vehicle registration certificate
D
Insurance policy
Question 123Single Answer
What does Chapter IX regulate for vehicles visiting India?
A
Local registration
B
Foreign registered vehicles
C
Emission standards
D
Speed limits
Question 124Single Answer
What is allowed under Chapter IX for vehicles leaving India temporarily?
A
Exemption from taxes
B
Use with international permits
C
No insurance requirement
D
Local registration
Question 125Single Answer
What is the official name of the legislation that replaced the Indian Penal Code, 1860?
A
Bharatiya Penal Code, 2023
B
Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023
C
Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023
D
Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita, 2023
Question 126Single Answer
When did the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023 receive presidential assent?
A
August 11, 2023
B
December 12, 2023
C
December 25, 2023
D
July 1, 2024
Question 127Single Answer
On which date did the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023 come into force?
A
December 25, 2023
B
January 1, 2024
C
July 1, 2024
D
August 15, 2024
Question 128Single Answer
What is the primary purpose of the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023?
A
To regulate civil disputes
B
To consolidate and amend laws relating to offences
C
To reform tax laws
D
To update family laws
Question 129Single Answer
How many sections does the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023 contain?
A
511
B
358
C
400
D
300
Question 130Single Answer
How many chapters are there in the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023?
A
23
B
20
C
25
D
18
Question 131Single Answer
Which of the following offences was removed from the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023?
A
Theft
B
Sedition
C
Robbery
D
Murder
Question 132Single Answer
What new offence was introduced in the BNS to address acts endangering India’s sovereignty?
A
Treason
B
Subversive activities
C
Sedition
D
Rebellion
Question 133Single Answer
What is the primary purpose of intellectual property rights (IPRs)?
A
Protect creations of the mind
B
Restrict creativity
C
Limit economic development
D
Prohibit innovation
Question 134Single Answer
Which of the following is not a type of IPR?
A
Copyright
B
Real estate
C
Trademarks
D
Patents
Question 135Single Answer
Which IPR protects the expression of ideas in literary, artistic, or musical form?
A
Patents
B
Copyright
C
Trademarks
D
Designs
Question 136Single Answer
What is the primary function of a trademark?
A
Protect inventions
B
Safeguard geographical indications
C
Protect plant varieties
D
Identify and distinguish goods/services
Question 137Single Answer
Which IPR is associated with innovations and inventions?
A
Copyright
B
Geographical Indications
C
Patents
D
Trade Secrets
Question 138Single Answer
What does a Geographical Indication (GI) protect?
A
Industrial designs
B
Sound recordings
C
Literary works
D
Products with specific geographical origins
Question 139Single Answer
Which IPR protects confidential business information?
A
Copyright
B
Trademarks
C
Trade Secrets
D
Designs
Question 140Single Answer
What is the primary purpose of establishing parentage in Muslim Law?
A
To determine the child's education
B
To assign guardianship only
C
To decide the child's marital status
D
To establish lineage and inheritance rights
Question 141Single Answer
Who is considered the father of a child born within a valid marriage under Muslim Law?
A
The husband of the mother
B
The mother's brother
C
The child's guardian
D
The mother's father
Question 142Single Answer
What is the status of a child born during a valid marriage in Muslim Law?
A
Illegitimate
B
Legitimate
C
Acknowledged
D
Disowned
Question 143Single Answer
Can a child born in an irregular marriage be considered legitimate under Muslim Law?
A
No, never
B
Only if acknowledged by the mother
C
Yes, if the marriage is not void
D
Only if the child is male
Question 144Single Answer
What is meant by "acknowledgement" in Muslim Law?
A
A formal adoption process
B
Registering a child with authorities
C
A man acknowledging a child as his own without proof of paternity
D
Naming a child after the father
Question 145Single Answer
Under Muslim Law, when can a man acknowledge a child as his own?
A
Only if the child is an adult
B
Only if the child is born in a void marriage
C
In the absence of proof of paternity
D
Only with the mother's consent
Question 146Single Answer
What is the effect of a valid acknowledgement of paternity in Muslim Law?
A
It cancels the mother's rights
B
It changes the child's religion
C
It makes the child a guardian
D
It grants the child inheritance rights
Question 147Single Answer
Who can acknowledge a child under Muslim Law?
A
Only the child's father
B
Any relative of the child
C
The child's mother
D
The child's guardian
Question 148Single Answer
What is the Latin origin of the term "jurisprudence" used in Indian legal studies?
A
Juris + Prudentia
B
Juris + Scientia
C
Lex + Prudentia
D
Juris + Ethica
Question 149Single Answer
What does "juris" mean in the context of jurisprudence as studied in India?
A
Justice
B
Knowledge
C
Law
D
Morality
Question 150Single Answer
What does "prudentia" signify in the term jurisprudence in Indian legal philosophy?