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Latest JKSSB Staff Nurse Exam Question (Objective Questions), MCQ in English
Subjects : Anatomy and Physiology, Community Health Nursing, Fundamentals of Nursing, Nutrition, Medical Surgical Nursing, Paediatric Nursing, Mental Health and Psychiatric Nursing, Midwifery
Question Bank JKSSB Staff Nurse Exam - English
Anatomy and Physiology
Q 1 :
What is the primary structural model of the cell membrane?
A.Unit membrane model
B.Fluid mosaic model
C.Sandwich model
D.Lattice model
Q 2 :
Which component of the cell membrane is primarily responsible for its fluidity?
A.Cholesterol
B.Integral proteins
C.Peripheral proteins
D.Glycoproteins
Q 3 :
What is the main function of carbohydrates in the cell membrane?
A.Structural support
B.Cell recognition
C.Ion transport
D.Energy storage
Q 4 :
Which type of protein spans the entire cell membrane?
A.Peripheral proteins
B.Lipid-anchored proteins
C.Integral proteins
D.Surface proteins
Q 5 :
What is the primary role of the cell membrane in cellular function?
A.Selective permeability
B.Protein synthesis
C.DNA replication
D.Energy production
Q 6 :
What is the term for the anatomical position where the body is standing upright with palms facing forward?
A.Supine
B.Prone
C.Lateral recumbent
D.Anatomical position
Q 7 :
Which plane divides the body into anterior and posterior parts?
A.Coronal
B.Sagittal
C.Transverse
D.Oblique
Q 8 :
What does the term "proximal" refer to in anatomical terminology?
A.Away from the midline
B.Further from the point of attachment
C.Toward the midline
D.Closer to the point of attachment
Q 9 :
Which term describes a structure located closer to the midline of the body?
A.Medial
B.Lateral
C.Superior
D.Inferior
Q 10 :
What is the term for a movement that increases the angle between two bones?
A.Extension
B.Flexion
C.Abduction
D.Adduction
Community Health Nursing
Q 11 :
Community health nursing focuses on:
A.Hospital patients only
B.Individuals with chronic illness
C.People in community settings
D.Only children
Q 12 :
The main goal of community health nursing is:
A.Promote hospital admission
B.Promote and preserve health of community
C.Give injections only
D.Isolate patients
Q 13 :
What is the full form of PHC?
A.Private Health Clinic
B.Primary Health Centre
C.Public Health Council
D.Personal Health Care
Q 14 :
Which of the following is an element of primary health care?
A.Advanced surgery
B.Health education
C.CT scan services
D.Organ transplant
Q 15 :
The Alma-Ata declaration of 1978 is related to:
A.Community health nursing
B.School health
C.Primary health care
D.Hospital care
Q 16 :
The principle of primary health care includes:
A.Specialization
B.Community participation
C.Expensive treatment
D.Tertiary care only
Q 17 :
Which level of prevention focuses on early diagnosis and prompt treatment?
A.Primary
B.Secondary
C.Tertiary
D.None
Q 18 :
Community health is defined as:
A.Care to individuals in clinics
B.Care to only pregnant women
C.Health care provided to population groups
D.Emergency care in hospital
Q 19 :
Primary health care is mainly delivered at:
A.Tertiary hospitals
B.PHC and Sub-Centres
C.Medical colleges
D.Clinics in malls
Q 20 :
Community participation is a principle of:
A.Curative health care
B.Primary health care
C.Intensive care
D.Palliative care
Q 21 :
Which health worker works at the sub-centre level?
A.Surgeon
B.ANM
C.Dentist
D.Pharmacist only
Q 22 :
The minimum population covered by a PHC in plain areas is:
A.10,000
B.20,000
C.30,000
D.50,000
Q 23 :
How many sub-centres are under one PHC?
