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Question Bank

Question for JK SET Chemical Science - Quiz / Questions / MCQ in English

Last Update on : October 10, 2026

Duration: 120 · Questions: 100 · Max Marks: 100

View JK SET Chemical Science 2026 Exam Page

To boost your performance in JK SET Chemical Science exam, practice each question regularly and with focus. Every question tests your subject understanding, so solve them one at a time. Taking a quiz improves your speed and accuracy. Practicing topic-wise MCQs. Students benefit greatly from reviewing questions with answer keys, which help clarify concepts and strengthen Questions knowledge for success in JK SET Chemical Science exams.

Latest JK SET Chemical Science Exam Question (Objective Questions), MCQ in English

Subjects : Chemical Science

Question Bank JK SET Chemical Science Exam - English

Chemical Science

Q 1 :
The modern periodic law is based primarily on?
  1. A.mass number
  2. B.neutron number
  3. C.atomic mass
  4. D.atomic number
Q 2 :
Across a period, the effective nuclear charge generally?
  1. A.increases
  2. B.becomes zero
  3. C.decreases
  4. D.remains exactly constant
Q 3 :
Across a period, atomic radius generally?
  1. A.remains constant
  2. B.increases
  3. C.decreases
  4. D.first becomes infinite
Q 4 :
Down a group, atomic radius generally?
  1. A.remains constant
  2. B.increases
  3. C.decreases
  4. D.becomes zero
Q 5 :
The first ionization enthalpy generally increases across a period because of?
  1. A.increasing effective nuclear charge
  2. B.increasing shielding by a new shell
  3. C.complete absence of electron-electron repulsion
  4. D.decreasing nuclear charge
Q 6 :
The first ionization enthalpy generally decreases down a group mainly because of?
  1. A.increased size and shielding
  2. B.decreased number of shells
  3. C.increased effective attraction without shielding
  4. D.loss of all core electrons
Q 7 :
Among alkali metals, the lowest first ionization enthalpy is expected toward the?
  1. A.top of the group
  2. B.bottom of the group
  3. C.middle only
  4. D.noble-gas end of the same period
Q 8 :
A cation is usually smaller than its parent atom because?
  1. A.electron gain increases shielding
  2. B.neutrons expand the electron cloud
  3. C.the nucleus loses protons
  4. D.electron loss reduces repulsion and may remove the outer shell
Q 9 :
An anion is usually larger than its parent atom because?
  1. A.the principal quantum number always decreases
  2. B.a proton is removed
  3. C.the nuclear charge increases
  4. D.added electron-electron repulsion expands the electron cloud
Q 10 :
In an isoelectronic series, ionic radius decreases as?
  1. A.nuclear charge increases
  2. B.number of electrons increases
  3. C.principal shell number increases
  4. D.nuclear charge decreases
Q 11 :
The most electronegative element on the Pauling scale is?
  1. A.nitrogen
  2. B.chlorine
  3. C.fluorine
  4. D.oxygen
Q 12 :
Electronegativity generally decreases down a group because?
  1. A.effective nuclear charge becomes infinite
  2. B.nuclear charge decreases to zero
  3. C.valence shells disappear
  4. D.atomic size and shielding increase
Q 13 :
Electron affinity is most directly associated with?
  1. A.addition of an electron to a gaseous atom
  2. B.addition of a neutron
  3. C.removal of an electron from a solid
  4. D.removal of a proton
Q 14 :
The relatively low electron affinity of fluorine compared with chlorine is largely due to?
  1. A.greater electron-electron repulsion in the compact 2p shell
  2. B.filled d orbitals in fluorine
  3. C.absence of nuclear charge in fluorine
  4. D.larger size of fluorine
Q 15 :
The exceptionally high ionization enthalpy of noble gases is related to?
  1. A.absence of protons
  2. B.single valence electrons
  3. C.stable closed-shell configurations
  4. D.very large atomic radii
Q 16 :
The first ionization enthalpy of Be is higher than that of B mainly because Be has?
  1. A.a filled 2p subshell
  2. B.a filled 2s subshell
  3. C.one fewer proton
  4. D.a larger atomic radius
Q 17 :
The first ionization enthalpy of N is higher than that of O mainly because N has?
  1. A.a half-filled 2p subshell
  2. B.a filled 2p subshell
  3. C.a larger principal shell
  4. D.no p electrons
Q 18 :
Lanthanide contraction arises mainly from?
  1. A.loss of all 5d electrons
  2. B.poor shielding by 4f electrons
  3. C.decreasing nuclear charge
  4. D.excellent shielding by 4f electrons
Q 19 :
Diagonal relationship is especially prominent between?
  1. A.F and Cl
  2. B.Be and Mg
  3. C.Li and Mg
  4. D.Li and Na
Q 20 :
The inert-pair effect becomes more important down the p-block because?
  1. A.the ns2 pair becomes less available for bonding
  2. B.p orbitals vanish
  3. C.electronegativity always increases
  4. D.all valence electrons become unpaired
Q 21 :
The metallic character generally increases?
  1. A.down a group
  2. B.with increasing ionization enthalpy
  3. C.toward fluorine
  4. D.across a period from left to right
Q 22 :
The nonmetallic character generally increases?
  1. A.across a period from left to right
