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Question for JKSSB Junior Laboratory Assistant - Quiz / Questions / MCQ in English

Last Update on : October 10, 2026

Duration: 120 ยท Questions: 120 ยท Max Marks: 120

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Latest JKSSB Junior Laboratory Assistant Exam Question (Objective Questions), MCQ in English

Subjects : Concerned Subject

Question Bank JKSSB Junior Laboratory Assistant Exam - English

Concerned Subject

Q 1 :
Which anatomical position is considered the standard reference position of the human body?
  1. A.Supine with palms downward
  2. B.Standing erect with palms facing backward
  3. C.Standing erect with palms facing forward
  4. D.Sitting with arms crossed
Q 2 :
Which anatomical plane divides the body into equal right and left halves?
  1. A.Median sagittal plane
  2. B.Transverse plane
  3. C.Coronal plane
  4. D.Oblique plane
Q 3 :
The coronal plane divides the human body into which portions?
  1. A.Right and left
  2. B.Proximal and distal
  3. C.Superior and inferior
  4. D.Anterior and posterior
Q 4 :
Which plane divides the body into superior and inferior portions?
  1. A.Sagittal plane
  2. B.Transverse plane
  3. C.Median plane
  4. D.Coronal plane
Q 5 :
The term proximal indicates a structure that is located how?
  1. A.Farther from the point of attachment
  2. B.Nearer to the point of attachment
  3. C.Toward the skin surface
  4. D.Away from the midline
Q 6 :
Which anatomical term means farther away from the midline of the body?
  1. A.Medial
  2. B.Lateral
  3. C.Proximal
  4. D.Superior
Q 7 :
The term superficial refers to a structure located where?
  1. A.Inside a body cavity
  2. B.Near the midline
  3. C.Near the body surface
  4. D.Below another organ
Q 8 :
Which term describes a structure situated toward the head?
  1. A.Inferior
  2. B.Caudal
  3. C.Superior
  4. D.Distal
Q 9 :
Movement of a limb away from the median plane is called what?
  1. A.Adduction
  2. B.Extension
  3. C.Flexion
  4. D.Abduction
Q 10 :
Movement that decreases the angle between two bones is known as what?
  1. A.Extension
  2. B.Rotation
  3. C.Circumduction
  4. D.Flexion
Q 11 :
Turning the palm posteriorly from the anatomical position is called what?
  1. A.Supination
  2. B.Pronation
  3. C.Inversion
  4. D.Eversion
Q 12 :
Which movement turns the sole of the foot medially?
  1. A.Eversion
  2. B.Plantar flexion
  3. C.Dorsiflexion
  4. D.Inversion
Q 13 :
Which tissue covers body surfaces and lines internal cavities?
  1. A.Connective tissue
  2. B.Muscle tissue
  3. C.Nervous tissue
  4. D.Epithelial tissue
Q 14 :
Simple squamous epithelium is particularly suitable for which function?
  1. A.Impulse conduction
  2. B.Powerful contraction
  3. C.Rapid diffusion
  4. D.Fat storage
Q 15 :
Which epithelium lines the alveoli of the lungs?
  1. A.Stratified squamous
  2. B.Simple squamous
  3. C.Transitional
  4. D.Simple cuboidal
Q 16 :
Which type of epithelium commonly lines kidney tubules?
  1. A.Pseudostratified squamous
  2. B.Stratified columnar
  3. C.Transitional
  4. D.Simple cuboidal
Q 17 :
Which epithelium is specialized to permit stretching of the urinary bladder?
  1. A.Simple columnar
  2. B.Transitional
  3. C.Stratified cuboidal
  4. D.Ciliated squamous
Q 18 :
Goblet cells primarily secrete which substance?
  1. A.Collagen
  2. B.Histamine
  3. C.Keratin
  4. D.Mucus
Q 19 :
Which connective tissue cell synthesizes collagen and extracellular matrix?
  1. A.Mast cell
  2. B.Macrophage
  3. C.Fibroblast
  4. D.Plasma cell
Q 20 :
Which connective tissue is specialized for storage of triglycerides?
  1. A.Reticular tissue
  2. B.Dense regular tissue
  3. C.Adipose tissue
  4. D.Elastic cartilage
Q 21 :
Tendons are mainly composed of which tissue?
  1. A.Loose areolar tissue
  2. B.Dense regular connective tissue
  3. C.Hyaline cartilage
  4. D.Reticular tissue
Q 22 :
Which cartilage forms the articular surfaces of most synovial joints?
  1. A.Elastic cartilage
  2. B.Fibrocartilage
  3. C.Calcified cartilage
  4. D.Hyaline cartilage
Q 23 :
Intervertebral discs contain predominantly which type of cartilage?
  1. A.Fibrocartilage
  2. B.Hyaline cartilage
  3. C.Elastic cartilage
  4. D.Articular cartilage
Q 24 :
Which cartilage is characteristically present in the pinna of the ear?
  1. A.Fibrocartilage
  2. B.Hyaline cartilage
  3. C.Elastic cartilage
  4. D.Calcified cartilage
Q 25 :
Which type of muscle tissue is voluntary and striated?
  1. A.Cardiac muscle
  2. B.Smooth muscle
  3. C.Skeletal muscle
  4. D.Visceral muscle
Q 26 :
Intercalated discs are characteristic features of which tissue?
  1. A.Skeletal muscle
  2. B.Smooth muscle
  3. C.Cardiac muscle
  4. D.Dense connective tissue
Q 27 :
Which cells are primarily responsible for transmission of nerve impulses?