A.1-2
B.4-6
C.10-12
D.8-10
Q 24 :
One of the important characteristics of primary health care is:
A.Unequal distribution
B.Accessibility
C.Luxury services
D.Delay in care
Q 25 :
A key strategy in community health is:
A.Individual counseling only
B.Community diagnosis
C.Medical tourism
D.Surgical care
Q 26 :
What is the role of community health nurse?
A.Only assist doctor
B.Provide emergency services
C.Provide holistic care in community
D.Work in operation theatre
Q 27 :
What does the concept of "health for all" mean?
A.Hospitalization for all
B.Health services only for rich
C.Achieving acceptable level of health by all
D.Only vaccinations
Q 28 :
Which is the first contact between individual and health system?
A.Tertiary hospital
B.PHC
C.Sub-centre
D.Private nursing home
Q 29 :
Primary health care is based on which type of approach?
A.Medical model
B.Community-based approach
C.Industrial approach
D.Private care approach
Q 30 :
The concept of primary health care was proposed by:
A.WHO
B.UNICEF
C.ICMR
D.FAO
Fundamentals of Nursing
Q 31 :
What is the primary focus of nursing care ?
A.Diagnosis and treatment
B.Holistic patient care
C.Administrative tasks
D.Research and data analysis
Q 32 :
Which of the following is not a component of the nursing process ?
A.Assessment
B.Planning
C.Evaluation
D.Promotion
Q 33 :
Which term refers to the integration of clinical knowledge and technical skills in nursing practice ?
A.Critical thinking
B.Empathy
C.Communication
D.Time management
Q 34 :
What is the main goal of nursing education and practice ?
A.Disease prevention
B.Health promotion
C.Financial management
D.Policy development
Q 35 :
What is the role of a nurse in the assessment phase of the nursing process ?
A.Implementing interventions
B.Identifying patient needs
C.Administering medications
D.Evaluating outcomes
Q 36 :
Which function of nursing involves advocating for patient rights and ensuring ethical care ?
A.Managerial
B.Caregiver
C.Advocate
D.Educator
Q 37 :
Which type of nursing care focuses on providing comfort and support to terminally ill patients ?
A.Hospice care
B.Palliative care
C.Long - term care
D.Acute care
Q 38 :
Which statement best describes the scope of nursing practice ?
A.It is limited to medical settings .
B.It encompasses a wide range of healthcare settings and populations .
C.It primarily involves surgical procedures .
D.It is only concerned with the elderly population .
Q 39 :
What is the primary responsibility of a nurse in the planning phase of the nursing process ?
A.Conducting physical examinations
B.Establishing patient goals and outcomes
C.Administering medications
D.Providing emotional support
Q 40 :
Which of the following is not a core competency of nursing practice ?
A.Communication
B.Critical thinking
C.Financial management
D.Cultural competence
Q 41 :
What is the purpose of the evaluation phase in the nursing process ?
A.Establishing a diagnosis
B.Reassessing patient needs and outcomes
C.Creating a care plan
D.Administering treatments
Q 42 :
Which role involves coordinating care among different healthcare providers and disciplines ?
A.Caregiver
B.Coordinator
C.Educator
D.Advocate
Q 43 :
Which of the following is not a principle of therapeutic communication ?
A.Active listening
B.Non - judgmental attitude
C.Providing unsolicited advice
D.Empathy
Q 44 :
Which organization sets the standards for nursing education and practice in the United States ?
A.American Medical Association (AMA)
B.American Nurses Association (ANA)
C.World Health Organization (WHO)
D.Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC)
Q 45 :
What is the purpose of continuing education for nurses ?
A.To maintain professional licensure
B.To increase administrative skills
C.To specialize in a single area of practice
D.To reduce patient outcomes
Q 46 :
Which of the following is an essential component of evidence - based nursing practice ?
A.Relying solely on personal experience
B.Integrating clinical expertise, patient preferences, and best research evidence
C.Following outdated protocols
D.Disregarding patient preferences
Q 47 :
What is the role of a nurse in the implementation phase of the nursing process ?
