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Latest JKPSC Prosecuting Officer Exam Question (Objective Questions), MCQ in English
Subjects : Law
Question Bank JKPSC Prosecuting Officer Prelims Exam - English
Law
Q 1 :
A. Government of India Act 1858 control 1. Absolute imperial
B.Indian Councils Act 1861 2.Non official members in executive council
C. Indian Council 3.Separate representation of Muslim community Act1909
D. Government of 4.Dyarchy in the India Act 1919 provinces
A.A B C D
2 3 1 4
B.4 1 2 3
C.3 4 1 2
D.1 2 3 4
Q 2 :
Which of the following is/are the principal features of the government of India Act 1919?
1. Introduction of diarchy in the executive government of the provinces.
2. Introduction of separate communal electorate for Muslims.
3. Devolution of legislative authority by the centre to the provinces.
4. Expansion and reconstitution of central and provincial legislatures.
A.1, 2 and 3
B.1, 2 and 4
C.2, 3 and 4
D.1, 3 and 4
Q 3 :
Consider the following statements:
The Indian constitution is
1. Unwritten constitution
2. Written constitution
3. Largely based on government of India
Act, 1935
A.1 and 2 are correct
B.2 and 3 are correct
C.1 and 3 are correct
D.None of the above
Q 4 :
Consider the following statements with reference to the term secularism:
1. Secularism means that the state has no recognized religion of state.
2. Secularism means that the state treats all the religions equally.
3. Secularism means that the state regulates the relation of man with God.
Which of these statements is/are correct ?
A.1, 2 and 3
B.1 and 2
C.2 and 3
D.1 and 3
Q 5 :
Which one is not correctly matched?
A.Freedom of speech - include freedom of and expression press
B.Freedom of - include right to wear and carry kirpans by Sikhs.
C.conscience
Right to personal - include right to carry on any trade or business liberty
D.(d) Right to equality - includes principles of natural justice
Q 6 :
The Governor of a State is appointed by the President on the advice of the
A.Prime Minister
B.Vice- President
C.Chief Minister
D.Chief Justice
Q 7 :
An accused person has been provided with the following protections by constitution of India:
1. Ex post facto law
2. Safeguard against arrest and detention
3. Double jeopardy.
Arrange the protections in the order in which they appear in the Indian constitution.
A.Codes:
1, 3, 2
B.1, 2, 3
C.3, 1, 2
D.2, 1,3
Q 8 :
Article 16(4A) which gives power to the State to make laws regarding reservation in favour of Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes was added by the
A.75th Amendment to the Constitution of India
B.76th Amendment to the Constitution of India
C.77th Amendment to the Constitution of India
D.78th Amendment to the Constitution of India
Q 9 :
Match the following:
A. Right to go 1. Bhim Singh's case.
abroad
B. Prisoner's right 2. Maneka Gandhi's case
C. Death penalty 3. Bacchan Singh's case
D. Government's 4. Sunil Batra's case.
liability
A.Codes:
A B C D
2 4 1 3
B.4 2 3 1
C.2 4 3 1
D.4 2 1 3
Q 10 :
A resolution passed under Clause (1) of Article 249 shall remain in force for such period not exceeding
A.Three months
B.Six months
C.Nine months
D.Twelve months
Q 11 :
Which one of the following pairs is correctly matched?
A.Habeas corpus - available against private individual as well.
B.Quo warranto - available against subordinate courts only
C.Certiorari - available against autonomous bodies only
D.Prohibition - directs a public authority to perform a task.
Q 12 :
Match the following:
A. Right to go abroad 1. Bhim Singh's case.
B. Prisoner's right 2. Maneka Gandhi's case
C. Death penalty 3. Bacchan Singh's case
D. Government's liability 4. Sunil Batra's case.
A.A B C D
2 4 1 3
B.4 2 3 1
C.2 4 3 1
D.4 2 1 3
Q 13 :
Match the following:
A.Right to live with human dignity enshrined in Art. 21 derives life breath
from DPSP Clauses e and f of Art. 39, 41 and 42.
