Which of the following is an independent variable in teaching-learning process?
A
Teacher
B
Student
C
Institution
D
Parents
Question 8Single Answer
Which of the following method should be used by each teacher?
A
Analytical-synthetic
B
Synthetic-analytical
C
Only analytical
D
Only synthetic
Question 9Single Answer
Match List I with List II
List I (Teaching maxims) List II (Main proponents)
A From whole to part I Gestalt
B Self-Study II Dalton
C Training of senses III Montessori and Froebel
Codes:
A
A-I, B-II, C-II
B
A-I, B-II, C-II
C
A-II, B-II, C-II
D
A-II, B-II, C-II
Question 10Single Answer
Which of the following reflects the nature of teaching ?
A
It is an art
B
It is a science
C
It is an art as well as science
D
It is neither art nor science
Question 11Single Answer
Which of the following orders are the three levels of teaching?
(i) Memory level of teaching
(ii) Understanding level of teaching
(iii) Reflective level of teaching
(iv) Pedagogical level of teaching
A
(i), (ii), and (iii)
B
(ii), (iii), and (iv)
C
(i), (iii), and (iv)
D
(i), (ii), and (iv)
Question 12Single Answer
Nowadays, teaching is becoming more and more
A
Learner-centred
B
Instructor-centred
C
Group-centred
D
None of the above
Question 13Single Answer
When the learner is self-directed, it is termed as
A
Pedagogical learning
B
Andragogical learning
C
Distance education learning
D
None of the above
Question 14Single Answer
Instructional objective are written for the student and they state what the student is expected to do. These objectives should be
A
Specific
B
Observable
C
Measurable
D
All of the above
Question 15Single Answer
In context of dynamic teaching environment, which of the following statement is true?
A
Teacher is a dependent variable and student is an independent variable.
B
Teacher is an independent variable and student is a dependent variable.
C
Both teacher and student are intervening variables.
D
None of the above
Question 16Single Answer
At which of the following teaching levels, classroom environment is required to be sufficiently 'open and independent'?
A
Memory level
B
Understanding level
C
Reflective level
D
All of the above
Question 17Single Answer
What is meant by the term 'curriculum'?
A
The subject of study offered by an education institution.
B
Organized whole of learning and other experiences provided by educational institutions to realize set goals.
C
The prescribed syllabi in the various subjects plus practical courses and project/dissertation.
D
Theory and practical courses to be completed to qualify for a level of education.
Question 18Single Answer
The classification of cognitive domain was presented by
A
Benjamin S. Bloom
B
Skinner
C
Krathwohl
D
Simpson
Question 19Single Answer
To make use of previously learned material in new situation is
A
Comprehension
B
Application
C
Knowledge
D
Analysis
Question 20Single Answer
The highest level of cognitive domain is
A
Synthesis
B
Analysis
C
Comprehension
D
Evaluation
Question 21Single Answer
Which of the following statements is true?
A
Computer aided education can replace a teacher
B
Computer aided education can assist a teacher
C
On-line teaching and face-to-face teaching both are effective
D
Face-to-face teaching is less effective than online teaching
Question 22Single Answer
In order to solve the problem of aimlessness in education, we should develop -
A
democratic citizenship
B
centralized education
C
education
D
reform the administrative set-up
Question 23Single Answer
If a student misbehaves with other students in the class, the teacher should -
A
report the matter to the parents
B
punish him at the time of the morning assembly in the school
C
deal with him with sympathetic understanding
D
treat him with sympathy and understanding
Question 24Single Answer
How can a failed student be encouraged to study sincerely in the same class?
A
by teacher’s counseling
B
by psychological counseling
C
by guardian’s counseling
D
by Students’ Association
Question 25Single Answer
Our examination system is -
A
defective
B
without any defect
C
in the interest of the students
D
well-planned
Question 26Single Answer
Which Article in the Constitution deals with elementary education ?
A
Article 45
B
Article 370
C
Article 19
D
Article 226
Question 27Single Answer
For physically handicapped student of the school, there should be
A
proper facility for entering the class-room and toilet
B
proper arrangement for his food and lodging
C
arrangement for his free education
D
an arrangement for necessary equipments
Question 28Single Answer
A naughty student in the class is
A
foolish and dull
B
active and intelligent
C
unadjusted and unappreciated
D
rich and careless
Question 29Single Answer
Why is syllabus necessary in school ?
A
It helps in the proper functioning of the school
B
It makes the classroom education under control
C
A teacher can rule every work outside the class in a proper manner
D
All of the above are possible
Question 30Single Answer
If a seminar or conference is being conducted in your city concerning education, what will you do ?
A
I will take part in it without the permission of the Principal
B
I shall seek the permission of the Principal
C
I shall take leave from the school
D
I shall take no interest in it
Question 31Single Answer
How will you evaluate a student on the basis of the question paper type ?
A
On the basis of objective type questions
B
Essay type questions
C
Short answer type questions
D
All of the above
Question 32Single Answer
In order to make teaching more effective in the class, what would be done?
A
After the teaching, same type of questions should be given to the students for practice
B
Home-work should be given frequently
C
Home-work should be given now and them
D
After school hours, same type of questions should be got solved from the students
Question 33Single Answer
Why did you adopt teaching profession ?
A
Your parents wanted it
B
At the advice of your friend
C
No member in your family is in this profession
D
You have interest in it
Question 34Single Answer
You will pay need to such persons who are
A
very intelligent
B
very weak in studies
C
your relatives
D
well - behaved
Question 35Single Answer
In order to become skillful in his job, a teacher
A
should study new books on his subject
B
should take part in the debates of the school
C
should write on his subject
D
All of the above
Question 36Single Answer
Why step will you take to make your students health ?
