To discover new facts or to make fresh interpretation of known facts
Question 2Single Answer
Sampling error decreases with the
A
decrease in sample size
B
increase in sample size
C
process of randomization
D
process of analysis
Question 3Single Answer
The principles of fundamental research are used in
A
action research
B
applied research
C
philosophical research
D
historical research
Question 4Single Answer
Users who use media for their own ends are indentified as
A
Passive audience
B
Active audience
C
Positive audience
D
Negative audience
Question 5Single Answer
Classroom communication can be described as
A
Exploration
B
Institutionalisation
C
Unsignified narration
D
Discourse
Question 6Single Answer
Ideological codes shape our collective
A
Productions
B
Perceptions
C
Consumptions
D
Creations
Question 7Single Answer
In communication, myths have power, but are
A
Uncultural.
B
Insignificant.
C
imprecise.
D
Unpreferred.
Question 8Single Answer
The first multi-lingual news agency of India was
A
Samachar
B
API
C
Hindustan Samachar
D
Samachar Bharati
Question 9Single Answer
Organisational communication can also be equated with
A
intra-personal communication
B
inter-personal communication
C
group communication
D
mass communication
Question 10Single Answer
If two propositions having the same subject and predicate terms are such that one is the denial of the other, the relationship between them is called
A
Contradictory
B
Contrary
C
Sub-contrary
D
Sub-alternation
Question 11Single Answer
Ananya and Krishna can speak and follow English. Bulbul can write and speak. Hindi as Archana does. Archana talks with Ananya also in Bengali. Krishna can not follow Bengali. Bulbul talks with Ananya in Hindi. Who can speak and follow English, Hindi and Bengali?
A
Archana
B
Bulbul
C
Ananya
D
Krishna
Question 12Single Answer
A stipulative definition may be said to be
A
Always true
B
Always false
C
Sometimes true, sometimes false
D
Neither true nor false
Question 13Single Answer
Which one of the following references is written as per Modern Language Association (MLA) format?
A
Hall, Donald. Fundamentals of Electronics, New Delhi : Prentice Hall of India, 2006
B
Hall, Donald, Fundamentals of Electronics, New Delhi : Prentice Hall of India, 2003
C
Hall, Donald. Fundamentals of Electronics, New Delhi : Prentice Hall of India, 2002
D
Hall, Donald. Fundamentals of Electronics. New Delhi : Prentice Hall of India, 2005
Question 14Single Answer
When the conclusion of an argument follows from its premise/premises conclusively, the argument is called
A
Circular argument
B
Inductive argument
C
Deductive argument
D
Analogical argument
Question 15Single Answer
A workshop is
A
a conference for discussion on a topic.
B
a meeting for discussion on a topic.
C
a class at a college or a university in which a teacher and the students discuss a topic.
D
a brief intensive course for a small group emphasizing the development of a skill or technique for solving a specific problem.
Question 16Single Answer
A working hypothesis is
A
a proven hypothesis for an argument.
B
not required to be tested.
C
a provisionally accepted hypothesis for further research.
D
a scientific theory.
Question 17Single Answer
Saturn and Mars are planets like the earth. They borrow light from the Sun and moves around the Sun as the Earth does. So those planets are inhabited by various orders of creatures as the earth is. What type of argument is contained in the above passage?
A
Deductive
B
Astrological
C
Analogical
D
Mathematical
Question 18Single Answer
Given below are two premises. Four conclusions are drawn from those two premises in four codes. Select the code that states the conclusion validly drawn.
All saints are religious. (major)
Some honest persons are saints.(minor)Codes:
A
Codes:
All saints are hones.
B
Some saints are honest.
C
Some honest persons are religious.
D
All religious persons are honest.
Question 19Single Answer
In the process of communication, which one of the following is in chronological order?
A
Communicator, Medium, Receiver, Effect, Message
B
Medium, Communicator, Message, Receiver, Effect
C
Communicator, Message, Medium, Receiver, Effect
D
Message, Communicator, Medium, Receiver, Effect
Question 20Single Answer
Bengal Gazette, the first Newspaper in India was started in 1780 by
A
Dr. Annie Besant
B
James Augustus Hicky
C
Lord Cripson
D
A.O. Hume
Question 21Single Answer
Press censorship in India was imposed during the tenure of the Prime Minister
A
Rajeev Gandhi
B
Narasimha Rao
C
Indira Gandhi
D
Deve Gowda
Question 22Single Answer
Communication via New media such as computers, teleshopping, internet and mobile telephony is termed as
A
Entertainment
B
Interactive communication
C
Developmental communication
D
Communitarian
Question 23Single Answer
Classroom communication of a teacher rests on the principle of
A
Infotainment
B
Edutainment
C
Entertainment
D
Enlightenment
Question 24Single Answer
Identify the region that has shown hyper growth rate of foreign tourist arrivals than the growth rate of the total FTAs in India in 2008.