B.Speedy trial is an essential ingredient of just, fair and reasonable procedure guaranteed by Art. 21.
C.In PIL, a total stranger to a trial cannot be permitted to question the correctness of the conviction of the accused.
D.In case of helplessness or disability, any member of the public can maintain an
Q 14 :
List-I List-II
Balaji vs. Stateof Mysore 1. Doctrine of waiver
of fundamental rights
Maneka Gandhi 2. Religious freedom
vs. UOI
Rev. Stanilaus 3. Right to life and personal liberty
vs. State of MP
Bashesher Nath 4. Reservation for backward classes
vs. IT, Commr. 5. Doctrine of severeability
A.A B C D
4 2 3 1
B.5 4 3 2
C.4 3 2 1
D.5 3 2 1
Q 15 :
List-I List-II
Independence of judiciary 1. Administrative adjudication
Executive legislation 2. Parliamentary form of government
Quasi-judicial functions 3. Appointment and transfer of judges
Collective responsibility 4. Ordinance
A.A B C D
2 1 4 3
B.3 4 1 2
C.2 4 1 3
D.3 I 4 2
Q 16 :
The 73rd Amendment provides a ____ tier system of panchayats:
A.3
B.4
C.2
D.1
Q 17 :
List-I List-II
​A Habeas corpus 1. Violation of natural justice
B. Mandamus 2. Unlawful arrest and detention
C. Quo-warranto 3. Exercise of power without jurisdiction
D. Certiorari 4. Non performance of public duty.
A.A B C D
2 4 3 1
B.1 3 4 2
C.2 3 4 1
D.1 4 3 2
Q 18 :
The fundamental duties provided in the constitution are:
1. To value and preserve rich heritage of our composite culture.
2. To safeguard private property.
3. To develop scientific temper, humanism, and spirit of inquiry and reform of these fundamental duties include:
A.1, 2 and 3
B.1 and 2
C.2 and 3
D.1 and 3
Q 19 :
If a new state of Indian union is to be created____ schedule of the constitution must be amended?
A.First
B.Second
C.Third
D.Fourth
Q 20 :
Which one of the following statements correctly describes the fourth schedule of the constitution of India?
A.It lists the distribution of powers between the union and the states.
B.It contains the languages listed in the constitution.
C.It contains the provision regarding the administration of tribal areas.
D.It allocates seats in the council of states.
Q 21 :
The 8th schedule of the Indian Constitution contains the:
A.Fundamental rights
B.DPSP
C.List of languages recognised by the constitution
D.Number of states and UTS
Q 22 :
Provisions regarding anti defection are provided in ____of the constitution of India.
A.2nd schedule
B.5th schedule
C.8th schedule
D.10th schedule
Q 23 :
At the time of framing there were ____Schedules in the constitution of India.
A.8
B.10
C.12
D.11
Q 24 :
The house may declare the seat vacant after_____ , of any member, if he is absent from all meetings without permission of the house.
A.30 days
B.45 days
C.60 days
D.90 days
Q 25 :
When the offices of both the speaker and the deputy speaker are vacant, _____ appoints a person to perform the functions of the speaker.
A.The President
B.The prime minister
C.The chief justice of India
D.Council of ministers
Q 26 :
The framers of the constitution borrowed the idea of judicial review from the constitution of:
A.France
B.USA
C.United Kingdom
D.None of these
Q 27 :
Decision of _______is final regarding the disqualification of a member of either house of Parliament under Art. 103.
A.The election commission
B.President
C.Speaker of Lok Sabha
D.Prime minister
Q 28 :
Part______ of the constitution of the India talks about municipalities?
