To discover new facts or to make fresh interpretation of known facts
Question 2Single Answer
Sampling error decreases with the
A
decrease in sample size
B
increase in sample size
C
process of randomization
D
process of analysis
Question 3Single Answer
The principles of fundamental research are used in
A
action research
B
applied research
C
philosophical research
D
historical research
Question 4Single Answer
Users who use media for their own ends are indentified as
A
Passive audience
B
Active audience
C
Positive audience
D
Negative audience
Question 5Single Answer
Classroom communication can be described as
A
Exploration
B
Institutionalisation
C
Unsignified narration
D
Discourse
Question 6Single Answer
Ideological codes shape our collective
A
Productions
B
Perceptions
C
Consumptions
D
Creations
Question 7Single Answer
In communication, myths have power, but are
A
Uncultural.
B
Insignificant.
C
imprecise.
D
Unpreferred.
Question 8Single Answer
The first multi-lingual news agency of India was
A
Samachar
B
API
C
Hindustan Samachar
D
Samachar Bharati
Question 9Single Answer
Organisational communication can also be equated with
A
intra-personal communication
B
inter-personal communication
C
group communication
D
mass communication
Question 10Single Answer
If two propositions having the same subject and predicate terms are such that one is the denial of the other, the relationship between them is called
A
Contradictory
B
Contrary
C
Sub-contrary
D
Sub-alternation
Question 11Single Answer
Ananya and Krishna can speak and follow English. Bulbul can write and speak. Hindi as Archana does. Archana talks with Ananya also in Bengali. Krishna can not follow Bengali. Bulbul talks with Ananya in Hindi. Who can speak and follow English, Hindi and Bengali?
A
Archana
B
Bulbul
C
Ananya
D
Krishna
Question 12Single Answer
A stipulative definition may be said to be
A
Always true
B
Always false
C
Sometimes true, sometimes false
D
Neither true nor false
Question 13Single Answer
Which one of the following references is written as per Modern Language Association (MLA) format?
A
Hall, Donald. Fundamentals of Electronics, New Delhi : Prentice Hall of India, 2006
B
Hall, Donald, Fundamentals of Electronics, New Delhi : Prentice Hall of India, 2003
C
Hall, Donald. Fundamentals of Electronics, New Delhi : Prentice Hall of India, 2002
D
Hall, Donald. Fundamentals of Electronics. New Delhi : Prentice Hall of India, 2005
Question 14Single Answer
When the conclusion of an argument follows from its premise/premises conclusively, the argument is called
A
Circular argument
B
Inductive argument
C
Deductive argument
D
Analogical argument
Question 15Single Answer
A workshop is
A
a conference for discussion on a topic.
B
a meeting for discussion on a topic.
C
a class at a college or a university in which a teacher and the students discuss a topic.
D
a brief intensive course for a small group emphasizing the development of a skill or technique for solving a specific problem.
Question 16Single Answer
A working hypothesis is
A
a proven hypothesis for an argument.
B
not required to be tested.
C
a provisionally accepted hypothesis for further research.
D
a scientific theory.
Question 17Single Answer
Saturn and Mars are planets like the earth. They borrow light from the Sun and moves around the Sun as the Earth does. So those planets are inhabited by various orders of creatures as the earth is. What type of argument is contained in the above passage?
A
Deductive
B
Astrological
C
Analogical
D
Mathematical
Question 18Single Answer
Given below are two premises. Four conclusions are drawn from those two premises in four codes. Select the code that states the conclusion validly drawn.
All saints are religious. (major)
Some honest persons are saints.(minor)Codes:
A
Codes:
All saints are hones.
B
Some saints are honest.
C
Some honest persons are religious.
D
All religious persons are honest.
Question 19Single Answer
In the process of communication, which one of the following is in chronological order?
A
Communicator, Medium, Receiver, Effect, Message
B
Medium, Communicator, Message, Receiver, Effect
C
Communicator, Message, Medium, Receiver, Effect
D
Message, Communicator, Medium, Receiver, Effect
Question 20Single Answer
Bengal Gazette, the first Newspaper in India was started in 1780 by
A
Dr. Annie Besant
B
James Augustus Hicky
C
Lord Cripson
D
A.O. Hume
Question 21Single Answer
Press censorship in India was imposed during the tenure of the Prime Minister
A
Rajeev Gandhi
B
Narasimha Rao
C
Indira Gandhi
D
Deve Gowda
Question 22Single Answer
Communication via New media such as computers, teleshopping, internet and mobile telephony is termed as
A
Entertainment
B
Interactive communication
C
Developmental communication
D
Communitarian
Question 23Single Answer
Classroom communication of a teacher rests on the principle of
A
Infotainment
B
Edutainment
C
Entertainment
D
Enlightenment
Question 24Single Answer
Identify the region that has shown hyper growth rate of foreign tourist arrivals than the growth rate of the total FTAs in India in 2008.