A.Setting patient goals
B.Administering interventions and treatments
C.Reassessing patient needs
D.Evaluating outcomes
Q 48 :
What is the primary responsibility of a nurse in the caregiver role ?
A.Coordinating care among different healthcare providers
B.Administering medications
C.Providing emotional support and comfort to patients
D.Advocating for patient rights
Q 49 :
Which principle is crucial for maintaining patient confidentiality ?
A.Sharing patient information with colleagues
B.Only discussing patient information in private, secure environments
C.Posting patient information on social media
D.Providing patient information to anyone who asks
Q 50 :
What is the purpose of the American Nurses Association (ANA) Code of Ethics for Nurses ?
A.To establish billing codes for nursing services
B.To provide guidelines for ethical nursing practice
C.To regulate nurse - to - patient ratios
D.To determine staffing levels in healthcare facilities
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JKSSB Staff Nurse Exam Question Bank Book - English
What is the primary goal of health promotion and disease prevention in nursing practice ?
A.Treating acute illnesses
B.Preventing the spread of infectious diseases
C.Enhancing overall health and well - being
D.Managing chronic conditions
Q 52 :
Which term refers to the legal obligation of a nurse to provide care to a patient ?
A.Ethics
B.Duty to care
C.Confidentiality
D.Autonomy
Q 53 :
Which type of nursing care focuses on helping patients regain independence in activities of daily living (ADLs) ?
A.Rehabilitation care
B.Home healthcare
C.Emergency care
D.Acute care
Q 54 :
What is the primary purpose of the nurse as an educator ?
A.Providing medical diagnoses to patients
B.Educating patients and families about health promotion and disease prevention
C.Administering medications
D.Coordinating care with other healthcare providers
Q 55 :
Which principle is central to cultural competence in nursing care ?
A.Treating all patients the same regardless of cultural background
B.Recognizing and respecting individual cultural differences
C.Avoiding interactions with patients from different cultures
D.Prioritizing one culture over others
Nutrition
Q 56 :
What are the two main categories of animal feed ?
A.Roughages and Concentrates
B.Grains and Seeds
C.Legumes and Fruits
D.Vegetables and Dairy
Q 57 :
Which of the following is classified as a roughage ?
A.Wheat bran
B.Corn silage
C.Soybean meal
D.Fish meal
Q 58 :
What is the primary characteristic of concentrates in animal feed ?
A.High fiber content
B.High energy and protein content
C.Low digestibility
D.Low nutritional value
Q 59 :
Which of the following feeds is typically classified as a protein concentrate ?
A.Alfalfa hay
B.Oats
C.Soybean meal
D.Barley
Q 60 :
What type of feed is generally used to provide essential minerals and vitamins to livestock ?
A.Energy feeds
B.Protein feeds
C.Mineral and vitamin supplements
D.Fiber sources
Medical Surgical Nursing
Q 61 :
Who is considered the founder of modern nursing ?
A.Florence Nightingale
B.Clara Barton
C.Mary Seacole
D.Dorothea Dix
Q 62 :
In which war did Florence Nightingale establish her nursing principles and practices ?
A.Crimean War
B.American Civil War
C.World War I
D.Napoleonic Wars
Q 63 :
Who is known for his discovery of the smallpox vaccine ?
A.Edward Jenner
B.Louis Pasteur
C.Robert Koch
D.Joseph Lister
Q 64 :
Who is considered the father of modern surgery and introduced the concept of antiseptic surgery ?
A.Joseph Lister
B.William Harvey
C.Hippocrates
D.Andreas Vesalius
Q 65 :
Which physician is known for his work on the circulation of blood in the body ?
A.William Harvey
B.Hippocrates
C.Galen
D.Andreas Vesalius
Q 66 :
Who is often referred to as the "Father of Medicine" and is known for his contributions to medical ethics and the Hippocratic Oath ?