A.Part IX
B.Part IX-A
C.Part X
D.Part X-A
Q 29 :
It is often said that the key to the minds of the makers of our constitution lies in the:
A.Preamble
B.Fundamental rights
C.Fundamental duties
D.Directive principles of state policy
Q 30 :
Disqualification of a member of parliament on the ground of defection is to be decided by
A.The President
B.Speaker of Lok Sabha
C.Speaker of Rajya Sabha
D.Either (b) or (c), as the case may be
Q 31 :
Preamble to the constitution of India:
A.is not a Part of the constitution.
B.Indicates the objectives to be achieved.
C.Indicates the source from which the constitution derives its authority.
D.Is a source of authority of the constitution of India.
Q 32 :
The preamble to the Indian constitution is:
A.A Part of constitution; but it neither confers any power no impose any duties, nor can it be of any use in interpreting other provisions of the constitution.
B.A Part of the constitution and can be of use in interpreting other provisions of the constitution in cases of ambiguity.
C.A Part of the constitution and it confers powers and impose duties as any other provision of the constitution.
D.Not a Part of the constitution.
Q 33 :
The source of Directive Principles of State Policy in our constitution can be traced back to the constitution of
A.USA
B.United Nations
C.United Kingdom
D.Ireland
Q 34 :
The following are enshrined in the preamble to the constitution of India
(a) Equality of status and opportunity
(b) Liberty of thought , expression , belief ,faith and worship.
(c) Fraternity assuring the dignity of the individual.
(d) Unity and integrity of the nation .
Which one of the following is the correct order in which they appear in the preamble ?
A.5,1,2,4,3
B.3,2,1,4,5
C.3,1,2,5,4
D.1,2,4,3,5
Q 35 :
Which one of the following is in correct order in the preamble of the Indian constitution ?
A.Sovereign ,socialist ,secular, democratic and republic
B.Sovereign, secular, socialist, democratic and republic
C.Sovereign , secular, democratic, socialist and republic
D.Sovereign , democratic , secular, republic and socialist.
Q 36 :
The text of the preamble of the constitution of India aims to secure ?
A.Fundamental rights to all individuals .
B.Fundamental duties of citizen of India
C.Dignity of the individual and unity and integrity of the nation .
D.Security of service to government servants .
Q 37 :
Words secular and integrity were added by ______amendment of the constitution.
A.1st Amendment Act
B.24th Amendment Act
C.42nd Amendment Act
D.44th Amendment Act
Q 38 :
Preamble of the constitution of India has been amended _____times so far?
A.Two
B.Three
C.One
D.Never
Q 39 :
The word secular denotes:
A.Keeping away from all religions.
B.Freedom of religion and worship to all religions.
C.Belief in one god
D.Practicing different religions
Q 40 :
The term socialist used in the preamble means a state whose basic policy is to:
A.Prohibit concentration of wealth
B.Distribute equitably the natural resources
C.Prohibit concentration of wealth and uplift the living standard of people
D.That the state shall endeavour to achieve socialistic goals through democratic means.
Q 41 :
In which of the following case/s the six rights guaranteed by Article 19 can be suspended?
1. External Aggression
2. Internal Emergency
3. When Martial Law is in force
A.1 only
B.2 and 3 only
C.1 and 3 only
D.1, 2 and 3
Q 42 :
Which of the following rights is/are available to foreigners in India.
1. Right to Education
2. Right to Information
3. Right to Vote
A.1 and 2
B.1 only
C.1, 2 and 3
D.2 only
Q 43 :
Article 21 declares that - "No person shall be deprived of his life or personal liberty except according to procedure established by law." The protection under Article 21 is:
A.Against arbitrary legislative action.
B.Against arbitrary executive action.
C.Both (a) and (b)
D.Neither (a) nor (b)
Q 44 :
Which of the following statement/statements, is/are correct:
1. Right to Information is a fundamental right enshrined in Article 19 (1) of the constitution
2. Supreme Court of India is not under the purview of RTI Act.
3. Supreme Court of India has the advisory jurisdiction.
A.1 and 3
B.2 and 3
C.1, 2 and 3
D.3 only
Q 45 :
Article 32 confers the right to remedies for the enforcement of the FR of an aggrieved citizen. Consider the following statements
w.r.t. Article 32.