A
Make the parents aware of the importance of good health
B
Organise debate on the importance of good health
C
Give them training regarding health
D
Give examples of healthy students
Question 37Single Answer
A teacher impresses his students
A
by showing his authority and dominance
B
by his regularity in teaching
C
by misbehaving with his students
D
by indulging in gossip with the students
Question 38Single Answer
If you fail to complete your syllabus in time, what will you do ?
A
Take extra classes to complete the syllabus
B
Leave the syllabus incomplete
C
Teach selected questions out of the remaining syllabus
D
Ask the students to complete the syllabus themselves
Question 39Single Answer
If you are the administrator of the school. In your school, irregularities are on the rise.
A
Coordination between Managing Committee, Principal, Teachers and Students
B
Solve problems of students
C
Solve problems of teachers
D
Impose severe punishment
Question 40Single Answer
Should student be allowed to ask questions in the class ?
A
No
B
Yes
C
Sometimes
D
As per the wish of the teacher
Question 41Single Answer
Which is the main objective of research?
A
To review the literature
B
To summarize what is already known
C
To get an academic degree
D
To discover new facts or to make fresh interpretation of known facts
Question 42Single Answer
Sampling error decreases with the
A
decrease in sample size
B
increase in sample size
C
process of randomization
D
process of analysis
Question 43Single Answer
The principles of fundamental research are used in
A
action research
B
applied research
C
philosophical research
D
historical research
Question 44Single Answer
Users who use media for their own ends are indentified as
A
Passive audience
B
Active audience
C
Positive audience
D
Negative audience
Question 45Single Answer
Classroom communication can be described as
A
Exploration
B
Institutionalisation
C
Unsignified narration
D
Discourse
Question 46Single Answer
Ideological codes shape our collective
A
Productions
B
Perceptions
C
Consumptions
D
Creations
Question 47Single Answer
In communication, myths have power, but are
A
Uncultural.
B
Insignificant.
C
imprecise.
D
Unpreferred.
Question 48Single Answer
The first multi-lingual news agency of India was
A
Samachar
B
API
C
Hindustan Samachar
D
Samachar Bharati
Question 49Single Answer
Organisational communication can also be equated with
A
intra-personal communication
B
inter-personal communication
C
group communication
D
mass communication
Question 50Single Answer
If two propositions having the same subject and predicate terms are such that one is the denial of the other, the relationship between them is called
A
Contradictory
B
Contrary
C
Sub-contrary
D
Sub-alternation
Important Questions Package
Jharkhand Eligibility Test Life Sciences Exam Online Question Bank Package
Buy Jharkhand Eligibility Test Life Sciences Important Questions, MCQ, question answer in Hindi & English. It will help you to score high marks in Jharkhand Eligibility Test Life Sciences question bank 2026 in Online, PDF & Print study material.
+ Free Monthly Current Affairs, GK & more PDF Download
Sr.
Package Name
Amount
1.
Jharkhand Eligibility Test Life Sciences Exam - Hindi
Description : 1000 Question with Answer.
₹101[₹500]
2.
Jharkhand Eligibility Test Life Sciences Exam - Hindi
Description : 2000 Question with Answer.
₹151[₹500]
3.
Jharkhand Eligibility Test Life Sciences Exam - English
Description : 1000 Question with Answer.
₹101[₹500]
4.
Jharkhand Eligibility Test Life Sciences Exam - English
Description : 2000 Question with Answer.
₹151[₹500]
5.
Jharkhand Eligibility Test Life Sciences Exam - Hindi
Description : 1000 Question & Answer Download in PDF (Send by Email)
₹151[₹450]
6.
Jharkhand Eligibility Test Life Sciences Exam - English
Description : 1000 Question & Answer Download in PDF (Send by Email)
₹151[₹450]
7.
Jharkhand Eligibility Test Life Sciences Exam Question Bank Book - Hindi
Description : 1000 Question with Answer (Printed Material)
₹450[₹800]
8.
Jharkhand Eligibility Test Life Sciences Exam Question Bank Book - English
Description : 1000 Question with Answer (Printed Material)
₹390[₹600]
Life Sciences
Question 51Single Answer
An infinite number of identical circular discs each of radius tightly packed such that the centres of the discs are at integer values of coordinates x and y. The ratio of the area of the uncovered patches to the total area is :
A
B
C
1 -
D
Question 52Single Answer
In each of the following groups of words is a hidden number, based on which you should arrange them in descending order. Pick the correct answer :
E. Papers I xeroxed
F. Wi - Fi veteran
G. Yourself ourselves
H. Breaks even
A
H, F, G, H
B
E, G, F, H
C
H, F, G, E
D
H, E, F, G
Question 53Single Answer
In each of the following groups of words is a hidden number, based on which you should arrange them in ascending order. Pick the right answer :
1. Tinsel event
2. Man in England
3. Good height
4. Last encounter
A
1, 2, 3, 4
B
3, 2, 4, 1
C
1, 3, 4, 2
D
3, 4, 2, 1
Question 54Single Answer
Every month the price of a particular commodity falls in this order : 1024, 640, 250, ........... What is the next value?
A
156.25
B
Approximately 39
C
64
D
40
Question 55Single Answer
A cart wheel rolls along a straight line. If the distance covered is equal to the diameter of the wheel, what is the angle through which the wheel has turned?