A
Western Europe
B
North America
C
South Asia
D
East Asia
Question 25Single Answer
____ is important when a teacher communicates with his her student.
A
Sympathy
B
Empathy
C
Apathy
D
Antipathy
Question 26Single Answer
In a certain code GALIB is represented by HBMJC. TIGER will be represented by
A
UJHFS
B
UHJSF
C
JHUSF
D
HUJSF
Question 27Single Answer
In a certain cricket tournament 45 matches were played. Each team played once against each of the other teams. The number of teams participated in the tournament is
A
8
B
10
C
12
D
14
Question 28Single Answer
The missing number in the series 40, 120, 60, 180, 90, ?, 135 is
A
110
B
270
C
105
D
210
Question 29Single Answer
The post-industrial society is designated as
A
Information society
B
Technology society
C
Mediated society
D
Non-agricultural society
Question 30Single Answer
The initial efforts for internet based communication was for
A
Commercial communication
B
Military purposes
C
Personal interaction
D
Political campaigns
Question 31Single Answer
The odd numbers from 1 to 45 which are exactly divisible by 3 are arranged in an ascending order. The number at 6th position is
A
18
B
24
C
33
D
36
Question 32Single Answer
Internal communication within institutions is done through
A
LAN
B
WAN
C
EBB
D
MMS
Question 33Single Answer
Virtual reality provides
A
Sharp pictures
B
Individual audio
C
Participatory experience
D
Preview of new films
Question 34Single Answer
The first virtual university of India came up in
A
Andhra Pradesh
B
Maharashtra
C
Uttar Pradesh
D
Tamil Nadu
Question 35Single Answer
The mean of four number a, b, c, d is 100. If c = 70, then the mean of the remaining numbers is
A
30
B
85/2
C
170/3
D
110
Question 36Single Answer
Arrange the following books in chronological order in which they appeared. Use the code given below:
1. Limits to Growth
2. Silent Spring
3. Our Common Future
4. Resourceful Earth
A
(i), (iii), (iv), (ii)
B
(ii), (iii), (i), (iv)
C
(ii), (i), (iii), (iv)
D
(i), (ii), (iii), (iv)
Question 37Single Answer
If the radius of a circle is increased by 50%, the perimeter of the circle will increase by
A
20%
B
30%
C
40%
D
50%
Question 38Single Answer
Which one of the following continents is at a greater risk of desertification?
A
Africa
B
Asia
C
South America
D
North America
Question 39Single Answer
“Women are closer to nature that men.” What kind of perspective is this?
A
Realist
B
Essentialist
C
Feminist
D
Deep ecology
Question 40Single Answer
If the statement ‘some men are honest’ is false, which among the following statements will be true.Choose the correct code given below:
1 All men are honest.
2 No men are honest.
3 Some men are not honest.
4 All men are dishonest. Codes :
A
(i), (ii) and (iii)
B
(ii), (iii) and (iv)
C
(i), (iii) and (iv)
D
(ii), (i) and (iv)
Question 41Single Answer
Choose the proper alternative given in the codes to replace the question mark.Bee – Honey, Cow-Milk, Teacher-?
A
Intelligence
B
Marks
C
Lessons
D
Wisdom
Question 42Single Answer
Which one of the following is not a matter a global concern in the removal of tropical forests?
A
Their ability to absorb the chemicals that contribute to depletion of ozone layer.
B
Their role in maintaining the oxygen that carbon balance of the earth.
C
Their ability to regulate surface and air temperatures, moisture content and reflectivity.
D
Their contribution to the biological diversity of the planet.
Question 43Single Answer
P is the father of R and S is the son of Q and T is the brother of P. If R is the sister of S, how is Q related to T?
A
Wife
B
Sister-in-law
C
Brother-in-law
D
Daughter-in-law
Question 44Single Answer
A definition put forward to resolve a dispute by influencing attitudes or stirring emotions is called
A
Lexical
B
Persuasive
C
Stipulative
D
Precisions
Question 45Single Answer
The most comprehensive approach to address the problems of man-environment interaction is one of the following:
A
Natural Resource Conservation Approach
B
Urban-industrial Growth Oriented Approach
C
Rural-agricultural Growth Oriented Approach
D
Watershed Development Approach
Question 46Single Answer
The major source of the pollutant gas, carbon mono-oxide (CO), in urban areas is
A
Thermal power sector
B
Transport sector
C
Industrial sector
D
Domestic sector
Question 47Single Answer
In a fuel cell driven vehicle, the energy is obtained from the combustion of
A
Methane
B
Hydrogen
C
LPG
D
CNG
Question 48Single Answer
Which one of the following Councils has been disbanded in 2013?
A
Distance Education Council (DEC)
B
National Council for Teach Education (NCTE)
C
National Council of Educational Research and Training (NCERT)
D
National Assessment and Accreditation Council (NAAC)
Question 49Single Answer
Which of the codes given below contains only the correct statements?
statemenst:
1. Venn diagram is a clear method of notation.
2. Venn diagram is the most direct method of testing the validity of categorical syllogisms.
3. In Venn diagram method the premises and the conclusion of a categorical syllogism is diagrammed.
4. In Venn diagram method the three overlapping circles are drawn for testing a categorical syllogism. Codes :
A
(i), (ii) and (iii)
B
(i), (ii) and (iv)
C
(ii), (iii) and (iv)
D
(i), (iii) and (iv)
Question 50Single Answer
Inductive reasoning presupposes
A
unity in human nature
B
integrity in human nature
C
uniformity in human nature
D
harmony in human nature
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Commerce
Question 51Single Answer
Which is the most potent driver of business transformation during Covid-19 pandemic ?