  1. A.Fibroblasts
  2. B.Osteocytes
  3. C.Neurons
  4. D.Chondrocytes
Q 28 :
Which cells maintain the matrix of mature bone?
  1. A.Osteoblasts
  2. B.Osteoclasts
  3. C.Chondroblasts
  4. D.Osteocytes
Q 29 :
What is the primary role of a clinical laboratory in a health-care delivery system?
  1. A.Prescribing treatment independently
  2. B.Performing surgical procedures
  3. C.Providing diagnostic laboratory information
  4. D.Dispensing all medicines
Q 30 :
Which phase of laboratory testing includes patient preparation and specimen collection?
  1. A.Pre-analytical phase
  2. B.Post-analytical phase
  3. C.Analytical phase
  4. D.Interpretative phase
Q 31 :
Which phase involves actual measurement or examination of a specimen?
  1. A.Pre-analytical phase
  2. B.Administrative phase
  3. C.Post-analytical phase
  4. D.Analytical phase
Q 32 :
Verification and communication of laboratory results belong primarily to which phase?
  1. A.Pre-analytical phase
  2. B.Post-analytical phase
  3. C.Analytical phase
  4. D.Collection phase
Q 33 :
Which is an example of a pre-analytical laboratory error?
  1. A.Mislabeling of a blood specimen
  2. B.Incorrect wavelength selection
  3. C.Incorrect calculation after analysis
  4. D.Failure of internal quality control
Q 34 :
A disease caused by pathogenic microorganisms is classified as what type of disease?
  1. A.Congenital disease
  2. B.Infectious disease
  3. C.Degenerative disease
  4. D.Nutritional disease
Q 35 :
Which type of disease is present at or before birth because of developmental or genetic factors?
  1. A.Acquired disease
  2. B.Occupational disease
  3. C.Congenital disease
  4. D.Iatrogenic disease
Q 36 :
A disorder arising as an unintended consequence of medical treatment is termed what?
  1. A.Iatrogenic disease
  2. B.Idiopathic disease
  3. C.Zoonotic disease
  4. D.Endemic disease
Q 37 :
A disease whose cause is unknown is commonly described by which term?
  1. A.Nosocomial
  2. B.Idiopathic
  3. C.Hereditary
  4. D.Communicable
Q 38 :
A disease acquired in a hospital or health-care facility is commonly termed what?
  1. A.Health-care-associated infection
  2. B.Congenital infection
  3. C.Nutritional disorder
  4. D.Genetic disease
Q 39 :
Which level of health care generally provides the first point of contact for patients?
  1. A.Primary care
  2. B.Tertiary care
  3. C.Superspecialty care
  4. D.Referral research care
Q 40 :
A district hospital laboratory usually provides services corresponding mainly to which level?
  1. A.Primary care only
  2. B.Household care
  3. C.Secondary care
  4. D.Community self-care
Q 41 :
Highly specialized laboratory investigations are most commonly available at which level?
  1. A.Tertiary care hospital
  2. B.Primary health centre
  3. C.Sub-centre
  4. D.Village clinic
Q 42 :
Which is the most important requirement before collecting a patient specimen?
  1. A.Correct patient identification
  2. B.Selecting a microscope
  3. C.Preparing culture medium
  4. D.Switching on the centrifuge
Q 43 :
Which laboratory practice best protects patient confidentiality?
  1. A.Discussing results in public areas
  2. B.Sharing results with unrelated staff
  3. C.Displaying patient reports openly
  4. D.Restricting results to authorized persons
Q 44 :
What is informed consent primarily intended to ensure?
  1. A.Automatic acceptance of all procedures
  2. B.Voluntary agreement after adequate information
  3. C.Payment before testing
  4. D.Permission from laboratory equipment manufacturers
Q 45 :
Which principle requires laboratory personnel to avoid causing harm?
  1. A.Commercialization
  2. B.Non-maleficence
  3. C.Competition
  4. D.Delegation
Q 46 :
Which ethical principle emphasizes acting for the patient's benefit?
  1. A.Autocracy
  2. B.Confidentiality alone
  3. C.Beneficence
  4. D.Noncompliance
Q 47 :
Equal and fair treatment of patients reflects which ethical principle?
  1. A.Justice
  2. B.Secrecy
  3. C.Paternalism
  4. D.Profitability
Q 48 :
Which action is appropriate when a critical laboratory result is obtained?
  1. A.Ignore it until routine reporting time
  2. B.Promptly communicate it according to laboratory policy
  3. C.Delete the result
  4. D.Release it to any available person
Q 49 :
What is the main purpose of a laboratory standard operating procedure?
  1. A.To replace all staff training
  2. B.To eliminate quality control
  3. C.To standardize performance of laboratory procedures
  4. D.To increase specimen rejection
Q 50 :
Which document provides step-by-step instructions for performing a laboratory test?
  1. A.Purchase register
  2. B.Duty roster only
  3. C.Patient discharge card
  4. D.Standard operating procedure

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