1. Parliament can suspend this right during national emergency.
2. Only SC shall have the power to issue writs for the enforcement of any of the FR
3. High courts have the power to issue writs under Article 226 of the constitution.
A.I only
B.1 and 3
C.1 and 2
D.3 only
Q 46 :
Which of the following right/s is/are enshrined in Article 21 - "No person shall be deprived of his life or personal liberty except according to procedure established by law."?
1. Right to speedy trial.
2. Right against delayed execution.
3. Right against wrongful detention and arrest.
A.1 and 3
B.2 only
C.1 and 2
D.1, 2 and 3
Q 47 :
Which of the following writs can be issued against administrative authorities?
A.Prohibition, Certiorari and Mandamus.
B.Certiorari & Mandamus.
C.Prohibition & Mandamus.
D.Prohibition & Certiorari.
Q 48 :
The directive principles were made non- justiciable and legally non-enforceable because:
1. The country did not possess sufficient financial resources to implement them.
2. There was widespread backwardness in the country that could stand in the way of implementation.
A.I only
B.2 only
C.Both 1 and 2
D.Neither 1 nor 2
Q 49 :
Which of the following statement/s is/are correct?
1. The directive principles are meant to establish Political Democracy.
2. The directive principles are meant to establish Social Democracy.
3. The directive principles are meant to establish Economic Democracy.
A.I only
B.2 and 3 only
C.1 and 3 only
D.1, 2 and 3
Q 50 :
Which of the following statement/s is/are correct?
1. Fundamental Rights enjoy legal supremacy over Directive principles.
2. The parliament can amend the Fundamental Rights for implementing the directive principles.
3. Fundamental rights cannot be curtailed under any circumstances by the Parliament.
A.1 and 3
B.Only 2
C.1 and 2
D.1, 2 and 3
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Which of the following statement/s is/are correct regarding Constitutional Amendment Bill?
1. Prior permission of President is required before introducing the constitutional amendment Bill in Parliament.
2. President must give his assent to the Bill if duly passed by both houses.
3. Constitution amendment Bill can be introduced in any house of the Parliament.
A.1 and 2
B.2 and 3
C.1 and 3
D.I only
Q 52 :
The emoluments, allowances, privileges and so on of Governor can be altered by:
A.A Constitutional Amendment Bill passed by simple majority of Parliament.
B.A Constitutional Amendment Bill passed by special majority of Parliament.
C.A Constitutional Amendment Bill passed by special majority of the Parliament and ratified by half of the state legislatures.
D.By a normal legislative process that does not require Constitutional Amendment.
Q 53 :
Which of the following is/are federal feature/s of our constitution?
1. Supremacy of the Constitution.
2. Rigid Constitution.
3. Independent Judiciary.
A.I only
B.2 and 3 only
C.1 and 3 only
D.1, 2 and 3
Q 54 :
Which of the following statements are true about Centre-State relations?
1. In respect to matters enumerated in the concurrent list, the executive power rests with the states.
2. In respect to matters enumerated in the concurrent list, the legislative power rests with the centre
3. Residuary powers are assigned to the parliament.
A.1 and 3
B.2 only
C.1, 2 and 3
D.3 only
Q 55 :
Which of the following statements are true about Centre-State relations?
1. During the proclamation of emergency (Article 352) the Center can give direction to a state on any matter.
2. During the proclamation of emergency (Article 352) President can modify the constitutional distribution of revenues between the Centre and the states.
3. Word 'cabinet' is mentioned only once in the constitution under Art. 352.
A.I only
B.2 and 3
C.1, 2 and 3
D.3 only
Q 56 :
Which of the following statements are correct?