A
Ethical consciousness
B
Scale economies and pricing power
C
Technology adoption and innovation
D
Supply chain logistics and government interventions
Question 52Single Answer
Counter Vailing Duties (CVD) are often imposed on imports to off set the impact of :
A
Predatory pricing
B
Export subsidies
C
Dumping
D
Low cost financing
Question 53Single Answer
To prevent opportunistic takeover of domestic firms amid Covid-19 pandemic. Foreign Direct Investment (FDI) from countries that share borders with India is allowed through :
A
Automatic route
B
Government route
C
FIPB route
D
DPIIT route
Question 54Single Answer
Factor conditions in Michael Porter’s competitive advantage National Include :
A
Market size
B
Demand conditions
C
Internationally competitive suppliers
D
Skilled labour and scientific knowledge
Question 55Single Answer
In case the purchasing company agrees to act as the agent of the vendor for collection of the book debts, in the books of the purchasing company, the amount of debtors should be credited to :
A
Vendor’s debtors account
B
Vendor’s suspense account
C
Debtors account
D
Creditors account
Question 56Single Answer
When the value of “Investment in subsidiary” in the holding company’s balance sheet in more then the book value of the net assets acquired, the difference represents :
A
Capital reserve on consolidation
B
Goodwill on consolidation
C
Minority interest
D
Post acquisition profit
Question 57Single Answer
The basic method of valuing human assets is :
A
Adjustment
B
Amortization
C
Capitalization
D
Quasi equity
Question 58Single Answer
X and Y are partners, sharing profits and losses in the ratio of 4 :3. They admit Z into the partnershipand for 1/5th share. X and Y decide to share the future profits in the ratio of 2 :1. What is the sacrificing ratio of X and Y ?
A
4 : 3
B
13 : 8
C
8 :13
D
4 :17
Question 59Single Answer
The value of the firm in wealth maximization objective is measured by :
A
Present value of all expected future cash flows
B
All expected future cash flows
C
Percent value of all expected future profits
D
All expected future profits
Question 60Single Answer
For a decline in price, total revenue declines in the demand of the product is :
A
Inelastic
B
Elastic
C
Unitary elastic
D
Zero elastics
Question 61Single Answer
In Cobb-Douglas production function, Q=AKαLβ increasing returns to scale occurs when :
A
α + β > 1
B
K + L > 1
C
α + β < 1
D
K + L < 1
Question 62Single Answer
The extreme case of non-price competition in an Oligopoly is :
A
Formation of cartels
B
Interdependent decision-making
C
Attaining economies of scale
D
Formation of duopoly
Question 63Single Answer
Pecking order theory in finance is based on the assertion of :
A
Asymmetric information between managers and investors
B
Symmetric information between managers and investors
C
Outside information
D
Asymmetric information among investors only
Question 64Single Answer
If a project cost is Rs. 40,000. Its stream of earning before depreciation and tax during first year through five years is expected to be Rs. 10,000, Rs. 12,000, Rs. 14,000, Rs. 16,000 and Rs. 20,000. Assume a 50% tax rate and depreciation on straight line basis; project’s ARR is :
A
14.40%
B
72%
C
16%
D
55.56%
Question 65Single Answer
According to the theory of dividend the firm should follow its investments policy of accepting all positive NPV projects and paying out dividends if and only if, funds are available :
A
Bird in hand theory
B
Investor rationality theory
C
100 percent retention theory
D
Residual theory
Question 66Single Answer
In Securitisation when no assets are acquired and the collateral is fixed for the life of the asset,the type of a structure is called as :
A
Revolving structure
B
Amortized structure
C
Collateralized structure
D
Self-liquidating structure
Question 67Single Answer
For a very large sample size the ratio between and σ is 8 : 40. Determine the sample size 𝓷 :
A
25
B
5
C
4
D
16
Question 68Single Answer
For a given set of paired data, the correlation and regression coefficients have been calculated as being equal to r,bxy and byx respectively. Now, each of values of x series is divided by 5. What effect does it have on each of these co-efficients ?
A
The three co - efficients remain unchanged
B
There is no change in r but by x changes to byx/5and bxy changes to 5bxy
C
Each of the co-efficients will be reduced to one fourth of its value
D
There is no change r but byx changes to 5byx and bxy chages to bxy/5
Question 69Single Answer
Which of the following statement is correct ?
A
Co-efficients of variance
B
If value in a series are negative, the standard deviation is also negative
C
If value in a series multiplied by σ, the variance would be multiplied by 36
D
Standard deviation is equal to square of variance
Question 70Single Answer
For a poisson distribution variable X, P(X=0) = 2P(X=1), its standard deviation would be :
A
B
0.5
C
D
2
Question 71Single Answer
A test that contains a fair sample of the tasks and skills actually needed for the job in question is :
A
Construct validity
B
Content validity
C
Test validity
D
Criterion validity
Question 72Single Answer
Which among of the following is not a primary determinant of organizational structure ?
A
Chain and span
B
Capacity and lower needs
C
Power and control
D
Differentiation and integration
Question 73Single Answer
An act in a way that results in the greatest good for the greatest number is :
A
The golden rule
B
The utilitarian principle
C
The four way test
D
Kant’s categorical imperative
Question 74Single Answer
People repeat behaviors that bring them satisfaction and pleasure and stop those that bring them dissatisfaction or pain is known as :
A
Law of exercise
B
Law of redo
C
Low of effect
D
Low of readiness
Question 75Single Answer
Which one of the following statements is true about under the Base I Accord, BCBS, fixed the minimum requirement of capital fund for banks at ?
A
8 percent of the total risk weighted assets
B
9 percent of the total risk weighted assets
C
10 percent of the total risk weighted assets
D
1000 crore
Question 76Single Answer
Which of the following statement is correct relating to Indian Financial System ?
A
RBI has direct supervision over depositories and mutual funds
B
Monetary control is exercised through cash reserve ratio and statutory liquidity ratio
C
Primary dealers mainly deal in shares, mutual fund units
D
The decrease in statutory liquidity ratio contracts the credit creation
Question 77Single Answer
Which one of the following is not one of the advantages of Derivatives market ?
A
Leveraging increases risk
B
They enhance liquidity in the market for underlying assets
C
They represent a form of insurance against risks
D
They reduce price volatility
Question 78Single Answer
Which one of the following statements is not true about Indian Money Market ?