A
90°
B
between 90° and 120°
C
between 120° and 150°
D
between 150° and 180°
Question 56Single Answer
Marks obtained by two students S1 and S2 in a four semester course are plotted in following graph Which of the following statements is true?
A
S2 got higher marks than S1 in all four semesters.
B
Over four semesters, S1 improved by a higher percentage compared to S2.
C
Total marks of S1 and S2 are equal.
D
S1 and S2 did not get the same marks in any semester.
Question 57Single Answer
A 16.2 m long wooden log has a uniform diameter of 2 m. To what length the log should be cut to obtain a piece of 22 m3 volume?
A
3.5 m
B
7.0 m
C
14.0 m
D
22.0 m
Question 58Single Answer
In the given figure, the area of the shaded region (in cm2 ), is :
A
324
B
428
C
462
D
500
Question 59Single Answer
A granite block of 2 m x 5 m x 3 m size is cut into 5 cm thick slabs of 2 m x 5 m size. These slabs are laid over a 2 m wide pavement. What is the length of the pavement that can be covered with these slabs?
A
100 m
B
200 m
C
300 m
D
500 m
Question 60Single Answer
From the following statements
1. Hydrogen, Deuterium and Tritium differ in the number of protons.
2. Hydrogen, Deuterium and Tritium differ in the number of neutrons.
3. Both Deuterium and Tritium are radioactive and decay to Hydrogen and Deuterium, respectively.
4. Tritium is radioactive and decays to Helium.
5. Carbon-14 decays to Nitrogen-14.
6. Carbon-14 decays to Carbon-13.
Pick the combination with ALL correct statements.
A
1, 2 and 6
B
2, 4 and 5
C
1, 3 and 4
D
3, 5 and 6
Question 61Single Answer
The random errors associated with the measurement of P and Q are 10% and 2%, respectively. What is the percentage random error in P/Q?
A
12.0
B
9.8
C
8.0
D
10.2
Question 62Single Answer
When Ramesh was at the age of 8 years, he hammered a nail into a large tree to mark his height. If the tree grows 2 cm/year, how much higher would the nail be after 6 years?
A
5 cm higher
B
0 cm higher
C
10 cm higher
D
8 cm higher
Question 63Single Answer
AB is the diameter of a circle. The chord CD is perpendicular to AB intersecting it at P. If CP = 2 and PB = 1, the radius of the circle is :
A
1
B
2.5
C
2
D
5
Question 64Single Answer
A shopkeeper purchases a product for Rs.100 and sells it making a profit of 10 %. The customer resells it to the same shopkeeper incurring a loss of 10 %. In these dealings the shopkeeper makes :
A
No profit, no loss
B
Rs. 11
C
Rs. 1
D
Rs. 20
Question 65Single Answer
The product of the perimeter of a triangle, the radius of its in-circle, and a number gives the area of the triangle. The number is :
A
1/4
B
1/3
C
1/2
D
1
Question 66Single Answer
Starting from a point A you fly one mile south, then one mile east, then one mile north which brings you back to point A. Which of the following MUST be true ?
A
You are at the North pole
B
You are in the Eastern hemisphere
C
You are in the Western hemisphere
D
You are at the South pole
Question 67Single Answer
Three boxes are coloured red, blue and green and so are three balls. In how many ways can one put the balls one in each box such that no ball goes into the box of its own colour ?
A
1
B
2
C
3
D
4
Question 68Single Answer
There are two buckets A and B. Initially A has 2 litres of water and B is empty. At every hour 1 litre of water is transferred from A to B followed by returning 1/2 litre back to A from B half an hour later. The earliest A will get empty in :
A
5 hours
B
4 hours
C
3 hours
D
2 hours
Question 69Single Answer
Density of a rice grain is 1.5g/cc and bulk density of rice heap is 0.80 g/cc. If a 1 litre container is completely filled with rice, what will be the approximate volume of pore space in the container ?
A
350 cc
B
465 cc
C
550 cc
D
665 cc
Question 70Single Answer
What is the minimum number of moves required to transform figure 1 to figure 2 ? A move is defined as removing a coin and placing it such that it touches two other coins in its new position .
A
1
B
2
C
3
D
4
Question 71Single Answer
It takes 5 days for a steamboat to travel from A to B along a river. It takes 7 days to return from B to A. How many days will it take for a raft to drift from A to B (assuming all speed are constant) ?
A
13
B
35
C
6
D
12
Question 72Single Answer
How many times starting at 1: 00 pm would the minute and hour hands of a clock make an angle of 40° with each other in the next 6 hours ?
A
6
B
7
C
11
D
1
Question 73Single Answer
The graph shows cumulative frequency, percentage of research scholars and the number of papers published by them. Which of the following statements is true ?
A
Majority of the scholar published more than 4 papers
B
60 % of the scholar published at least 2 papers
C
80 % of the scholar published at least 6 papers
D
30 % of the scholars have not published any paper
Question 74Single Answer
The random errors associated with the measurement of P and Q are 10 % and 2%. respectively. What is the maximum percentage random error in P/Q ?
A
12.0
B
9.8
C
8.0
D
10.2
Question 75Single Answer
If a person travels x % faster than normal, he reaches y minutes earlier than normal. What is his normal time of travel ?
A
B
C
D
Question 76Single Answer
Pre - Ph.D exam score of 10 students are plotted against their M.Sc. marks. Which of the following is true ?