1. The chairman and members of state PSC are appointed by the Governor, but can be removed only by the President.
2. The State Election Commissioner is appointed by the Governor but can be removed only by the President.
3. Finance commission is mentioned under Art. 280 of the constitution.
A.1 and 2
B.2 only
C.1, 2 and 3
D.2 and 3
Q 57 :
Which of the following statement is correct with regard to Proclamation of Emergency?
A.Resolution approving & disapproving the proclamation of emergency is to be passed by both houses of Parliament by a special
majority.
B.Resolution approving & disapproving the proclamation of emergency is to be passed by either house of Parliament by a simple
majority.
C.Resolution disapproving the proclamation of emergency is to be passed by either house of Parliament by a simple majority.
D.None of these
Q 58 :
Which of the following situation/s will be proper to impose President's rule in a state (Article 356)?
1. Where after general elections to the assembly, no Party secures a majority.
2. Serious maladministration in the state.
3. Stringent financial exigencies of the state.
A.I only
B.2 and 3 only
C.1 and 3 only
D.1, 2 and 3
Q 59 :
Which of the following situation/s are correct with regard to Proclamation of Financial Emergency (Article 360)?
1. It can be extended to an indefinite period with an approval of the parliament for every six months.
2. A resolution approving the proclamation of financial emergency is to be passed by either house of Parliament by simple
majority.
3. The President may issue directions for reduction of salaries and allowances of Supreme Court and High Court Judges.
A.I only
B.2 and 3 only
C.1 and 3 only
D.1, 2 and 3
Q 60 :
The Electoral College for President's election
consist of:
1. Elected members of both the houses of
Parliament.
2. Elected members of the legislative
assemblies.
3. Elected members of all Union Territories.
A.1
B.2 and 3
C.1 and 2
D.1, 2 and 3
Q 61 :
When the offices of both Speaker and Deputy Speaker falls vacant Art. 95 provides that
A.The members of Lok Sabha immediately elect a Speaker
B.The senior most willing member of Lok Sabha becomes the speaker.
C.The President appoints any member of Lok Sabha as speaker.
D.The Deputy Chairman of Rajya Sabha presides over till the next speaker is elected
Q 62 :
With Regard to Constitutional Amendment Bill -
A.The President can reject the Bill but cannot return the Bill.
B.The President cannot reject the Bill but can return the Bill.
C.The President can neither reject the Bill nor return the Bill.
D.The President can either reject the Bill or return the Bill.
Q 63 :
The correct statement/s with regard to Ordinance making power of President is/are
1. The President cannot promulgate an ordinance to amend tax laws.
2. The President cannot promulgate an ordinance to amend the constitution.
A.1 only
B.2 only
C.Both
D.None
Q 64 :
The Vice President can be removed from office before completion of his term in which of the following manner?
A.She/he can be impeached in similar manner as President.
B.A Resolution of Rajya Sabha passed by special majority and agreed to by the Lok Sabha.
C.A Resolution of Rajya Sabha passed by simple majority and agreed to by the Lok Sabha.
D.A Resolution of Rajya Sabha passed by an absolute majority and agreed to by the Lok Sabha
Q 65 :
The Council of Ministers' does not consist of:
1. Deputy Ministers.
2. Parliamentary Secretaries.
3. Deputy Chairman-Planning Commission.
A.1, 2 and 3
B.2 only
C.3 only
D.None of these
Q 66 :
The Representatives of states & UT in the Rajya Sabha are elected by:
1. The members of the State Legislative Assembly only.
2. Elected members of the Legislative Assembly of that State legislative
assembly or electoral college of the UT as the case may be.
3. The system of proportional representation by single transferrable vote.
4. The system of proportional representation by List.
A.1 and 3
B.1 and 4
C.2 and 3
D.2 and 4
Q 67 :
Which of the following criteria is laid down by the constitution Read with the Representation of the People Act, 1951, for a person
to be chosen a member of Parliament?