A
Western Europe
B
North America
C
South Asia
D
East Asia
Question 25Single Answer
____ is important when a teacher communicates with his her student.
A
Sympathy
B
Empathy
C
Apathy
D
Antipathy
Question 26Single Answer
In a certain code GALIB is represented by HBMJC. TIGER will be represented by
A
UJHFS
B
UHJSF
C
JHUSF
D
HUJSF
Question 27Single Answer
In a certain cricket tournament 45 matches were played. Each team played once against each of the other teams. The number of teams participated in the tournament is
A
8
B
10
C
12
D
14
Question 28Single Answer
The missing number in the series 40, 120, 60, 180, 90, ?, 135 is
A
110
B
270
C
105
D
210
Question 29Single Answer
The post-industrial society is designated as
A
Information society
B
Technology society
C
Mediated society
D
Non-agricultural society
Question 30Single Answer
The initial efforts for internet based communication was for
A
Commercial communication
B
Military purposes
C
Personal interaction
D
Political campaigns
Question 31Single Answer
The odd numbers from 1 to 45 which are exactly divisible by 3 are arranged in an ascending order. The number at 6th position is
A
18
B
24
C
33
D
36
Question 32Single Answer
Internal communication within institutions is done through
A
LAN
B
WAN
C
EBB
D
MMS
Question 33Single Answer
Virtual reality provides
A
Sharp pictures
B
Individual audio
C
Participatory experience
D
Preview of new films
Question 34Single Answer
The first virtual university of India came up in
A
Andhra Pradesh
B
Maharashtra
C
Uttar Pradesh
D
Tamil Nadu
Question 35Single Answer
The mean of four number a, b, c, d is 100. If c = 70, then the mean of the remaining numbers is
A
30
B
85/2
C
170/3
D
110
Question 36Single Answer
Arrange the following books in chronological order in which they appeared. Use the code given below:
1. Limits to Growth
2. Silent Spring
3. Our Common Future
4. Resourceful Earth
A
(i), (iii), (iv), (ii)
B
(ii), (iii), (i), (iv)
C
(ii), (i), (iii), (iv)
D
(i), (ii), (iii), (iv)
Question 37Single Answer
If the radius of a circle is increased by 50%, the perimeter of the circle will increase by
A
20%
B
30%
C
40%
D
50%
Question 38Single Answer
Which one of the following continents is at a greater risk of desertification?
A
Africa
B
Asia
C
South America
D
North America
Question 39Single Answer
“Women are closer to nature that men.” What kind of perspective is this?
A
Realist
B
Essentialist
C
Feminist
D
Deep ecology
Question 40Single Answer
If the statement ‘some men are honest’ is false, which among the following statements will be true.Choose the correct code given below:
1 All men are honest.
2 No men are honest.
3 Some men are not honest.
4 All men are dishonest. Codes :
A
(i), (ii) and (iii)
B
(ii), (iii) and (iv)
C
(i), (iii) and (iv)
D
(ii), (i) and (iv)
Question 41Single Answer
Choose the proper alternative given in the codes to replace the question mark.Bee – Honey, Cow-Milk, Teacher-?
A
Intelligence
B
Marks
C
Lessons
D
Wisdom
Question 42Single Answer
Which one of the following is not a matter a global concern in the removal of tropical forests?
A
Their ability to absorb the chemicals that contribute to depletion of ozone layer.
B
Their role in maintaining the oxygen that carbon balance of the earth.
C
Their ability to regulate surface and air temperatures, moisture content and reflectivity.
D
Their contribution to the biological diversity of the planet.
Question 43Single Answer
P is the father of R and S is the son of Q and T is the brother of P. If R is the sister of S, how is Q related to T?
A
Wife
B
Sister-in-law
C
Brother-in-law
D
Daughter-in-law
Question 44Single Answer
A definition put forward to resolve a dispute by influencing attitudes or stirring emotions is called
A
Lexical
B
Persuasive
C
Stipulative
D
Precisions
Question 45Single Answer
The most comprehensive approach to address the problems of man-environment interaction is one of the following:
A
Natural Resource Conservation Approach
B
Urban-industrial Growth Oriented Approach
C
Rural-agricultural Growth Oriented Approach
D
Watershed Development Approach
Question 46Single Answer
The major source of the pollutant gas, carbon mono-oxide (CO), in urban areas is
A
Thermal power sector
B
Transport sector
C
Industrial sector
D
Domestic sector
Question 47Single Answer
In a fuel cell driven vehicle, the energy is obtained from the combustion of
A
Methane
B
Hydrogen
C
LPG
D
CNG
Question 48Single Answer
Which one of the following Councils has been disbanded in 2013?
A
Distance Education Council (DEC)
B
National Council for Teach Education (NCTE)
C
National Council of Educational Research and Training (NCERT)
D
National Assessment and Accreditation Council (NAAC)
Question 49Single Answer
Which of the codes given below contains only the correct statements?
statemenst:
1. Venn diagram is a clear method of notation.
2. Venn diagram is the most direct method of testing the validity of categorical syllogisms.
3. In Venn diagram method the premises and the conclusion of a categorical syllogism is diagrammed.
4. In Venn diagram method the three overlapping circles are drawn for testing a categorical syllogism. Codes :
A
(i), (ii) and (iii)
B
(i), (ii) and (iv)
C
(ii), (iii) and (iv)
D
(i), (iii) and (iv)
Question 50Single Answer
Inductive reasoning presupposes
A
unity in human nature
B
integrity in human nature
C
uniformity in human nature
D
harmony in human nature
Important Questions Package
Jharkhand Eligibility Test Environmental Science Exam Online Question Bank Package
Buy Jharkhand Eligibility Test Environmental Science Important Questions, MCQ, question answer in Hindi & English. It will help you to score high marks in Jharkhand Eligibility Test Environmental Science question bank 2026 in Online, PDF & Print study material.
+ Free Monthly Current Affairs, GK & more PDF Download
Sr.
Package Name
Amount
1.
Jharkhand Eligibility Test Environmental Science Exam - English
Description : 1000 Question With Answer
₹101[₹500]
2.
Jharkhand Eligibility Test Environmental Science Exam - English
Description : 2000 Question With Answer
₹151[₹500]
3.
Jharkhand Eligibility Test Environmental Science Exam - English
Description : 1000 Question & Answer Download in PDF (Send by Email)
₹151[₹550]
4.