A
Two students have scored better in Pre - Ph.D than their M.Sc. exam
B
(b) All those students who scored 50 in Pre - Ph.D scored more marks in their M.Sc. exam
C
Two students scored the same marks in their Pre - Ph.D and M.Sc. exams
D
The student who scored maximum in M.Sc. is the only student to get maximum in Pre - Ph.D exam
Question 77Single Answer
What is the average value of y for the range of x shown in the following plot ?
A
Zero
B
1
C
1.5
D
2
Question 78Single Answer
A fair die was thrown three times and the outcome was repeatedly six. If the die is thrown again what is the probability of getting six ?
A
1/6
B
1/216
C
1/1296
D
1
Question 79Single Answer
What is the volume of soil in an open pit of size 2 m × 2 m × 10 cm ?
A
40 m3
B
0.4 m3
C
0 m3
D
4.0 m3
Question 80Single Answer
If a plant with green leaves is kept in a dark room with only green light on, which one of the following would we observe ?
A
The plant appears brighter than the surroundings
B
The plant appears darker than the surroundings
C
We cannot distinguish the plant from the surroundings
D
It will have above normal photosynthetic activity
Question 81Single Answer
The distance from city P to city Q is 27 km. A and B start walking from P towards Q at speeds of 5 km/hr and 7 km/hr, respectively. B reaches Q, returns immediately, and meets A at R. What is the distance between Pand R ? (assume all three cities to be in one straight line)
A
12.5 km
B
22.5 km
C
4.5 km
D
13.5 km
Question 82Single Answer
A floor of size 13 x 24 is to be paved using square tiles only. What is the smallest number of tiles needed to do this ?
A
6
B
15
C
8
D
9
Question 83Single Answer
Following statements are made about uncompetitive inhibition of an enzyme :
(a) Uncompetitive inhibitor binds to both free enzyme as well as an enzyme - substrate complex.
(b) Addition of uncompetitive inhibitor lowers the Vmax of the reaction.
(c) Apparent KM of the enzyme is lowered.
(d) Apparent KM of the enzyme remains unchanged.
Which one of the following option represents the correct combination of the statments ?
A
(b) and (c)
B
(a) and (c)
C
(a) and (b)
D
(a) and (d)
Question 84Single Answer
Following are the pKa's of the ionizable groups in lysine :
pKa1 = 2.16 (α – carboxylic group)
pKa2 = 9.06(α – amino group)
pKa3 = 10.54(ε – amino group)
Which one of the following options represents the pl of lysine ?
A
7.25
B
5.61
C
6.35
D
9.8
Question 85Single Answer
The enzyme alkaline phosphatase was tested for its catalytic activity using the substrate para-nitrophenylphosphate. The KM obtained was 10 mM and Vmax was 100 µ mol/min. Which one of the following options represents the initial velocity of the reaction at a substrate concentration of 10 mM?
A
50 µ mol/min
B
100 µ mol/min
C
500 µ mol/min
D
20 µ mol/min
Question 86Single Answer
How many hydrogen bonds involving the backbone CO and NH can be observed in an α - helix consisting, of 15 amino acid residues ?
A
10
B
11
C
12
D
13
Question 87Single Answer
Progression across Gl/S boundary followed by entry into S-phase is promoted by the activation of which one of the following protein complexes?
A
Cdk4/Cyclin D
B
Cdk2/ Cyclin E
C
Cdk4, 6/Cyclin
D
Cdk4, 6/Cyclin D.,E
Question 88Single Answer
In eukaryotic cells, covalently attached lipids help to anchor some water soluble proteins to the plasma membrane. One group of cytosolic proteins are anchored to the cytosolic face of membrane by a fatty acyl group (e.g. myristate or palmitate). These groups are generally covalently attached to which amino acids present at the N-terminus of the polypeptide chain ?
A
Glycine
B
Tyrosine
C
Serine
D
Lysine
Question 89Single Answer
The movement of proteins bigger than 50 kDa across the nuclear envelope requires :
A
Sec 61
B
Tom 20
C
Importin β
D
Tim 44
Question 90Single Answer
Iron - sulphur clusters [Fe - S] are the key prosthetic groups that carry electrons in all of the below EXCEPT :
A
NADH – CoQ reductase
B
Succinate – CoQ reductase
C
Cytochrome C oxidase
D
CoQH2 – Cytochrome C reductase
Question 91Single Answer
In bacteria many of the tRNA genes do not contain the CCA sequence found at the 3' end of tRNA. In this context which one of the following statements represents the correct explanation ?
A
In these tRNAs amino acylation occurs at the 3' end of the tRNA irrespective of the presence of the - CCA sequence
B
CCA sequence is added to these tRNA transcripts in a DNA template independent manner
C
These tRNAs exploit the process of transsplicing to include a CCA sequence at their 3' end
D
The absence of CCA sequence occurred only in the last common ancestor (LCA) during the course of evolution and the current day tRNA genes always possess a sequence to encode the CCA end of the tRNA
Question 92Single Answer
Some cells possess peptides which contain D-form of amino acids. How do they arise ?
A
These peptides are produced by ribosomes by incorporating D - amino acids at specific positions
B
Ribosome makes peptides with L - amino acids only. However, some of the amino acids in the peptides are replaced by D - amino acids by a pathway that involves excision of the L - amino acids
C
The peptides with the D - amino acids are produced in a ribosome - independent manner
D
Peptides with D-amino acids exist only in archeae where they are made by the presence of racemases
Question 93Single Answer
All of the following statements about bacterial transcription termination are true EXCEPT :
A
some - terminator sequences require Rho protein for termination
B
inverted repeat and 'T' rich non - template strand define intrinsic terminators
C
Rho - dependent terminators may possess inverted repeat elements
D
Nus A is necessary for intrinsic transcription termination
Question 94Single Answer
Which one of the following proteins is essential for both the initiation of DNA replication as well as the continued advance of the replication fork ?