  2. B.with decreasing electronegativity
  3. C.down alkali-metal group
  4. D.with increasing atomic radius
Q 23 :
A large jump between successive ionization enthalpies usually indicates?
  1. A.electron affinity has become positive
  2. B.the atom has become neutral again
  3. C.nuclear charge has decreased
  4. D.removal has begun from an inner closed shell
Q 24 :
Slater's rules are used to estimate?
  1. A.molecular symmetry only
  2. B.nuclear spin
  3. C.bond order directly
  4. D.shielding and effective nuclear charge
Q 25 :
The shielding ability of subshells of the same principal shell generally follows?
  1. A.d > s > p > f
  2. B.p > s > f > d
  3. C.s > p > d > f
  4. D.f > d > p > s
Q 26 :
A physically acceptable wavefunction must be?
  1. A.multivalued everywhere
  2. B.single-valued, finite and continuous where the potential is finite
  3. C.infinite at all boundaries
  4. D.discontinuous at every point
Q 27 :
The Born interpretation associates the square modulus of a wavefunction with?
  1. A.nuclear charge
  2. B.potential energy only
  3. C.probability density
  4. D.classical trajectory
Q 28 :
An observable in quantum mechanics is represented by?
  1. A.a Hermitian operator
  2. B.a classical orbit
  3. C.a non-Hermitian matrix only
  4. D.an arbitrary complex number
Q 29 :
Eigenvalues of a Hermitian operator are?
  1. A.real
  2. B.always negative
  3. C.undefined
  4. D.always imaginary
Q 30 :
Two observables can have simultaneous exact eigenvalues when their operators?
  1. A.are identical to zero
  2. B.anticommute only
  3. C.commute
  4. D.are non-Hermitian
Q 31 :
The commutator of position and its conjugate momentum is?
  1. A.equal to the identity without an imaginary factor
  2. B.undefined for all states
  3. C.always zero
  4. D.nonzero
Q 32 :
The uncertainty principle reflects?
  1. A.thermal expansion only
  2. B.noncommutation of conjugate observables
  3. C.classical friction
  4. D.instrumental error only
Q 33 :
The Hamiltonian operator represents?
  1. A.linear momentum only
  2. B.spin only
  3. C.probability only
  4. D.total energy
Q 34 :
A stationary state is an eigenstate of?
  1. A.the time-independent Hamiltonian
  2. B.position only
  3. C.parity only
  4. D.temperature
Q 35 :
Normalization of a wavefunction ensures that?
  1. A.the wavefunction is real
  2. B.total probability is unity
  3. C.energy is zero
  4. D.momentum is infinite
Q 36 :
Orthogonal eigenfunctions have?
  1. A.unit overlap always
  2. B.infinite overlap
  3. C.identical eigenvalues necessarily
  4. D.zero overlap integral
Q 37 :
For a particle in a one-dimensional box, the wavefunction at infinite walls is?
  1. A.maximum
  2. B.undefined
  3. C.periodic with nonzero boundary value
  4. D.zero
Q 38 :
Energy levels of a particle in a box become more widely separated as?
  1. A.particle mass becomes infinite only
  2. B.the box becomes larger
  3. C.the box becomes smaller
  4. D.quantum number decreases to zero
Q 39 :
A two-dimensional square box can exhibit?
  1. A.continuous energies only
  2. B.only one allowed state
  3. C.no degeneracy under any condition
  4. D.degeneracy from different quantum-number pairs
Q 40 :
For a three-dimensional rectangular box, separability means the wavefunction can be written as?
  1. A.a classical trajectory
  2. B.a constant only
  3. C.a sum of nuclear charges
  4. D.a product of one-dimensional functions
Q 41 :
The ground-state energy of a quantum harmonic oscillator is?
  1. A.exactly zero
  2. B.negative infinite
  3. C.undefined
  4. D.nonzero
Q 42 :
The nonzero ground-state energy of a harmonic oscillator is called?
  1. A.zero-point energy
  2. B.activation energy
  3. C.ionization energy
  4. D.lattice energy
Q 43 :
Adjacent harmonic-oscillator levels in the ideal model are?
  1. A.degenerate with all other levels
  2. B.equally spaced
  3. C.randomly spaced
  4. D.continuously distributed
Q 44 :
The rigid-rotor model assumes?
  1. A.fixed bond length
  2. B.no angular momentum
  3. C.zero moment of inertia
  4. D.continuously changing bond length
Q 45 :
Rotational energy levels of a rigid rotor depend on?
  1. A.principal quantum number only
  2. B.angular momentum quantum number
  3. C.nuclear charge only
  4. D.electron spin only
Q 46 :
Hydrogenic orbitals are eigenfunctions of?
  1. A.the hydrogen-atom Hamiltonian
  2. B.a classical Kepler orbit
  3. C.temperature operator
  4. D.viscosity operator
Q 47 :
The principal quantum number primarily determines?
  1. A.nuclear spin
  2. B.hydrogenic energy and shell
  3. C.spin orientation only
  4. D.orbital orientation only
Q 48 :
The azimuthal quantum number is associated with?
  1. A.nuclear mass
  2. B.temperature
  3. C.orbital angular momentum
  4. D.electron charge
Q 49 :
The magnetic quantum number specifies?
  1. A.electron mass
  2. B.orientation of orbital angular momentum
  3. C.spin magnitude
  4. D.radial node count only
Q 50 :
Electron spin is?
  1. A.a vibrational coordinate
  2. B.literal classical spinning of a charged sphere
  3. C.orbital motion only
  4. D.an intrinsic angular momentum

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