A.Hippocrates
B.Galen
C.Avicenna (Ibn Sina)
D.Andreas Vesalius
Q 67 :
Who is credited with discovering the role of bacteria in causing infectious diseases ?
A.Robert Koch
B.Louis Pasteur
C.Edward Jenner
D.William Osler
Q 68 :
Who introduced the concept of asepsis in surgical procedures and is known for the development of sterile techniques ?
A.Ignaz Semmelweis
B.Joseph Lister
C.William Osler
D.Florence Nightingale
Q 69 :
Who is known for his work on the germ theory of disease, which laid the foundation for modern microbiology ?
A.Louis Pasteur
B.Robert Koch
C.Edward Jenner
D.Florence Nightingale
Q 70 :
Which ancient physician made significant contributions to anatomy and is known for his detailed anatomical drawings ?
A.Andreas Vesalius
B.Hippocrates
C.Galen
D.Avicenna (Ibn Sina)
Q 71 :
Who is considered the father of modern bacteriology and is known for his research on the transmission of diseases ?
A.Robert Koch
B.Louis Pasteur
C.Edward Jenner
D.Joseph Lister
Q 72 :
Who introduced the practice of handwashing to reduce the spread of infectious diseases in healthcare settings ?
A.Ignaz Semmelweis
B.Joseph Lister
C.Florence Nightingale
D.William Osler
Q 73 :
Which ancient Greek physician made significant contributions to the field of anatomy and is known for his system of medicine based on the four humors ?
A.Galen
B.Hippocrates
C.Andreas Vesalius
D.Avicenna (Ibn Sina)
Q 74 :
Who is known for his contributions to the field of cardiology and for describing the circulation of blood through the heart ?
A.William Harvey
B.Hippocrates
C.Galen
D.Andreas Vesalius
Q 75 :
Who is known for his extensive writings on medicine and is considered one of the most significant medical scholars of the Islamic Golden Age ?
A.Avicenna (Ibn Sina)
B.Hippocrates
C.Galen
D.Andreas Vesalius
Q 76 :
Who is known for his pioneering work in the field of surgical anesthesia and the use of ether as an anesthetic agent ?
A.William Morton
B.William Halsted
C.William Osler
D.Ignaz Semmelweis
Q 77 :
Who is known for his contributions to the field of aseptic technique and surgical education, and is considered one of the "Big Four" founding professors of Johns Hopkins Hospital ?
A.William Halsted
B.William Morton
C.William Harvey
D.William Osler
Q 78 :
Who is considered the "Father of Modern Pathology" and made significant contributions to the understanding of diseases through microscopic examination of tissues ?
A.Rudolf Virchow
B.Louis Pasteur
C.Edward Jenner
D.Robert Koch
Q 79 :
Who is known for his pioneering work in the field of radiology and is credited with the discovery of X - rays ?
A.Wilhelm Conrad Roentgen
B.Marie Curie
C.Henri Becquerel
D.Ernest Rutherford
Q 80 :
Who is known for her groundbreaking research on radioactivity and was the first woman to win a Nobel Prize ?
A.Marie Curie
B.Florence Nightingale
C.Clara Barton
D.Elizabeth Blackwell
Paediatric Nursing
Q 81 :
What is the first-line treatment for a child experiencing an acute asthma attack ?
A.Antibiotics
B.Bronchodilators (e.g., albuterol)
C.Antipyretics
D.Intravenous fluids
Q 82 :
What is the most common cause of seizures in children aged 6 months to 5 years ?
A.Meningitis
B.Febrile illness
C.Hypoglycaemia
D.Head injury
Q 83 :
What is the recommended initial management for a child with a suspected foreign body aspiration ?
A.Administering antibiotics
B.Inducing vomiting
C.Performing chest compressions
D.Immediate bronchoscopy
Q 84 :
Which of the following is a characteristic feature of Kawasaki disease ?