Jharkhand Eligibility Test Environmental Science Exam Question Bank Book - English
Description : 1000 Question with Answer (Printed Material)
₹390[₹650]
Environmental Science
Question 51Single Answer
The grain size (USDA) of silt in soil ranges between :
A
0.2 mm to 0.5 mm
B
0.5 mm to 0.1 mm
C
0.1 mm to 0.05 mm
D
0.05 mm to 0.002 mm
Question 52Single Answer
What will be BOD, for a wastewater sample when 21 ml of sample is diluted to 300 ml in BOD bottle to determine dissolved oxygen .
[Given: Initial DO, = 10 mg/l; Five days later DO5 = 5 mg/l]
A
~ 5 mg/l
B
~ 25 mg/l
C
~ 71.4 mg/l
D
~75 mg/l
Question 53Single Answer
What will be the concentration of 40 ppb SO₂ in µg/m³ unit at 25°C ?
A
~ 0.04 µg/m³
B
~ 1047 µg/m³
C
~ 104.7 µg/m³
D
~ 10.47 µg/m³
Question 54Single Answer
National Ambient air quality standards typically include following components :
A
Maximum and Minimum pollutant levels, adjustment for co - pollutants
B
Abetment strategies, non - attainment penalties
C
Ambient temperature, size distribution and relative humidity
D
Indicator (Chemical/Chemical class), Averaging time, Pollutant form and level
Question 55Single Answer
Primary air pollutants differ from secondary air pollutants as they :
A
are present in levels that can be weighed on filter paper
B
are directly emitted from identified sources
C
have undergone chemical transformation in air after release from identified sources
D
are designated as hazardous air pollutants
Question 56Single Answer
Continuity equation expresses the law of conservation of :
A
Momentum
B
Mass
C
Entropy
D
Energy
Question 57Single Answer
Which of the following statements correctly represent the environmental wisdom worldwide ?
A
Our success depends on how well we manage the earth's life support systems mostly for our benefits
B
Our success depends on how well we manage the earth's life support systems for our benefit and for the rest of nature
C
Our success depends on learning how nature sustains itself and integrating such lessons from nature into the ways we think
D
Our success depends on using environmentally beneficial forms of economic growth and discourage environmentally harmful forms
Question 58Single Answer
Exposure concentration is _______ .
A
the amount of the chemical that is received by the target
B
the amount of chemical present in the medium with which an Organism has contact
C
the amount of the chemical that is excreted by the target
D
the amount of the chemical that is metabolized by the target
Question 59Single Answer
In ecotoxicology studies, ED - 50 is _______ .
A
the dose that affects 50% of the population or observed subjects
B
the dose that affects 95% of the population or observed subjects
C
the dose that affects 25% of the population or observed subjects
D
the dose that do not affect 50% of the total population
Question 60Single Answer
A hypothesis, that predicts a linear relationship in which rate of ecosystem processes is maximum with greatest number of species, is known as :
A
Rivet - popper hypothesis
B
Redundancy hypothesis
C
Diversity - stability hypothesis
D
Idiosyncratic hypothesis
Question 61Single Answer
Which of the following is not a phase of secondary succession ?
A
Initiation
B
Continuation
C
Termination
D
Invasion
Question 62Single Answer
The Concept of r - and k - selection was originally given by :
A
MacArthur and Wilson (1967)
B
Grime (1979)
C
Molles (2008)
D
Mayr (1942)
Question 63Single Answer
The prefix "steno" and "eury” have been used for :
A
comparing the relative degree of tolerance of an organism to a given environmental factor
B
comparing the body size of organisms occurring in a given habitat
C
comparing the metabolic activity of organisms in a given habitat
D
comparing the distribution limits of organisms occurring across a biome
Question 64Single Answer
The strong and rapidly moving circumpolar upper air westerly circulation in a narrow belt of a few hundred kilometers width in the upper limit of the troposphere is called _______ .
A
Rossby waves
B
Jet streams
C
Walker streams
D
Hadley Circulation
Question 65Single Answer
Coriolis effect is :
A
the influence of Earth's rotation, which tends to turn air towards the right in the Northern Hemisphere
B
the influence of Earth's rotation, which tends to turn air upwards in the Northern Hemisphere
C
the influence of Earth's rotation, which tends to turn air towards the left in the Northern Hemisphere
D
the influence of Earth's rotation, which tends to turn air downwards in the Northern Hemisphere
Question 66Single Answer
The boundary between fresh and salty groundwater along shorelines is determined by :
A
recharge and discharge in freshwater aquifer
B
composition of salty and fresh groundwater
C
rainfall
D
nature of aquifer
Question 67Single Answer
The sum of diffused and direct solar radiation, is called :
A
continental solar radiation
B
global solar radiation
C
total solar radiation
D
universal solar radiation
Question 68Single Answer
Which one of the following elements is used in making Photovoltaic Solar cell ?
A
Tungsten
B
Silver
C
Lead
D
Silicon
Question 69Single Answer
The destructive distillation of coal yielding products such as gasoline, diesel oil and other products, is known as
A
gasification
B
precipitation
C
condensation
D
liquefaction
Question 70Single Answer
Which process facilitates conversion of raw fat into biodiesel in the presence of alcohol ?
A
Glycerol conversion
B
Saccharification
C
Torrefaction
D
Transesterification
Question 71Single Answer
Which plant/tree has been recommended in India for extraction of biodiesel ?
A
Wheat (Triticum aestivum)
B
Sugarcane (Saccharum officinarum)
C
Mango (Mangifera indica)
D
Karanja (Pongamia pinnata)
Question 72Single Answer
Anammox bacteria is required for which of the following steps in wastewater treatment ?