A
ORC
B
Geminin
C
CDc45
D
Cdc6
Question 95Single Answer
Which one of the following combinations represents the major protein or protein complex involved in chromatin condensation in yeast and human, respectively ?
A
HP1 and SIR Complex
B
SIR complex and HP1
C
HP1 and Su(var)
D
SIR complex and Su(var)
Question 96Single Answer
Which of the following is the causative agent of filariasis ?
A
Listeria monocytogenes
B
Cryptococcus neoformans
C
Francisella tularensis
D
Brugiya malayi
Question 97Single Answer
The cytoplasmic domain of the receptor of which of the following proteins does NOT function as tyrosine kinase ?
A
Epidermal growth factor
B
Platelet derived growth factor
C
Insulin
D
Asialoglycoprotein
Question 98Single Answer
Tumors are generally classified by :
A
the virus which caused them
B
the person who discovered them
C
their metastatic ability
D
the tissue or cell of origin
Question 99Single Answer
A breakthrough in cancer therapy is expected where T - cells are taken from a patient are modified in the laboratory to attack cancer cells before re - infusion in the patient. These T - cells are called:
A
cancer associated receptor T - cells
B
chimeric antigen - receptor T - cells
C
chimeric B and T cell
D
cancer antigens recognition T - cells
Question 100Single Answer
Which one of the following statements with respect to development in amphibians is correct ?
A
Gastrulation begins with the invagination of bottle cells, followed by coordinated involution of the mesodermal precursors and the epiboly of the prospective ectoderm
B
The organizer induces the Nieuwkoop centre
C
The organizer is formed by the accumulation of b - catenin
D
In the absence of BMP inhibitors ectodermal cells form neural tube
Question 101Single Answer
During normal development of sea urchin, b - catenin accumulates predominantly in the micromeres, which are fated to become endoderm and mesoderm. If GSK - 3 is blocked in the developing embryo:
A
b - catenin accumulation in the nuclei of large micromeres will be inhibited leading to formation of ectodermal ball
B
b - catenin will accumulate in the nuclei of all blastula cells leading to an ectodermal ball
C
b - catenin will accumulate in the nuclei of all blastula cells leading to animal cells getting specified as endoderm and mesoderm
D
b - catenin which accumulate in the nuclei of large micromeres will be inhibited leading to animal cells getting specified as endoderm and mesoderm
Question 102Single Answer
In which of the following stages of Arabidopsis embryogenesis do the visible distinctions between the adaxial and abaxial tissues of the cotyledons become initially apparent ?
A
Globular stage
B
Zygotic stage
C
Torpedo stage
D
Mature stage
Question 103Single Answer
In a transplantation experiment, the area of presumptive ectoderm from an early frog gastrula was transplanted to a region of the newt gastrula destined to become parts of the mouth. The resulting salamander larvae had frog like mouth parts (frog tadpole suckers) instead of balancers as observed during development of wild type newt embryo. This is an example of :
A
Determination
B
Genetic specificity of interaction
C
Regional specificity of interaction
D
Autonomous specification
Question 104Single Answer
Which of the following ' R ' gene products do not contain NBS - LRR domain ?
A
RPS2 protein of Arabidopsis
B
Xal protein of rice
C
N protein of tobacco
D
Mlo protein of barley
Question 105Single Answer
Photochemically generated ATP is consumed in which one of the following phases of Calvin- Benson cycle ?
A
Only carboxylation
B
Only regeneration
C
Carboxylation and reduction
D
Reduction and regeneration
Question 106Single Answer
Dirigent proteins predominantly play an important role in biosynthesis of :
A
lignans
B
alkaloids
C
terpenoids
D
amino acids
Question 107Single Answer
Which one of the following is used in organification of tyrosine residues in thyroglobulin protein, during thyroid hormone biosynthesis ?
A
Iodine
B
Reduced iodine
C
Oxidized iodine
D
Hydrogen iodide
Question 108Single Answer
The dark current in retina is due to :
A
Closing of Na+ channels in the outer segment of photoreceptors
B
Opening of K+ channels in the inner segment of photoreceptors
C
Opening of Na+ channels in the outer segment of photoreceptors
D
Closing of K+ channels in the outer segment of photoreceptors
Question 109Single Answer
Which one of the following is not present in the filtration slit diaphragm ?
A
NEPH1
B
Paxillin
C
Nephrin
D
NEPH2
Question 110Single Answer
DNA was isolated from a strain in bacterium with genotype a+ b+ c+ d+ e+ and transformed into a bacterial strain a– b– c–, d– e–. The transformants were tested for the presence of the donated genes.
The cotransformed genes were found as follows: a+ and b+ ; c+ and e+ ; d+ and c+ ; b+ and d+; What is the order of genes on the bacterial chromosome ?
A
a b c d e
B
a c b e d
C
a b c e d
D
a b d c e
Question 111Single Answer
A fly with apricot coloured eye was crossed with a sepia eyed fly of opposite sex. In F1 all flies were wild type. The genes responsible for the two phenotypes were :
A
allelic
B
non - allelic
C
pseudo - allelic
D
paralogous genes
Question 112Single Answer
Human polydactyly traits having extra fingers or toes are caused by a dominant allele. In a screening it was found that out of 42 individuals having an allele for polydactyly, only 38 of them were polydactylus. Which of the following is the correct interpretation of the observation ?