A
Non-Banking Finance Companies (NBFCs) are financial institutions that constitute organized component of money market
B
Money market mutual funds are allowed to sell units to corporates and individuals
C
A Well-developed money market is essential for a modern economy
D
In the Indian Money Market, the predominant place is enjoyed by government and semi-government securities
Question 79Single Answer
Which of the following is not true while determining length of distribution channel ?
A
The larger the market size, the longer the channel
B
If the average lot size is large, it is better to have a longer channel
C
If the product and the market require a high level of service, it is advisable to keep a shorter channel
D
If customers shop for an assortment of products, it demands for a water channel of distribution
Question 80Single Answer
Which of the following can be categorized as people processing services ?
A
Health care
B
Legal services
C
Education
D
Transportation
Question 81Single Answer
SBUs or products that have lost their position of leadership and are in the low growth markets, are known as :
A
Star
B
Problem child
C
Dog
D
Cash cow
Question 82Single Answer
Which of the following is not a valid basis for market segmentation ?
A
Customer Based Segmentation
B
Technology Oriented Segmentation
C
Competition Related Segmentation
D
Product Related Segmentation
Question 83Single Answer
Which one of the following statements is a promissory note ?
A
I promise to Q Rs. 7,000, 7 days after my marriage
B
On demand, I promise to pay B or bearer Rs. 5,000
C
I promise to pay Rs. 5,000 on C’ death provided C leaves with me enough money to pay that sum
D
I acknowledge to be indebted to you for Rs. 10,000 to be paid on demand for value received
Question 84Single Answer
A claim for ‘quantum meruit’ cannot succeed :
A
Where is divisible contract is partly performed
B
When an indivisible contract for a lumpsum is partly performed
C
When a contract is discovered to be unenforceable due to some technical defect
D
In the case of breach of contract, the aggrieved party can claim reasonable compensation for k what he has done under the contract
Question 85Single Answer
The first offence for infringement of copyright can be for a maximum of imprisonment for a term of :
A
6 months and a fine of Rs. 20,000
B
3 years and a fine of Rs 50,000
C
3 years and a fine of Rs 2,00,000
D
1 year and a fine of Rs 3,00,000
Question 86Single Answer
Which one of the following conditions does not constitute a valid agency by necessity ?
A
There should be have been actual and definite commercial necessity for the agent to act promptly
B
The agent should have acted bonafide and for benefit of the principle
C
The agent should have adopted the most reasonable and practicable course under the circumstances
D
Destruction of the subject matter of the contract of agency
Question 87Single Answer
If assessee is engaged in the business of growing and manufacturing tea in India, the non-agricultural income in that case be :
A
40% the income from such business
B
25% the income from such business
C
60% the income from such business
D
75% the income from such business
Question 88Single Answer
AMT provisions are applicable on :
A
Corporate assessee
B
Non Corporate assessee
C
HUF
D
An Individual
Question 89Single Answer
X, an employee of the private company, gets Rs. 30,000 p.m. as basic salary and entitled to Rs. 1,500 p.m. as entertainment allowance. What are the deductions u ∕ s 16 (ii) for gross salary in respect of entertainment allowance ?
A
Rs. 5,000
B
Rs. 18,000
C
Rs. 72,000
D
Nil
Question 90Single Answer
Which of the following provident fund is approved by the provident fund commissioner ?
A
Statutory provident fund
B
Recognized provident fund
C
Unrecognised provident fund
D
Public provident fund
Question 91Single Answer
Which of the following institutions are included in the ‘World Bank Group’ ?
(a) International Finance Corporation
(b) International monetary Fund
(c) World Trade Organization
(d) Multilateral Investment Guarantee Agency
(e) International Development Association
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
A
(a), (b) and (c) only
B
(a), (b) and (d) only
C
(a), (b), (d) and (e) only
D
(a), (d) and (e) only
Question 92Single Answer
Corporate socialresponsibility is the continuing commitment by business to behave ethically and contribute to :
(a) Political awareness, social security and inclusion.
(b) Public health, education and literacy.
(c) Maintaining ecological balances and protecting environment.
(d) Gender diversity, profiteering and market controlling.
(e) Rendering, Sponsoring and donating to social and charitable activities.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
A
(a), (b) and (d) only
B
(b), (c) and (e) only
C
(c), (d) and (e) only
D
(a), (b) and (c) only
Question 93Single Answer
Firm characteristics that help managers identify core compentencies include :
(a) Potential access to wide variety of markets
(b) Significantly contribute to the perceived customer benefits
(c) Value accretive and noncompetitive
(d) Distinctive and difficult for competitors to imitate
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
A
(a), (b) and (c) only
B
(b), (c) and (d) only
C
(a), (b) and (d) only
D
(a), (c) and (d) only
Question 94Single Answer
Which of the following distinction (s) is/are not correct between public issue and rights issue ?
(a) In public issue, applications for shares are invited from the general public and in rights issue, the shares are offered to existing shareholders.
(b) In public issue there is no question of any over-subscription and in rights issue the shares may be under subscribed or over subscribed leading to prorata allotment.
(c) The price of public issue is generally less than the market price and in rights issue, the price is deliberately made less than the market price.
(d) In a pubic issue, the communication of the issue is through prospects or advertisements and in rights issue the communication is between the company and the existing members of the company.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
A
(b) only
B
(d) only
C
(a) and (c) only
D
(c) and (d) only
Question 95Single Answer
According to AS-2, Which of the following costs should be included in valuing the inventories of a manufacturing company ?