A
Nitrate to Nitrite conversion
B
Nitrite to Nitrate conversion
C
Molecular Nitrogen to Ammonia conversion
D
Ammonium ion to Molecular Nitrogen conversion
Question 73Single Answer
Which of the following is an INCORRECT statement ?
A
Humus represents organic matter, dark in colour
B
Acid soils are devoid of basic cations
C
Humus contains cellulose and hemi cellulose
D
Humic and fulvic acids in humus form hydrophobic colloid whereas clay colloids are hydrophilic in nature
Question 74Single Answer
The use of bacteria and other microorganisms to breakdown hazardous waste into relatively harmless components, is termed as :
A
phyto remediation
B
source reduction process
C
integrated waste management
D
bioremediation
Question 75Single Answer
Which of the following is INCORRECT about the given decomposition reaction ?
A
All carbon in (1) is oxidized
B
Some Carbon in (1) is oxidized and some is reduced
C
This is an example of fermentation
D
It produces gas that some time catches fire
Question 76Single Answer
Heavy metals are retained in soil/sludge by :
A
complexation by humic substances in organic particles
B
absorption on to surface of mineral particles
C
precipitation reaction
D
solubilization in acidic conditions
Question 77Single Answer
There is often a formal review and licensing procedures of Environmental Impact Assessment. Who would NOT carry out such a procedure ?
A
The proponent of the development project
B
The local government authority ultimately responsible for licensing development project
C
Another government agency which can be given responsibility for licensing development project
D
An independent body having knowledge of the development project
Question 78Single Answer
As per United Nations Framework Convention on Climate Change (UNFCC), which of the following has role in the assessment and review of the effective implementation of the convention ?
A
Subsidiary Body for Scientific and Technical Advice (SBSTA)
B
Subsidiary Body for Implementation (SBI)
C
The Conference of Parties (COP)
D
The Climate Change Secretariat
Question 79Single Answer
"A financial mechanism through which developing countries would be rewarded for emission reduction achieved by taking action to reduce deforestation and forest degradation" refers to :
A
Clean Development Mechanism
B
Global Forest Carbon Mechanism
C
Reduced Emission from Deforestation and Forest Degradation
D
Incentive - Compatible Selection Mechanism
Question 80Single Answer
Which of the following principle was introduced in 1972 by the Organization for Economic Cooperation and Development (OECD) guiding principles concerning Institutional Economic Aspects of Environmental Pollution ?
A
Frontier Diplomacy Principle
B
Polluter Pays Principle
C
Human Rights and Environment Principle
D
Principle of Environment Protection
Question 81Single Answer
Which section of Environmental (Protection) Act, 1986 deals with offences by companies ?
A
Article 13
B
Article 14
C
Article 16
D
Article 18
Question 82Single Answer
Which Article of the Constitution of India states that it shall be the duty of every citizen of India to protect and improve the natural environment and to have compassion for living creatures ?
A
Article 48A
B
Article 51A
C
Article 21A
D
Article 13A
Question 83Single Answer
Which among the following is the first major Environmental Protection act to be promulgated in India ?
A
Biological Diversity Act
B
Environmental Protection Act
C
Forest Conservation Act
D
Wildlife Protection Act
Question 84Single Answer
Which of the following sections of the Indian Penal Code refers to making atmosphere noxious to health as a punishable offence ?
A
Section 275
B
Section 276
C
Section 277
D
Section 278
Question 85Single Answer
Which of the following is NOT included during Environmental Impact Assessment (EIA) ?
A
A detailed assessment of the planned project and selected alternative compared to the baseline conditions
B
Qualitative description measuring higher, medium and low impacts
C
Quantitative description measuring physical values of water withdrawal, sewage produced and pollutants released
D
All the data collection, analysis and developed plans summarized together in a well-structured and concise documents
Question 86Single Answer
To find out the degree of linear relationship between age and height of trees, the parameter to be estimated is :
A
Standard Error
B
Correlation coefficient
C
Median
D
Standard deviation
Question 87Single Answer
The Coefficient of Variation can be measured by :
A
(Mean/Standard deviation) × 100
B
(Median/Standard deviation) × 100
C
(Standard deviation/Mean) × 100
D
(Standard deviation/Median) × 100
Question 88Single Answer
Which of the following is a nominal variable ?
A
Level of rainfall (Mild, Moderate, Severe)
B
Blood group type (A, B, AB, O)
C
Height of a tree
D
Socio - economic status (Low, Middle, High)
Question 89Single Answer
'Hysteresis' is the best defined as :
A
A change occurring at a steady rate where rate is defined by the directions of change
B
A change occurring at a steady rate followed by sudden increased rate catastrophically
C
A change that occurs at steady rate and maintains so
D
A change that is sudden non - linear between two stable states without the prospect of reverse
Question 90Single Answer
Which one of the following is correctly matched pair ?
A
Biodiversity Conservation - Basel Convention
B
Global Warming - Montreal Protocol
C
Climate Change - Kyoto Protocol
D
Groundwater Pollution - Ramsar Convention
Question 91Single Answer
Who among the following received Noble Prize for peace and started the Green Belt Movement ?
A
Rajendra K. Pachauri
B
Wagai M. Matthai
C
Jim Bohlen
D
Gro Harlem Brundtland
Question 92Single Answer
Genetic Engineering is possible because :
A
Restriction endonucleases purified from bacteria can be used in vitro
B
The phenomenon of transduction in bacteria is well understood
C
We can cut DNA at specific sites by endonucleases like DNase
D
We can see DNA by electron microscope
Question 93Single Answer
LEED, one of the Sustainable Habitat green rating systems, refers to :
A
Leadership in Energy and Efficiency Design
B
Leadership in Energy and Efficiency Document
C
Leadership in Energy and Environment Design
D
Leadership in Energy and Environment Document
Question 94Single Answer
'Prerak Dauur Samman', the annual award given under which of the following scheme of Government of India ?