A
The penetrance of polydactyly is estimated to be 90%
B
The expressivity of polydactyly is 90%
C
This is an example of variable expressivity
D
The polydactyly trait is showing complete penetrance
Question 113Single Answer
The basic difference between direct repair and base excision repair is :
A
Direct repair restores original structure of altered nucleotide without replacement, while in base excision repair the section of DNA containing the distortion is removed, the correct base is added and resealed
B
In direct repair, homologous recombination repairs the broken region while base excision repair restores original structure of altered nucleotide by modification
C
Direct repair restores original structure by non-homologous end joining without using homologous template while in base excision repair the section of DNA containing the distortion is repaired by using homologous recombination
D
In direct repair, an exonuclease, a DNA polymerase and a ligase are used, while in base excision repair a translesion polymerase that bypasses the bulky lesions is used by the cell
Question 114Single Answer
Eukaryotes are classified into 5 - 6 super groups based on phylogenomic studies. Which one of the following statements about eurkaryotic supergroups is FALSE ?
A
Fungi and animals are more closely related to each other than either group is to plants
B
Amoebozoa and opisthokonts are unikonts.
C
Land plants and green algae belong to Archaeplastida
D
Alveolates and amoeba belong to same super group
Question 115Single Answer
What is the pattern of cleavage observed in mammals ?
A
Radial
B
Spiral
C
Rotational
D
Bilateral
Question 116Single Answer
Which of the following combinations would best characterize the dominant phase of the life cycle of a pteridophyte ?
A
Diploid gametophyte
B
Haploid gametophyte
C
Diploid sporophyte
D
Haploid sporophyte
Question 117Single Answer
Which one of the following gases is present in the stratosphere at a concentration higher than its concentration in troposphere ?
A
Nitrogen
B
Oxygen
C
Ozone
D
Carbon dioxide
Question 118Single Answer
The graph below shows the change in the size of four populations (a) – (d) over time. Which among the four populations (a), (b), (c) and (d) would have the lowest intrinsic rate of population growth (r) ?
A
(a)
B
(b)
C
(c)
D
(d)
Question 119Single Answer
Consider the following ecosystems.
(a) Tropical rain forests
(b) Open ocean
(c) Algal beds and Coral reefs
(d) Marshes and Swamps
Which one of the following options represents these ecosystems in an increasing order of their contribution to annual world net primary production ?
A
(b), (c), (d) and (a)
B
(c), (d), (b) a nd (a)
C
(d), (c), (a) and (b)
D
(c), (d), (a) and (b)
Question 120Single Answer
Historical frequencies of fires in an area can be determined by :
A
radioactive dating of the tree remains
B
examining the fire scars in growth rings of living trees
C
measuring carbon content on the soil surface after fire
D
examining records of evacuation history of the nearby villages
Question 121Single Answer
Given below are statements on 'living fossils'.
Select the correct statements.
A
Living fossils are impressions of extant organisms in old rocks
B
Living fossils show high morphological divergence from fossil records
C
Living fossils are always an evolutionary link between two classes of organisms
D
Living fossils are organisms that have remained unchanged for millions of years
Question 122Single Answer
Mimicry where deceptiveness of the mimic's signal is high and fitness consequences signaled to the receiver by the mimic is also high (& negative) is :
A
Batesian mimicry
B
Müllerian mimicry
C
Fisherian mimicry
D
Millerian mimicry
Question 123Single Answer
Consider the following four geological periods.
(a) Quaternary
(b) Cretaceous
(c) Jurassic
(d) Cambrian
Which one of the following options represents the correct arrangement of these geological periods from earliest to recent :
A
(a), (b), (d), (c)
B
(d), (c), (b), (a)
C
(c), (b), (d), (a)
D
(b), (a), (c), (d)
Question 124Single Answer
Select the correct statement related to phylogeny of primates
A
Lemurs are more closely related to lorises than to gibbons
B
Orangutans are closer to lorises than to gibbons
C
Tarsiers are same as old world monkeys
D
Humans are closer to new world monkeys than to orangutans
Question 125Single Answer
Which one of the following combinations of terms is matched INCORRECTLY ?
Which one of the following statements is correct ?
A
If a transgenic plant heterozygous for an insert segregates into 1 : 1 ratio for the transgenic phenotype on back-crossing then it contains two unlinked copies of the insert
B
ANOVA allows a plant breeder to test whether measurements from three or more treatments show statistically significant differences
C
Comparative genomics allows scientists to identify regions of collinearity but not synteny between different species
D
For genetic mapping of a quantitative trait in plants, an RIL mapping population comprising of individuals that are heterozygous at most loci is preferred
Question 127Single Answer
Which one of the following regions of the target gene is NOT used for making an RNAi construct to knock down its expression ?
A
5' UTR of the mature transcript
B
3' UTR of the mature transcript
C
Exonic region
D
Intronic region
Question 128Single Answer
Which one of the following options represents a combination of terms that are matched INCORRECTLY ?
A
ddNTPs : Chain termination
B
South Western blot: Physical interaction between DNA and proteins
Yeast two hybrid system: Interaction between proteins
Question 129Single Answer
For a nuclear spin of spin quantum no. , precessing in a magnetic field at a Larmor frequency of 300 MHz, the wavelength of incident radiation required to excite the nuclear spins must be approximately.