(a) Freight and insurance
(b) Carriage outwards
(c) Depreciation of factory plant
(d) General administrative overheads
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
A
(a) and (d) only
B
(a), (b) and (d) only
C
(b) and (c) only
D
(a) and (c) only
Question 96Single Answer
Which of the following rules stands true while preparing schedule of changes in working capital ?
(a) An increase in current assets increases working capital.
(b) An increase in current assets decreases working capital.
(c) An increase in current liabilities decreases working capital.
(d) An increase in current liabilities increases working capital.
Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below :
A
(a) and (c) only
B
(a) and (d) only
C
(b) and (d) only
D
(a),(b) and (c) only
Question 97Single Answer
Characteristics constituting the core of consumers rationality includes :
(a) Homogeneous expectations
(b) Non-satiation (c) Selfish motive
(d) Clarity of preferences
(e) Possession of information
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
A
(a), (b) and (c) only
B
(b), (c) and (d) only
C
(a), (b), (c) and (d) only
D
(b), (c), (d) and (e) only
Question 98Single Answer
Why is an indifference curve convex to the origin ?
(a) Indifference curve slope downward to the right.
(b) Two commodities are imperfect substitutes.
(c) Declining marginal rate of substitution between commodities.
(d) Diminishing marginal utilities.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
A
(a) and (b) only
B
(b) and (c) only
C
(c) and (d) only
D
(a) and (d) only
Question 99Single Answer
Financial crises takes the form of :
(a) Currency crisis
(b) Banking crisis
(c) Systematic financial crisis
(d) Foreign debt crisis
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
A
(a), (b), (c) only
B
(a), (b), (d) only
C
(b), (c), (d) only
D
(a), (b), (c), (d) only
Question 100Single Answer
Following are the problems that mar an optimal international diversification :
(a) Unfavourable exchange rate movements
(b) Frictions in international markets
(c) Manipulation of security prices
(d) Unequal access to information
Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below :
A
(a), (b), (c) only
B
(b), (c), (d) only
C
(a), (c), (d) only
D
(a), (b), (c), (d) only
Question 101Single Answer
Which of the following statement is correct about Mann-Whitney U-test ?
(a) It is non parametric test.
(b) It requires that samples are independent.
(c) It can be used when populations involved are normally distributed.
(d) It is used to test the null hypothesis that the two populations are involved are identical.
(e) It is always a two tailed test.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
A
(a), (b), (d) only
B
(a), (c), (d) only
C
(a), (d), (e) only
D
(a), (b), (e) only
Question 102Single Answer
Which of the following are correctabout complementary events ?
(a) Mutually exclusive
(b) Independent
(c) Such that their probabilities add up to 1
(d) Collective exhaustive
Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below :
A
(a), (b), (c) only
B
(a), (b), (d) only
C
(b), (c), (d) only
D
(a), (c), (d) only
Question 103Single Answer
Which of the following statements are correct about Chi Square test ?
(a) The only parameter of a Chi-Square distribution is its number of degrees of freedom.
(b) The null hypothesis in given Chi-Square test is rejected when calculated value of variable exceed its critical value.
(c) The rejection region in a goodness of fit test lies only in the right tail of the distribution.
(d) The Chi-Square test is a parametric test.
(e) At a =.05 and V =1 the critical value of x2 is equal to Z - value at the same level of significance.
Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below :
A
(b), (d), (e) only
B
(a), (c), (e) only
C
(a), (b), (c) only
D
(b), (c), (d) only
Question 104Single Answer
The principles of management have the following distinct features :
(a) Flexibility
(b) Universal application
(c) Principals are relative, not absolute
(d) Based on situation
Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below :
A
(a), (b) only
B
(b), (c) only
C
(a), (c), (d) only
D
(a), (b), (c), (d)
Question 105Single Answer
Use of interviews as a training needs assessment technique has the following advantages :
(a) Questions can be modified
(b) Easy to analyze
(c) Can explore unanticipated issues that come up
(d) Less time consuming
Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below :
A
(a), (b) only
B
(b), (c) only
C
(a), (c) only
D
(b), (c), (d) only
Question 106Single Answer
The advantages of incentive payments are :
(a) Ease in the introduction of new machines
(b) Better utilization of equipment
(c) Reduced absenteeism and turnover
(d) Increased scrap
Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below :
A
(a), (b) only
B
(b), (c) only
C
(b), (c), (d) only
D
(a), (b), (c) only
Question 107Single Answer
Which of the following forms may not result in credit risk ?
(a) Principal and/or interest amount may not be repaid in the case of direct lending.
(b) In case of guarantees or letter of credit, fund may not be forth coming from the constituents upon crystallization of the liability.
(c) Funds/Securities settlements may not be effected, in case of securities trading business.
(d) Provide information for determining adequacy of loan loss provision.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
A
(a), (b) and (c) only
B
(a), (c) and (d) only
C
(b) and (c) only
D
(d) only
Question 108Single Answer
Which of the following statements are false regarding electronic purse? Indicate the correct code :
(a) Retinal pattern verification
(b) Visual recognition
(c) No risk of bad payment
(d) Method of accepting payments with no cash float to manage and no risk of theft
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
A
(a), (b) and (c) only
B
(b), (c) and (d) only
C
(a) and (b) only
D
(c) and (d) only
Question 109Single Answer
Which of the following statements are the defects of Indian Money Market ?