A
Smart Cities
B
Namami Gange
C
Swachh Bharat Abhiyan
D
Green India Mission
Question 95Single Answer
Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R) :
Assertion (A) : Active ingredient in most pesticides are organic chlorine compounds .
Reason (R) : Organo chlorines have low solubility in water, high solubility in hydrocarbon like environment and have relatively high toxicity to insects and low toxicity to humans .
In light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below :
A
Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
B
Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is NOT the correct explanation of (A)
C
(A) is true, but (R) is false
D
(A) is false, but (R) is true
Question 96Single Answer
Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R) .
Assertion (A) : Temperature of large waterbody varies more slowly than that of the land of comparable size .
Reason (R) : Specific heat of water is high i.e., about five times of soil .
In light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below :
A
Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
B
Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is NOT the correct explanation of (A)
C
(A) is true, but (R) is false
D
(A) is false, but (R) is true
Question 97Single Answer
Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R) .
Assertion (A): Small increase in wind velocity and height of turbine produces a large increase in energy yield .
Reason (R) : Energy yield from wind is proportional to third power of wind speed and wind speed increases with height above ground .
In light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below :
A
Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
B
Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is NOT the correct explanation of (A)
C
(A) is true, but (R) is false
D
(A) is false, but (R) is true
Question 98Single Answer
Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R) .
Assertion (A) : a and ß particles, emitted during a radioactive decay of a nucleus are simply nucleus of Helium and electron and are called as ionizing radiations .
Reason (R) : a and ß particles produced in the radioactive decay are ejected with an incredible amount of energy of motion. When this energy is absorbed by matter encountered by the particle, it often ionises atoms and molecules .
In light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below :
A
Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
B
Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is NOT the correct explanation of (A)
C
(A) is true, but (R) is false
D
(A) is false, but (R) is true
Question 99Single Answer
Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R) .
Assertion (A): Cool pavements are generally composed of light coloured material with high permeability .
Reason (R) : Lighter coloured pavements reflect more light and absorb less heat. High permeability allow water to percolate and evaporate, thereby cooling pavement and surrounding air .
In light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below :
A
Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
B
Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is NOT the correct explanation of (A)
C
(A) is true, but (R) is false
D
(A) is false, but (R) is true
Question 100Single Answer
Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R) .
Assertion (A) : Dematerialization. the progressive decrease in size and weight of a product as a result of technological improvement is an example of source reduction .
Reason (R) : New product is more durable than the one being replaced .
In light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below :
A
Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
B
Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is NOT the correct explanation of (A)
C
(A) is true, but (R) is false
D
(A) is false, but (R) is true
Question 101Single Answer
Arrange the following elements of image interpretations in order of increasing complexity .
(a) Location
(b) Tone
(c) Situation
(d) Pattern
(e) Texture
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
A
(a), (b), (d), (c), (e)
B
(a), (b), (e), (d), (c)
C
(c), (e), (d), (b), (a)
D
(e), (b), (a), (d), (c)
Question 102Single Answer
Basalts are composed of the following minerals .
(a) Olivine
(b) Pyroxene
(c) Quartz
(d) Orthoclase
(e) Plagioclase
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
A
(a), (b) and (c) only
B
(a), (b) and (d) only
C
(a), (b) and (e) only
D
(b), (c) and (d) only
Question 103Single Answer
Arrange the following minerals with increasing order of stability for weathering .
(a) Illite
(b) Olivine
(c) Calcite
(d) Ca rich feldspar
(e) Na rich feldspar
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
A
(b), (c), (d), (e), (a)
B
(b), (c), (e), (d), (a)
C
(c), (b), (e), (d), (a)
D
(c), (b), (d), (e), (a)
Question 104Single Answer
Choose the correct sequence of filtration processes used for sequential removal of particles from coarser (1 µm) to finer grain sizes .
(a) Microfiltration
(b) Ultrafiltration
(c) Nanofiltration
(d) Reverse Osmosis
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
A
(d), (c), (b), (a)
B
(a), (b), (c), (d)
C
(d), (c), (a), (b)
D
(a), (b), (d), (c)
Question 105Single Answer
In waste pollution prevention hierarchy, arrange following from least preferred to most preferred .
(a) Waste Concentration
(b) Waste Separation
(c) Waste treatment
(d) Recycling or Reuse
(e) Landfill
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
A
(e), (a), (c), (b), (d)
B
(e), (c), (a), (b), (d)
C
(e), (c), (b), (a), (d)
D
(e), (c), (a), (d), (b)
Question 106Single Answer
Given below are two statements .
Statement I : Key to nitrogen cycle is nitrogen fixing bacteria, which has ability to fix N₂ or combine gases N₂ with hydrogen to form NH3 .
Statement II : Nitrogen cycle includes fixation of molecular N₂ to ammonia to nitrite to nitrate only. It does not include denitrification process .
In light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below :
A
Both Statement I and Statement II are true
B
Both Statement I and Statement II are false
C
Statement I is true, but Statement II is false
D
Statement I is false, but Statement II is true
Question 107Single Answer
Given below are two statements .
Statement I: Halons used as fire extinguishers are bromine containing hydrogen free substances and are involved in catalytic destruction of ozone in Stratosphere .
Statement II: In order to protect ozone layer in stratosphere, use of CFC was globally replaced by HCFCs, HFC's followed by Halons after Kyoto protocol .