A
1 nm
B
1 cm
C
1 m
D
10 m
Question 130Single Answer
Widal test, a widely used serological test for enteric fever, is a type of :
A
Precipitation reaction
B
Agglutination reaction
C
Complement fixation test
D
Immunofluorescence detection
Question 131Single Answer
Fluorescence microscope that requires photo - activatable probes to obtain super - resolution is :
A protein solution (0.2 ml) of unknown concentration was diluted with 0.8 ml of water. To 0.5 ml of this diluted solution 4.5 ml of biuret reagent was added and the colour allowed to develop. The absorbance of this mixture taken in a test tube of 1 cm diameter at 540 nm was observed to be 0.20 .0 .5 ml of BSA (4 mg/ml) solution plus 4.5 ml of biuret gave an absorbance of 0.20 when measured as above. What is the protein concentration (mg/ ml) in the undiluted unkown solution ?
A
20
B
40
C
50
D
80
Question 133Single Answer
A schematic of a metabolic pathway is shown below : Under which of the following conditions would stoichiometric amounts of end products K and L be obtained if a concerted feedback inhibition mechanism were in operation ?
A
K inhibits F → G and L inhibits F → H : D → E is inhibited at equal amounts of K and L
B
D → E is inhibited at equal amounts of K and L : K inhibits F → H and L inhibits F → G
C
D → E is inhibited at equal amount of G and H : K inhibits F → H and L inhibits F → G
D
K inhibits F → H and L inhibits F → G
Question 134Single Answer
The following statements are being made to define the Michaelis constant (KM). It is :
(a) Independent of enzyme concentration (E) and substrate concentration [S]
(b) Equal to the dissociation constant when the [ES] complex dissociates more rapidly than product formation
(c) Equal to the dissociation constant when product formation is more rapid than [ES] complex dissociation
(d) An intrinsic property of an enzyme and does not depends on pH, temperature and ionic strength
Which one of the following combination of statements is correct ?
A
(a) and (b) only
B
(a), (b) and (d) only
C
(c) and (d) only
D
(a) and (d) only
Question 135Single Answer
The table below lists the biochemical characteristics of proteins and experimental procedures used to determine them. Match the characteristics with the experimental procedure.
List - I
List - II
(Biochemical Characteristics)
(Experimental Procedure)
(a)
B - dimensional struchure
(i)
Nuclear magnetic resonance
(b)
Ionic Charge
(ii)
Isoelectric focusing
(c)
Binding
(iii)
Affinity specificity Chromatography
(d)
Molecular size
(iv)
Ultracentrifugation
Which one of the following matches is correct ?
A
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(iii) (i) (ii) (iv)
B
(i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
C
(ii) (i) (iii) (iv)
D
(iv) (ii) (i) (iii)
Question 136Single Answer
A circular dichroism spectrum in the far - UV region informs on the kind and content of secondary structures in a protein. Near - UV and tryptophan emission spectra inform on the tertiary structure. Shown in the panels above are (A) intrinsic fluorescence emission spectra of protein ' X ', (B) Far - UV CD spectra of protein ' X ', (C) Near - UV CD spectra of protein ' X ' recorded under different conditions.
Curves represent the spectra of protein ' X ' at pH 7.0 (black), pH 3.0 (green), and pH 7.0 in the presence of 6.0 M guanidine hydrochloride (red). What does the experiment report ?
A
Protein is fully folded at pH 7.0, acidinduced molten globule at pH 3.0 and unfolded in 6 M guanidine hydrochloride
B
Protein secondary structure is reduced at pH 7.0 and the protein has formed beta fibrils at the other two conditions
C
The changes in fluorescence and near-UV CD indicate increase in hydrodynamic radius at pH 3.0 and in 6 M guanidine hydrochloride
D
There is extensive denaturation of the protein both at pH 3.0 and in 6 M guanidine hydrochloride
Question 137Single Answer
The pl of four proteins (A, B, C, D) are shown in the table below : To purify ' D ' from a mixture of these four proteins in a single step, using ion - exchange chromatography, what combination of buffer pH and ion - exchange resin would you select ?
A
pH 11, cation exchanger resin
B
pH 2, anion exchanger resin
C
pH 6, anion exchanger resin
D
pH 8, cation exchanger resin
Question 138Single Answer
The curve B in the figure below shows the oxygen dissociation profile at physiological concentration of CO2 and pH 7. An increase in pH would lead to oxygen dissociation profile indicated by :
A
Curve B (no change in the dissociation profile)
B
Curve A
C
Curve C
D
Curve D
Question 139Single Answer
Following statements were made about chromosome cohesion during mitosis and meiosis.
(a) Though cohesin is important for pairwise alignment of the chromosomes on the mitotic spindle, it is not important for the generation of tension across the centromere.
(b) Cohesin binds to the chromosome even before the initiation of S - phase.
(c) In fission yeast, centromere specific localization of Moal and Rec8 regulates the orientation of kinetochores at meiosis - I.
(d) Cohesin exhibits uniform distribution/ localization pattern across the chromosomal length.
(e) Polo/Cdc5 is a positive regulator of Separase, an endopeptidase that facilitates opening of the cohesin ring.
Which one of the following combination contains all correct statements ?
A
(a), (b) and (d) only
B
(a) , (c) and (e) only
C
(b), (c) and (d) only
D
(b), (c) and (e) only
Question 140Single Answer
Which one of the following is valid with respect to, one step growth experiment developed by Ellis and Delbruck in 1939 ?
A
The reproduction of large phage population is synchronized
B
A culture is directly developed by inoculation of single bacterial colony from the agar plate into liquid medium
C
Involves only a single step of overnight culture development followed by inoculation of a fresh medium with 1 % inoculum
D
Only a single carbon source such as glucose is used in the medium
Question 141Single Answer
Given below are a few statements about nuclear transport.