(a) Profitable investment
(b) Dichotomy in Indian Money Market
(c) Financing Industry
(d) Diversity in interest rates
Choose the correct answer from the given options given below :
A
(a), (b) and (c) only
B
(b) and (c) only
C
(a), (b) and (d) only
D
(b) and (d) only
Question 110Single Answer
Penetration pricing strategy delivers results :
(a) Where price quality association is weak
(b) When the product is perceived as a ‘high technology’ product
(c) When the market is characterized by intensive competition
(d) When the firm uses it as an entry strategy
Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below :
A
(b), (c) only
B
(a), (d) only
C
(a), (c), (d) only
D
(a), (b), (c) only
Question 111Single Answer
Which of the following represents traditional logistics management approach ?
(a) Independent inventory management efforts.
(b) Minimise firm costs.
(c) Amountof information sharing and monitoring limited to current process.
(d) Small breadth of supplier base to increase coordination.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
A
(a), (b) only
B
(b), (c) only
C
(a), (c), (d) only
D
(b), (c), (d) only
Question 112Single Answer
Which of the following statements are false ? Indicate the correct code.
(a) No company has to file any prescribed declaration before commencement of business.
(b) A company can ratify the contract entered into by the promoters with third parties on behalf of the company before its formation.
(c) The date mentioned in the certificate for commencement of business is taken as the date of birth of a public company.
(d) A private company has to file a “Settlement in lieu of prospectus” with the registrar.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
A
(a), (b) and (d) only
B
(a) and (b) only
C
(b), (c) and (d) only
D
(c) and (d) only
Question 113Single Answer
Which of the following are not the objectives of competition act, 2002
(a) Ensure freedom of trade for other participants in incidental and connected markets.
(b) Provide a reasonable level of reliability and connect operation.
(c) Adhere to generally accepted security procedures.
(d) Protect the interests of consumers.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
A
(a), (c), (d) only
B
(b), (c), (d) only
C
(a), (c) only
D
(b) and (c) only
Question 114Single Answer
Which of the following persons cannot use ITR-4 ?
(a) Who is director of a company
(b) Who has held any unlisted equity shares
(c) Who has any asset located outside India
(d) A firm (other than LLP) if assessee is a Resident
(e) Who has income from other sources
Choose the most appropriate answer from the given below :
A
(a), (b), (c) only
B
(a), (b), (d) only
C
(b), (d), (e) only
D
(c), (d), (e) only
Question 115Single Answer
Which of the following losses are not deductible from business income ?
(a) Loss sustained before the business is commenced.
(b) Losses incurred in the closing down of the business.
(c) Loss incurred due to damage, destruction, etc., of capital assets.
(d) Loss of raw material and finished goods in transit.
(e) Loss of stock-in-trade due to enemy action.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
A
(a), (b), (c) only
B
(b), (c), (d) only
C
(a), (d), (e) only
D
(a), (b), (d) only
Question 116Single Answer
Match List-I with List-II :
List-I List-II
(InternationalTradeTheories)
(a) David Ricardo I. Theory of absolute (1817) advantage
(b) Michael Porter II.Factor endowment (1990) theory
(c) Adam Smith III. Theory of comparative (1776) advantage
(d) Heckscher IV. Theory of competitive (1919) – Ohlin advantage (1933)
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
A
(a) (b) (c) (d)
I II III IV
B
III IV I II
C
IV III II I
D
III IV II I
Question 117Single Answer
Match List-I with List-II : List – I List-II
(Method) (Purchase consideration)
(a) Lump-sum I. Calculated by adding up the payment method total amount (money value) ofexisting shares, preference shares and cash received the from purchasing company for the shareholders of the vendor company.
(b) Net assets II. On the bases of ratio in method which the shares or the transferee company are to be exchanged for the shares of transferor company.
(c) Net payment III.The amount to be paid by Method the transferee company to transferor company for amalgamation of its business.
(d) Swap Ratio IV. Arrived at by adding them Method agreed value of assets taken over and deducting there fromagreed values of liabilities. Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
A
(a) (b) (c) (d)
III II I IV
B
III IV I II
C
IV I II III
D
IV III II I
Question 118Single Answer
Match List-I with List-II :
List- I List-II
(Pricing Strategies) (Description)
(a) Ramsay pricing I. Setting a high price when a product is first introduced and gradually lowering price as it gains scale
(b) Price skimming II. Firm charges lower price (than the ongoing price) to gain market entry
(c) Cost plus pricing III. Price deviations from marginal cost should be inversely proportional to price elasticity of the product
(d) Penetration pricing IV. It is full cost pricing strategy that also includes mark up for target return, degree of competition, price elasticity and availability of substitutes.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
A
(a) (b) (c) (d)
III IV I II
B
II I III IV
C
III IIV II
D
I IV II III
Question 119Single Answer
Match List-I with List-II :
List-I List-II
(a) Market risk I. Associated with the Efficiency with which a firm conducts its operation within the environment imposed upon it.
(b) Financial risk II. Arises due to change operating conditions caused by conditions thrust upon the firm which are beyond its control.
(c) External business risk III. Variations in price sparked off due to real, social, political and economic events.
(d) Internal business risk IV. Associated with the structure of a firm.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
A
(a) (b) (c) (d)
I II III IV
B
III IV II I
C
III I II IV
D
IV III I II
Question 120Single Answer
Logically sequence the following in the process of entering international markets outlined in the Uppsala model.