In light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below :
A
Both Statement I and Statement II are true
B
Both Statement I and Statement II are false
C
Statement I is true, but Statement II is false
D
Statement I is false, but Statement II is true
Question 108Single Answer
Given below are two statements .
Statement I : Yellow carotenes and paleyellow xanthophyll pigments are with strong reflectance primarily in the blue wavelength regime of Electromagnetic Radiation (EMR) .
Statement II : There are many other pigments present in the palisade mesophyll cells that are usually marked by the abundance of chlorophyll pigments .
In light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below :
A
Both Statement I and Statement II areTRUE
B
Both Statement I and Statement II are false
C
Statement I is true, but Statement II is false
D
Statement I is false, but Statement II is true
Question 109Single Answer
Given below are two statements .
Statement I : Ecotypes are discrete entity because they have clear differences in morphology. physiology and phenology in relation to particular environmental conditions .
Statement II : The environmentally induced variations in ecotypes are not heritable and do not have adaptive value to a particular habitat .
In light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below :
A
Both Statement I and Statement II are true
B
Both Statement I and Statement II are false
C
Statement I is true but Statement II is false
D
Statement I is false but Statement II is
Question 110Single Answer
Given below are two statements .
Statement I : A confined aquifer is an aquifer which is confined between impervious bedi such as aquicludes or aquifuges .
Statement II : Recharge of this aquifer takes place only in the area where it is exposed at the ground surface .
In light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below :
A
Both Statement I and Statement II are true
B
Both Statement I and Statement il are false
C
Statement I is true, but Statement II is false
D
Statement I is false, but Statement II is true
Question 111Single Answer
Given below are two statements .
Statement I : Noise pollution exists in the form of energy and is highly subjective in nature unlike air pollution .
Statement II : Noise pollution exists irrespective of loudness of sound and causes both physiological and psychological stress among individual or group of individuals .
In light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below :
A
Both Statement I and Statement II are true
B
Both Statement I and Statement II are false
C
Statement I is true, but Statement II is false
D
Statement I is false, but Statement II is true
Question 112Single Answer
Given below are two statements about Baghouse filter used to control air pollution .
Statement I : Baghouse filters are fabric bag filter which can be repeatedly cleaned and reused. Collection efficiency can be very high (99.9% for all size of particles) .
Statement II : Collection efficiency of baghouse filters decreases as dust collected on filters and lead to decrease in pressure drop which increases airflow or decreases cost of forcing air through filters .
In light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below :
A
Both Statement I and Statement II are true
B
Both Statement I and Statement II are false
C
Statement I is true, but Statement II is false
D
Statement I is false, but Statement II is true
Question 113Single Answer
Given below are two statements .
Statement I : An incineration process used to destroy highly toxic and hazardous waste differs from the municipal solid waste incineration process .
Statement II : Incineration emits small but significant amounts of numerous toxic chemicals and produces ash residues (bottom and flyash) which must be buried in approved landfills .
In light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below :
A
Both Statement I and Statement II are true
B
Both Statement I and Statement II are false
C
Statement I is true, but Statement II is false
D
Statement I is false, but Statement II is true
Question 114Single Answer
Given below are two statements .
Statement I : Student t - test is a nonparametric test .
Statement II : Paired t - test compares the two correlated sample means .
In light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below :
A
Both Statement I and Statement II are true
B
Both Statement I and Statement II are false
C
Statement I is true, but Statement II is false
D
Statement I is false, but Statement II is true
Question 115Single Answer
Which of the following compounds in dirty dozens' list of POPs are formed as byproduct of other compounds and not applied directly in environment ?
(a) DDT
(b) Dioxins
(c) Hexachlorobenzene
(d) Furans
(e) Heptachlor
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
A
(c) and (e) only
B
(b) and (d) only
C
(a), (c) and (e) only
D
(a) and (e) only
Question 116Single Answer
Which of the following is correct for AAS ?
(a) It can only analyze single element at a time .
(b) It has low linear dynamic range .
(c) It can analyze Hg in vapor phase .
(d) It can analyze arsenic in hydride form .
(e) It works on principle of Beer Lambert's law .
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
A
(b), (c), (d) and (e) only
B
(a), (d) and (e) only
C
(a), (b), (c), (d) and (e)
D
(a), (b), (d) and (e) only
Question 117Single Answer
The individual plant populations have following group characteristics :
(a) Density
(b) Age
(c) Ratios
(d) Natality
(e) Dominance
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
A
(a), (b), (c) and (d) only
B
(a), (c), (d) and (e) only
C
(a), (b), (d) and (e) only
D
(b), (c), (d) and (e) only
Question 118Single Answer
In the layered structure of the Earth, mantle is mostly made up of :
(a) Na and K
(b) Mg and Fe
(c) Ni
(d) Si
(e) Al
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
A
(a) and (b) only
B
(b) and (c) only
C
(b) and (d) only
D
(a) and (e) only
Question 119Single Answer
Which of the following is not true about Solar Energy ?
(a) It has low environmental impact .
(b) It is intermittent in its availability and requires efficient storage for continuous power supply .
(c) Receives high regulatory credit from government in recognition of low amount of air pollution and GHG emission .
(d) It has low operating cost .
(e) It provides low density of energy per unit collection surface area .
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
A
(a) and (b) only
B
(b) and (e) only
C
(c) only
D
(b) only
Question 120Single Answer
Deep open Benthos Communities :
(a) extend from the boundary of continental shelf to the deepest oceans .
(b) often are entirely heterotrophic living on and in mud surface and bacteria .
(c) include plankton and large swimming animals .