1. If a candidate is to contest a seat reserved for SC/ST, he must be a member of a SC/ST in any state or Union Territory.
2. He/she must not have been punished for preaching and practicing social crimes such as untouchability, dowry and sati.
3. He/she must not have any interest in government contracts, works or services.
A.1 only
B.2 and 3 only
C.1, 2 and 3
D.None of these
Q 68 :
Which of the following statements are correct?
1. If an MLA is elected to be an MP, his seat in Parliament becomes vacant if he does not resign his seat in the state legislature within 14 days.
2. If a person is elected to two seats in a house, he should exercise his option for one. Otherwise both seats become vacant.
A.1 only
B.2 only
C.Both
D.None
Q 69 :
As observed by Salmond, jurisprudence is concerned with
A.to discover new rules
B.to reflect all the rules already known
C.to derive rules from authority and apply them to problems
D.logic.
Q 70 :
Who said jurisprudence is formal science of positive law?
A.Bentham
B.Stone
C.Austin
D.Holland
Q 71 :
Who said "Jurisprudence is nothing but lawyers, extroversion"?
A.Bentham
B.Stone
C.Austin
D.Holland
Q 72 :
Who is the author of the book, ‘Taking rights seriously’?
A.R. Dworkin
B.Hart
C.Bentham
D.Tom Bingham
Q 73 :
The concept of law depends largely on the:
A.social values
B.accepted norms
C.behavioural pattern of the particular society at a given time
D.All of the above
Q 74 :
Law consists of social norms which are:
A.coercive
B.ethical
C.non-coercive
D.religious
Q 75 :
Jurisprudence has been defined as the science of first principle of civil law by:
A.Salmond
B.Holland
C.Gray
D.Paton
Q 76 :
The expression ‘law’ in jurisprudence is mostly used to denote
A.Positive law
B.Negative law
C.Fundamental legal principles
D.Legal systems
Q 77 :
Austin's law is:
A.command of sovereign
B.command of God
C.command of people
D.command of constitution
Q 78 :
Which of the following is not a statement from the Austinian theory?
A.Every law is a command, imposing a duty, enforced by a sanction.
B.Law is a rule laid down from the guidance of an intelligent being by an intelligent being having power over him.
C.A legal rule can be defined as one which prescribes a code of conduct which is done with a feeling of such conduct is obligatory.
D.If a determinate human superior not in a habit of obedience to a like superior, receives habitual obedience from the bulk of a given society, that determinate superior is sovereign in that society.
Q 79 :
Mark the incorrect statement:
A.Law do not always command .but confers privileges also e.g., Right to make a will.
B.The notion of command is applicable to modern social/welfare legislation.
C.Austin's notion that sovereignty indivisible is falsified by federal
constitutions e.g., India, USA
D.Austin's insistence on sanctions as a mark of law conceals and distorts the real character and functions of law in a community.
Q 80 :
Who said: Law consists of rules which are of broad application and non-optional character, but which are at the same time amenable to formulisation, legislation and adjudication?
A.Hart
B.Salmond
C.Kelsen
D.Austin
Q 81 :
Which of the following is not a statement from Hart's theory?
A.Law is a system of social rules which acquire the character of legal rules.
B.The union of the primary and secondary rules constitute the core of a legal system.
C.A legal rule can be defined as one which prescribes a code of conduct, which is done with a feeling that such conduct is obligatory.
D.The law is a normative and not a natural science.
Q 82 :
Mark the incorrect statement:
A.Positive law is made by sovereign and positive morality not by it.
B.Positive law is made by the sovereign and positive morality by God.
C.Positive law is made by the sovereign and positive morality by the consent of the people.
D.None of the above
Q 83 :
The pure theory of law advocated by Kelsen implies that:
A.a theory which excludes everything which is strictly not law
B.a theory which includes everything which is law.
C.a theory which includes everything which is strictly law.