(a) Sporadic (Ad hoc) exports
(b) Foreign production and manufacturing
(c) Establishing a foreign sales subsidiary
(d) Domestic operations and production
(e) Exporting via independent representative
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
A
(a), (b),(c), (d) and (e)
B
(c), (b), (d), (a) and (e)
C
(d), (a), (e), (c) and (b)
D
(e), (b), (d), (c) and (a)
Question 121Single Answer
Match List-I with List-II :
List-I List-II
(Personality dimensions) (Individual Traits)
(a) Extroversion I. Calm, happy and secure
(b) Conscientiousness II. Talkative, Assertive, sociable and outgoing
(c) Emotional stability III.Creative, curious, intellectual,imaginve and artistically sensitive
(d) Openness to IV. Self-disciplined, experience hardworking, organised, dependable and persistent.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
A
(a) (b) (c) (d)
II` IV III I
B
II IV I III
C
III II I IV
D
IV I II III
Question 122Single Answer
Match List-I with List-II :
List-I List-II
(a) Insurance Act I. 1988
(b) Life Insurance II. 1963 Corporation Act
(c) Motor Vehicles III.1938 Act
(d) Marine IV. 1956 Insurance Act
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
A
(a) (b) (c) (d)
IV III I II
B
I II III IV
C
III IV I II
D
IV III II I
Question 123Single Answer
Match List-I with List-II :
List-I List-II
(Books) (Author(s)
(a) Wealth of Nations, I. Thomas Malthus 1776
(b) Principles of Political II. Karl Marx Economy and Taxation,1817
(c) Principles of III. Adam Smith Population, 1798
(d) Das Capital, 1867 IV. David Ricardo
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
A
(a) (b) (c) (d)
I III IV II
B
III IV I II
C
II III I IV
D
III I IV II
Question 124Single Answer
Match List-I with List-II :
List-I List-II
(a) Ordinary damages I. Never granted by way of compensation for the loss
(b) Special damages II. They are quite heavy in amount and are awarded by way of punishment only
(c) Exemplary III. Arise in the ordinary Damages course of events from the breach of contract
(d) Nominal damages IV. The constitute indirect loss suffered by the aggrieved party on account of contract
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
A
(a) (b) (c) (d)
III IV II I
B
IV III II I
C
I II IV III
D
II I III IV
Question 125Single Answer
Match List-I with List-II :
List-I List-II
(a) Section 35(2AA) I. Payment made to certain institutions for scientific
(b) Section 35(1) (ii a) II. Payment made to certain institutions for research in social sciences.
(c) Section 35(1) (iii) III. Payment made to a company to be scientific Research.
(d) Section 35(1) (ii) IV. Payment made to Indian Institute of Technology for Scientific Research.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
A
(a) (b) (c) (d)
IV II III I
B
IV III II I
C
I II III IV
D
I II IV III
Question 126Single Answer
Sequence the following in increasing order of integration of member economies.
(a) Free Trade Area
(b) Economic Union
(c) Custom Union
(d) Preferential Trade Agreements
(e) Common Market
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
A
(a), (c), (e), (b), (d)
B
(b), (e), (c), (a), (d)
C
(d), (a), (c), (e), (b)
D
(c), (e), (b), (d), (a)
Question 127Single Answer
The liquidator after realizing the assets of the company should distribute the proceeds among below mentioned claimants in the following order :
(a) Legal charges
(b) Liquidators remuneration and cost of expenses of winding up
(c) Workman’s dues and claims of the secured creditors
(d) Preferential creditors and creditors secured by floating charge
(e) Unsecured creditors
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
A
(b), (c), (a), (d), (e)
B
(d), (c), (b), (a), (e)
C
(a), (b), (c), (b), (e)
D
(b), (c), (e), (a), (d)
Question 128Single Answer
Arrange the following market structures in the increasing order of pricing power in firms.
(a) Monopolistic competition
(b) Perfect competition
(c) Duopoly (d) Monopoly
(e) Oligopoly
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
A
(b), (d), (a), (e), (c)
B
(b), (a), (e), (c), (d)
C
(a), (c), (b), (d), (e)
D
(d), (c), (e), (a), (b)
Question 129Single Answer
Arrange the following items, i.e., stages of capital budgeting in correct sequence :
(a) Identification of potential investment opportunities.
(b) Assembling of proposed investments.
(c) Decision making.
(d) Implementation and performance review.
(e) Preparation of capital budget and appropriations.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
A
(b), (a), (e), (c), (d)
B
(e), (c), (a), (b), (d)
C
(c), (e), (d), (b), (a)
D
(a), (b), (c), (e), (d)
Question 130Single Answer
Arrange the following stages of processing of data in a correct sequence :
(a) Coding
(b) Editing
(c) Tabulation
(d) Classification
(e) Using Percentages
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
A
(a), (b), (c), (d), (e)
B
(d), (a), (b), (c), (e)
C
(c), (d), (a), (b), (e)
D
(b), (a), (d), (c), (e)
Question 131Single Answer
Arrange the following characteristics of stages of group development in the increasing order :
(a) Members begin to resolve differences and clarify the purpose of the group and the roles of group members.
(b) It includes recognition for participation and achievement.
(c) Members are highly task-oriented and there is unity in the group.
(d) Conflicts start arising due to the differences of opinion among members.
(e) Members are moderately eager, have positive expectations, anxious about why they are there, and who other members are.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
A
(e), (d), (a), (b), (c)
B
(d), (e), (c), (a), (b)
C
(e), (d), (a), (c), (b)
D
(d), (b), (a), (e), (c)
Question 132Single Answer
Arrange the following stepsin logical sequence of operation of the registration of portfolio managers :
(a) Prior approval of the SEBI.
(b) Adequate steps for redressal of investors grievances.
(c) Maintenance of the specified capital adequacy requirements.
(d) Payment of fee.
(e) Abide by the regulations under the SEBI Act.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
A
(c), (e), (a), (b), (d)
B
(d), (a), (b), (e), (c)
C
(a), (d), (b), (c), (e)
D
(d), (e), (a), (c), (b)
Question 133Single Answer
Arrange the following stages of consumer decision making process in a sequential order with regard to young person Divya :
(a) Looks for a specific colour and showroom delivery as she does not want to wait.