(a) RanGTP levels are higher in the nucleus than the cytoplasm.
(b) Nuclear import receptors can shuttle between the nucleus and cytoplasm.
(c) NTF2 transports RanGDP into the cytosol. (d) Export of mRNA is not directly dependent on Ran.
(e) tRNA and miRNA export is mediated by exportins.
Which one of the following combination contains all correct statements ?
A
(a), (b), (c), (d) only
B
(b), (c), (d) only
C
(a), (b), (d), (c) only
D
(a), (c), (c) only
Question 142Single Answer
During cytokinesis, a sinall GTPase, RhoA, localizes to the equatorial membrane above the spindle midzone. The localization/activity of RhoA is potentially modulated by :
(a) RhoGEF Ect2
(b) Aurora B kinase
(c) PLK1 kinase
(d) MKLP1 kinesin
(e) ATM and ATR
Which one of the following combination contains all correct statements ?
A
(a), (b) and (d) only
B
(a), (b), (c) and (d) only
C
(b), (c), (d) and (e) only
D
(a), (c) and (d) only
Question 143Single Answer
Cellular actin levels can be as high as 100 – 400 µM. Of this, unpolymerized actin concentration can be as much as 50 – 200 m M. However, the critical concentration for actin polymerization in - vitro is about 0.2µ M. Some of the following proteins inhibit polymerization of actin in cells.
(a) Thymosin - b4
(b) Capping protein CapZ
(c) Tropomodulin
(d) XMAP 215
Which one of the following options lists all inhibitors ?
A
(a), (b) and (c) only
B
(b), (c) and (d) only
C
(c), (d) and (a) only
D
(d), (a) and (b) only
Question 144Single Answer
To delineate the steps in endoplasmic reticulum (ER) transport, a Ph.D student homogenized pancreatic acinar cells to isolate microsomes, which retain most of the biochemical properties of the ER. For this experiment, the student has planned a number of controls as mentioned below.
(a) Treat one set of microsomes first with detergent and then with protease.
(b) Treat one set of microsomes with protease only.
(c) Treat one set of microsomes with micrococcal nuclease.
(d) Treat one set of microsomes with detergent only.
Select the option that represents the best combination of the controls.
A
(a), (b) and (d) only
B
(b), (c) and (d) only
C
(a) and (c) only
D
(b) and (d) only
Question 145Single Answer
Following statements were made about imprinting in the human genome.
(a) Imprinting control centre (IC) harbors part of the SNRPN gene.
(b) Imprinting of genes in an individual cannot be tissue specific.
(c) Sperms and eggs exhibit identical pattern of genome methylation, except in the sex chromosomes.
(d) At imprinted loci, expression depends on the parental origin.
Select the option with all the correct statements.
A
(a) and (d)
B
(b) and (d)
C
(a) and (c)
D
(b) and (c)
Question 146Single Answer
Mitochondrial protein synthesis is of prokaryotic origin. Following statements are being made about the ribosomes from bacteria and mitochondria :
(a) The bacterial ribosome consists of small and large subunits of 30S and 50S respectively, whereas in mitochondria of mammals these subunits are of 28S and 39S
(b) In the bacterial ribosomes the RNA: protein ratio is about 2 : 1 whereas in mitochondria ribosomes this ratio is usually 1 : 2
(c) Both the bacterial and mitochondrial ribosomes consist of 30S and 50S subunits
(d) Both the bacterial and mitochondrial ribosomes consist of RNA and protein in the ratio of 1 : 1
Choose the option that represents all correct statements.
A
(a) and (b) only
B
(b) and (c) only
C
(c) and (d) only
D
(a) and (d) only
Question 147Single Answer
Given below are a few statements about the l infection cycle :
(a) Competition between cI and cII gene products determines the establishment of lysogeny versus lysis.
(b) cI binds OR1 first while cro binds to OR 3 first
(c) Cro binding to OR represses cI transcription
(d) Rich medium favours lytic cycle because cII is protected from cellular proteases
Which one of the following options represents all correct statements ?
A
(b) and (c)
B
(a) and (b)
C
(c) and (d)
D
(a) and (c)
Question 148Single Answer
Reproduction of ϕ × 174, a single stranded DNA phage involves several steps. A few statements are given below to explain the mechanism .
(a) The single stranded ϕ × 174 DNA is converted into a double - stranded replicative form (RF)
(b) Replication of double stranded replicative form results in the production of single stranded phages, about 50 % of which are + ve sense phages and the remaining are – ve sense phages
(c) Replication of the double stranded replicative form results in the production of only – ve sense phages
(d) Replication of the double stranded replicative form results in the production of only + ve sense phages
Choose the option that correctly describes the process:
A
(a) only
B
(a) and (b)
C
(a) and (c)
D
(a) and (d)
Question 149Single Answer
Which one of the following schematics depicts the potential relationship among the subunits IIo, IIa, and IIb of RNA polymerase II ?
A
B
C
D
Question 150Single Answer
The following statements are made with reference to DNA replication :
(a) Camptothecin causes intra-strand and inter-strand crosslinks in DNA, leading to stalling of replication forks.
(b) Prevention of reinitiation of DNA replication during the same cell cycle is mediated by regulating the loading of the initiator complex ORC.
(c) A glu → ala mutation in the nucleotide building pocket of DNA polymerase III could lead to the incorporation of ribonucleotides in the extending DNA chain.
(d) A mutation in the gene encoding Topoisomerase II could lead to entanglement of DNA daughter strands during replication.
Which one of the following options represents all correct statements?