(d) are rich in biodiversity through strange, occupying permanent cold and dark water .
(e) are nutrient rich water supporting growth of organisms .
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
A
(b), (c) and (d) only
B
(a), (b) and (c) only
C
(a), (b) and (d) only
D
(b), (d) and (e) only
Question 121Single Answer
BOD test is commonly used to :
(a) determine amount of oxygen required for biological treatment of organic matter present in waste water .
(b) determine size of waste water treatment facility .
(c) assess efficiency of treatment process .
(d) determine compliance with wastewater discharge limits .
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
A
(d) only
B
(a), (b) and (c) only
C
(b), (c) and (d) only
D
(a), (b), (c) and (d)
Question 122Single Answer
Which of the following recognise low - waste approach ?
(a) Linear Economy/Path of development
(b) Circular Economy/Path of development
(c) Waste Management
(d) Waste Reduction
(e) Primary pollution and waste prevention
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
A
(a) and (c) only
B
(b), (d) and (e) only
C
(a), (c) and (e) only
D
(c) and (d) only
Question 123Single Answer
Which one of the following are four major waste types identified based on Physical characteristics ?
(a) Solid Waste
(b) Sludge and Slurry Waste
(c) Combustible Waste
(d) Reactive Waste
(e) Waste Water
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
A
(a), (b), (c) and (d) only
B
(a). (c) and (d) only
C
(a), (b), (c) and (e) only
D
(b), (c), (d) and (e) only
Question 124Single Answer
EIA is usually required for a development project when :
(a) Limited impacts are expected in the environment .
(b) There are potentials for transboundary impact .
(c) Many people are likely to be affected by the project .
(d) No cumulative impacts are expected .
(e) There are protected areas in the project area of influence .
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
A
(a), (b) and (d) only
B
(b), (c) and (e) only
C
(b) and (d) only
D
(c), (d) and (e) only
Question 125Single Answer
The facts related to P - value :
(a) It is the probability of type - II error which is fixed in advance .
(b) It Is the probability of type - I error which is calculated based on data .
(c) It is the probability of type - I error which is fixed in advance .
(d) It should be less than the level of significance for having significant result .
(e) It is the probability of type - II error which is calculated based on data .
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
A
(b) and (d) only
B
(a) and (c) only
C
(c) and (e) only
D
(c) and (d) only
Question 126Single Answer
The 95% confidence interval of sample mean can be calculated by :
(a) Sample mean ± 1.96 (Standard deviation)
(b) Sample mean ± 1.96 (Standard Error)
(c) Sample mean ± 61.96 (Standard Error / N / )
(d) Sample mean ± 1.96 (Standard deviation / )
(e) Sample mean + 1.96 (Variance / )
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
A
(a) and (e) only
B
(b) and (d) only
C
(a) and (c) only
D
(b) and (c) only
Question 127Single Answer
Which of the following are parametric tests ?
(a) x2- test
(b) Paired t - test
(c) McNemar's Test
(d) F - test
(e) Wilcoxon - signed - rank test
Choose the correct answer from the options given below ;
A
(a) and (c) only
B
(b) and (c) only
C
(d) and (e) only
D
(b) and (d) only
Question 128Single Answer
Which of the following are the properties of Normal Distribution ?
(a) Median ± 2SE covers the 95% of the observations .
(b) Mode + 2SE covers the 95% of the observations .
(c) Mean ± 2SD covers the 95% of the observations .
(d) It is bell shaped and symmetric .
(e) Mean ± 2SE covers the 95% of the observations .
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
A
(b) and (c) only
B
(c) and (d) only
C
(d) and (e) only
D
(a) and (d) only
Question 129Single Answer
Which of the following is an example of Type - II erro r?
(a) Probability of not rejecting null hypothesis, when it is actually false .
(b) Probability of rejecting null hypothesis. when it is actually true .
(c) When a drug is actually effective, but declared as not effective .
(d) When a drug is actually not effective, but declared as effective .
(e) When a person is actually not having disease, but declared as diseased by the physician .
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
A
(b) and (c) only
B
(c) and (d) only
C
(a) and (c) only
D
(a) and (e) only
Question 130Single Answer
Match List - I with List - II .
List - I (Wavelength) List - II (Response)
(a) 0.45 - 052 μm I. Absorption band of healthy green vegetation .
(b) 0.63 - 0.69 μm II. Sensitive to turgidity in amount of water in plants .
c) 1 53 -1.75 um III. Increased penetration of water bodies .
(d) 2.08 - 2.35 um IV. For discrimination of geology .
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
A
(a) (b) (c) (d)
iv i ii iii
B
i iv ii iii
C
iii i ii iv
D
iii ii i iv
Question 131Single Answer
Match List - I with List - II .
List - I List - II
(a) Isobars I. Air moves from sea to land .
(b) Land Breeze II. Ocean current with circular flow .
c) Sea Breeze III. Air moves from land to sea .
(d) Gyres IV. Lines connect locations with equal pressure .
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
A
(a) (b) (c) (d)
i ii iii iv
B
iv iii i ii
C
iv ii i iii
D
iii ii i iv
Question 132Single Answer
Match List - I with List - II.
List - I List - II
(a) Exosphere I. Ozone Formation
(b) Stratosphere II. Propogation of radio waves
(c) Troposphere III. High temperatures due to solar radiation
(d) Thermosphere IV. Air movements and cloud formation
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
A
(a) (b) (c) (d)
iv ii i iii
B
iii i iv ii
C
i ii iii iv
D
iii i ii iv
Question 133Single Answer
Match List - I with List - II .