(b) Narrows down to a dark grey car of a specific brand.
(c) Belongs to an executive group and all her colleagues have their own vehicles.
(d) Uses media and other social channels to collect information about different models.
(e) Feels that fuel efficiency should be the most critical factor while making a choice.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
A
(a), (c), (b), (d), (e)
B
(c), (e), (d), (a), (b)
C
(c), (a), (d), (e), (b)
D
(e), (c), (a), (d), (b)
Question 134Single Answer
Arrange the following stages of formation of companies in a proper sequence :
(a) Promotion stage
(b) Raising of share capital stage
(c) Incorporation stage
(d) Commencement stage
(e) Selection of name
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
A
(c), (a), (e), (d), (b)
B
(b), (e), (a), (c), (d)
C
(a), (e), (c), (b), (d)
D
(d), (a), (b), (c), (e)
Question 135Single Answer
Sequence the steps for computing gross annual value of income from house property :
(a) Find out the rent actually received of receivable after excluding unrealised, rent before deducting lose due to vacancy.
(b) Find out the loss because of vacancy.
(c) Find out the reasonable expected rent of the property.
(d) Find out the which one is the higher amount computed in (c) or (a). (e) (d) – (b) is gross annual value
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
A
(c), (a), (d), (b), (e)
B
(d), (d), (c), (b), (e)
C
(d), (a), (c), (b), (e)
D
(a), (b), (c), (d), (e)
Question 136Single Answer
Given below are two statements :
Statements I : Deferred Tax Liabilities (Net) is the amount of tax on the temporary difference between the accounting income and taxable income. It arises when the accounting income is more than the taxable income.
Statements II : Deferred Tax Liabilities (Net) and Deferred Tax Assets (Net) are only book entries i.e., they are neither actual asset.
In the light of the above statements, choose thecorrect answer from the options given below :
A
Both Statement I and Statement II are true
B
Both Statement I and Statement II are false
C
Statement I is true, but Statement II is false
D
Statement I is false, but Statement II is true
Question 137Single Answer
Given below are two statements :
Statements I : Modified Internal rate of return is based on reinvestment assumption.
Statements II : Value-additivity principle is not applicable in NPV. In the light of the above statements,
Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below :
A
Both Statement I and Statement II are correct
B
Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect
C
Statement I is correct, but Statement II is incorrect
D
Statement I is incorrect, but Statement II is correct
Question 138Single Answer
Given below are two statements :
Statements I : Delegation is an interpersonal transactions based on behavior analysis.
Statements II : Delegation is an evolutionary and developmental process which needs encouragement and reinforcement.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below :
A
Both Statement I and Statement II are correct
B
Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect
C
Statement Iis correct, but Statement II is incorrect
D
Statement I is incorrect, but Statement II is correct
Question 139Single Answer
Given below are two statements :
Statements I : Only low priced products will sell in rural India.
Statements II : Rural consumers are a homogeneous lot.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below :
A
Both Statement I and Statement II are correct
B
Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect
C
Statement I is correct, but Statement II is incorrect
D
Statement I is incorrect, but Statement II is correct
Question 140Single Answer
Given below are two statements : One is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R).
Assertion (A) : ITR -1 can be used by an individual whose total income does not exceed Rs. 1 Crore.
Reason (R) : ITR -1 cannot be used by an individual who is director in a company.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below :
A
Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
B
Both (A) and (R) are correct, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
C
(A) is correct, but (R) is not correct
D
(A) is not correct, but (R) is correct
Question 141Single Answer
As per section 80G maximum deduction allowed for any cash donation is upto :
A
Rs. 1,000
B
Rs. 2,000
C
Rs. 5,000
D
Rs. 10,000
Question 142Single Answer
In Leontief production function, L is considered as :
A
Structural constraint in the production process
B
Degree of homogeneity
C
Binding constraint in the production process
D
Optimization constraint in the production process
Question 143Single Answer
EPRG framework in international Business refers to :
Which one of the following is not a major direct selling company in India ?
A
Eureka Forbes
B
Amway India Enterprises
C
Modicare
D
Hindustan Unilever Ltd
Question 145Single Answer
Which one of the following statements is ‘TRUE ‘inpartnership ?
A
In the absence of any provision deed, only a working partner is entitled to remuneration
B
Any firm which earns normal profit has no goodwill
C
The business of the firm must be carried on by all the partners
D
Interest on loan given by a partner to the firm shall be paid if there if are profits
Question 146Single Answer
In continuous compounding, the time it takes to double the sum grossly follow ‘Rule of 69’. If it is changed to discrete compounding the relevant rules of thumb is__________.
A
Rule of 69.3
B
Rule of 72
C
Rule of 84
D
Rule of 64
Question 147Single Answer
The ‘going concern concept’ is the underlying basis for :
A
Disclosing the market value of securities
B
Consolidating the accounts of subsidiary companies with those of parent company
C
Depreciating fixed assets over their useful lives
D
Disclosing the sales and other operating information in the income statement
Question 148Single Answer
‘Constraint Optimistaion’ is closer to which of the following objectives of business firms ?
A
Sales maximisation
B
Profit maximisation
C
Satisfying behaviour
D
Rent seeking behaviour
Question 149Single Answer
In a rising consumer income scenario, the preferred decision choice of business firm for low income elastic products will be__________.
A
Product promotion
B
Cost control
C
Product repositioning
D
Product improvement
Question 150Single Answer
If an estimated Cobb-Douglas production function is Q=10K0.6L0.8, what type of returns to scale does this production function indicate ?