D.None of the above
Q 84 :
According to Kelsen, the law is a system of behavioural norms which can be traced back to some grundnorms or basic norms from which they derive their existence. The grundnorm:
I must be efficacious
II. The Grundnorm is not deduced from anything else but is assumed as an initial hypothesis.
III. should secure for itself a minimum of effectiveness and when it ceases to derive minimum of support of people, it is replaced by some other grundnorm.
​Codes:
A.I and III
B.II and III
C.I, II and III
D.I and II
Q 85 :
Mark the incorrect option:
A.The province of jurisprudence determined - Austin
B.The concept of law - Hart
C.Vienna school of legal thought - Kelsen
D.None of the above.
Q 86 :
Mark the correct statement:
A.Natural law approach is not realistic and practical approach.
B.Natural law principles have inspired positive law, constitution and international law.
C.Naturalists bid to introduce moral element into a criterion of identification and laws have the effect of founding law on the value judgement.
D.All of the above
Q 87 :
The philosophical school seeks to investigate:
A.quest of the law
B.purpose for which a particular law has been enacted
C.the philosophical basis of the law
D.None of the above
Q 88 :
Law is a product of social life and is not created by arbitrary will of individual but by slow unavoidable advancement of human development. This statement belongs to:
A.Analytical school
B.Historical school
C.Sociological school
D.None of the above
Q 89 :
Which of the following is incorrectly matched?
I. Fuller - inner morality
II. Bentham - utilitarianism
III. Maine - status of contract
IV. Duguit - social solidarity
V. Hart -rules on fundamentals of a legal system
Codes:
A.None except I
B.None except III
C.None except IV
D.None of the above
Q 90 :
Mark the correct option:
A.Sources of law - Salmond
B.Nature and sources of law - Gray
C.(c) Des recht des besitzes - Savigny
D.All of the above
Q 91 :
A legal custom has to possess a sufficient measure of antiquity. Sufficient under the English law means that it must have existed since 1189. The law in India:
A.is same
B.does not need a fixed period for which custom must have been in existence for its validity
C.antiquity is not essential
D.None of the above
Q 92 :
The actual finding of true meaning of particular word in a statute is called:
A.interpretation of statute
B.construction of statute
C.both (a) and (b)
D.harmonization of statute
Q 93 :
It is one of the cardinal principle of delegate legislation that the legislature should not delegate to a subordinate body the power
make rules on:
A.technical matter
B.policy matter
C.matter of inclusion and exclusion
D.date of commencement of a statute
Q 94 :
Which of the following is not a means for exercising control over delegated legislation?
A.Parliamentary control
B.Judicial control
C.Publication of delegated legislation
D.Registration of delegated legislation
Q 95 :
Mark the incorrect option:
A.Literal rule - grammatical or plain meaning rule
B.Golden rule - purpose of legislation
C.Harmonious construction rule - social welfare legislation
D.Literal rule - strict interpretation
Q 96 :
Which rule of interpretation is employed in the social welfare legislation?
A.Literal rule
B.Golden rule
C.Harmonious construction rule
D.Liberal or beneficial construction rule
Q 97 :
Which rule of construction is applied in the construction of penal statutes?
A.Literal rule
B.Golden rule
C.Harmonious construction rule
D.Liberal rule
Q 98 :
The maxim Ejusdem generis means:
A.of the same kind or nature
B.when particular words are followed by general words, the general words are constructed as limited to things of the same kind as specified in the particular words
C.both (a) and (b)
D.None of the above
Q 99 :
Which of the following is an internal aid to construction of a statute?
A.Title
B.Preamble
C.Proviso and explanation
D.All of the above
Q 100 :
The maxim Generalia specialibus non deterogant means:
A.a general later law does not abrogate an earlier special law by mere implication.
B.a general later law abrogates an earlier special law by mere implication.
C.a special later law does not abrogate an earlier general law by mere implication.