List - I (Theory) List - II (Proponent)
(a) Monoclimax Theory I. Watt (1947)
(b) Polyclimax Theory II. Whittaker (1953)
(c) Climaxpattern Theory III. Tansley (1920)
(d) Cyclic Climax Theory IV. Clements (1938)
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
A
(a) (b) (c) (d)
iv ii iii i
B
iv iii ii i
C
ii iii i iv
D
iii iv i ii
Question 134Single Answer
Match List - I with List - II.
List - I (Name) List - II (Major Characteristics)
(a) Andisols I. Permafrost, often with cryoturbation
(b) Gelisols II. High in swelling clays, deep cracks when soil is dry
(c) Histosols III. From volcanic ejecta, dominated by allophane or Al - humic complexes
(d) Vertisols IV. Peat or bog ; >20% organic matter
Choose the correct answer from the options given below
A
(a) (b) (c) (d)
ii iii iv i
B
iii i iv ii
C
iv iii ii i
D
i ii iii iv
Question 135Single Answer
Match List - I with List - II .
List - I (Species) List - II (Chemical formula)
(a) Arsenate I. P304
(b) Red lead II. (AsO4)3-
(c) White lead III. Pb3(CO3)2(OH)2
(d) Arsenite IV. (AsO3)3-
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
A
(a) (b) (c) (d)
iv i iii ii
B
ii i iii iv
C
ii iii i iv
D
iv iii i ii
Question 136Single Answer
Match List - I with List - II .
List - I (Green House Gas) List - II (Global Warming Potential
(GWP) (in 20yrs time period)
(a) CO2 I . 360
(b) CH4 II. 50
(c) N2O III. 280
(d) CH3CCI3 IV. 1
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
A
(a) (b) (c) (d)
ii i iii iv
B
i ii iv iii
C
iii ii i iv
D
iv ii iii i
Question 137Single Answer
Match List - I with List - II .
List - I List - II
(a) Above ground landfills I. Control of surface draining
(b) Below ground landfills II. Control inflowing water
(c) Slope landfills III. Liner and leachate content system
(d) Valley landfills IV. Low permeability liners
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
A
(a) (b) (c) (d)
i ii iv iii
B
i ii iii iv
C
iii ii iv i
D
iv iii ii i
Question 138Single Answer
Match List - I with List - II .
List - I (Statistical Method) List - II (Purpose)
(a) Standard Deviation I. To predict the dependent variable on the basis of independent variables .
(b) Standard Error II. To describe the variability in a sample .
(c) Regression Analysis III. To construct the 95% confidence interval .
(d) Bonferroni's IV. Used after ANOVA, method if p < 0.05 .
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
A
(a) (b) (c) (d)
i iii iv ii
B
iii iv ii i
C
ii iii i iv
D
iv ii iii i
Question 139Single Answer
Match List - I with List - II .
List - I List - II
(a) Geological Hazard I. Nuclear Explosion
(b) Chemical Hazard II. Pandemic
(c) Hydro-meteorological Hazard III. Tsunami
(d) Biological Hazard IV. Drought
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
A
(a) (b) (c) (d)
iv iii ii i
B
iii i iv ii
C
i iii iv ii
D
iii i ii iv
Question 140Single Answer
Match List - I with List - II .
List - I List - II
(a) Pong dam Lake I. Tamil Nadu
(b) Harike Lake II. Andhra Pradesh
(c) Kollerur Lake III. Himachal Pradesh
(d) Point Calimere IV. Punjab
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
A
(a) (b) (c) (d)
i iv ii iii
B
iii ii iv i
C
iii iv ii i
D
i ii iv iii
Question 141Single Answer
The pioneer community in human evolution is :
A
Pastoralists (Nomadic)
B
Agrosociety
C
Hunting and Gathering Society
D
Industrial Society
Question 142Single Answer
Name the person, who launched the "Green Belt Movement" in Kenya, and got the Nobel Peace Prize :
A
Wangari Maathai
B
Gehard Ertl
C
Koichi Tanaka
D
Ryojii Noyori
Question 143Single Answer
Identify the environmental system with lowest entropy :
A
Land in monoculture agriculture sustained by high energy input
B
Soils containing a balanced community of living organisms
C
Coal reduced to CO2
D
Polluted rivers
Question 144Single Answer
Which chemical form of mercury is completely water soluble ?
A
Elemental mercury in liquid state
B
Monomethyl mercury
C
Elemental mercury in vapour state
D
Dimethyl mercury
Question 145Single Answer
The water is classified as "aggressive" if :
A
The Ca2+ concentration is much less than saturation CaCO3
B
The Ca2+ concentration is equal to the CaCO3 saturation
C
The Ca2+ concentration is more than the CaCO3 saturation
D
The Ca2+ concentration is double of the CaCO3 saturation
Question 146Single Answer
The portion of UV spectrum which readily destroys DNA and causes skin cancer is :
A
320 mm to 400 mm
B
280 mm to 320 mm
C
100 mm to 280 mm
D
400 mm to 700 mm
Question 147Single Answer
Free energy (AG) value of zero indicates :
A
Spontaneous reaction in forward direction
B
The state of equilibrium
C
Spontaneous reaction in backward direction
D
No reaction at all
Question 148Single Answer
A gas fired, combined heat and power plant produces 5000 MWh electricity and heat of 30,000 GJ. If the input energy required to run the power plant is 60,000 GJ, the efficiency of the plant is :
A
35%
B
40%
C
50%
D
80%
Question 149Single Answer
Which of the following compounds has the least Ozone Depleting Potential ?
A
CFC - 11
B
Halons
C
HCFCs
D
Methyl Bromide
Question 150Single Answer
Which one among the following is not an example of detrital sedimentary rocks ?