A.Persistent cough
B.Strawberry tongue
C.Jaundice
D.Cyanosis
Q 85 :
In a child with a suspected appendicitis, which imaging modality is often preferred for diagnosis ?
A.Chest X-ray
B.Abdominal ultrasound
C.Magnetic resonance imaging (MRI)
D.Electrocardiogram (ECG)
Q 86 :
What is the primary treatment for dehydration in a child with gastroenteritis ?
A.Intravenous antibiotics
B.Oral rehydration therapy (ORT)
C.Antiemetic medications
D.Intramuscular injections
Q 87 :
What is the initial step in managing a child with anaphylaxis ?
A.Administering epinephrine
B.Applying cold compresses
C.Giving antihistamines
D.Checking blood pressure
Q 88 :
Which of the following is a classic sign of meningococcal sepsis in a child ?
A.Koplik spots
B.Petechial rash
C.Strawberry tongue
D.Honey-colored crusted lesions
Q 89 :
What is the preferred method for assessing a child's core body temperature during an emergency situation ?
A.Axillary temperature measurement
B.Oral temperature measurement
C.Rectal temperature measurement
D.Tympanic temperature measurement
Q 90 :
What is the recommended position for a child experiencing a febrile seizure ?
A.Supine position
B.Prone position
C.Left lateral decubitus position
D.Trendelenburg position
Mental Health and Psychiatric Nursing
Q 91 :
What is the primary goal of national mental health programs ?
A.To improve access to mental health services and protect the rights of the mentally ill
B.To limit access to mental health care
C.To focus solely on psychiatric hospitals
D.To ignore human rights issues
Q 92 :
Which international document outlines the human rights of individuals with mental illness ?
A.The Universal Declaration of Human Rights
B.The Geneva Convention
C.The Paris Agreement
D.The Convention on the Rights of the Child
Q 93 :
What is a key principle in the human rights approach to mental health care ?
A.Respect for the dignity and autonomy of the individual
B.Restricting patient autonomy
C.Ignoring individual preferences
D.Limiting patient involvement in care decisions
Q 94 :
How does the national mental health program address the issue of involuntary commitment ?
A.By ensuring legal safeguards and review processes to protect patients' rights
B.By ignoring legal safeguards
C.By making involuntary commitment more frequent
D.By avoiding review processes
Q 95 :
Which right is crucial for individuals with mental illness according to human rights standards ?
A.The right to informed consent
B.The right to be restrained without consent
C.The right to be isolated from family
D.The right to restricted access to personal information
Q 96 :
What is the basic structural and functional unit of life?
A.Organ
B.Tissue
C.Cell
D.Organ system
Q 97 :
Which organelle is known as the ‘powerhouse’ of the cell?
A.Nucleus
B.Mitochondria
C.Ribosome
D.Golgi apparatus
Q 98 :
What is the function of ribosomes in a cell?
A.Energy production
B.Protein synthesis
C.DNA storage
D.Waste removal
Q 99 :
Which of the following is responsible for cell division?
A.Mitochondria
B.Lysosomes
C.Centrioles
D.Endoplasmic Reticulum
Q 100 :
The nucleus of a cell contains:
A.Enzymes
B.Ribosomes
C.DNA
D.Glucose
Midwifery
Q 101 :
Which of the following is not a part of the female reproductive system?
A.Ovary
B.Fallopian tube
C.Prostate gland
D.Uterus
Q 102 :
Where does fertilization of the ovum typically occur?
A.Ovary
B.Uterus
C.Cervix
D.Fallopian tube
Q 103 :
The primary function of the testis is to:
A.Produce urine
B.Produce sperm and testosterone
C.Regulate blood sugar
D.Control temperature
Q 104 :
Which hormone is mainly responsible for the development of female secondary sex characteristics?
A.Testosterone
B.Estrogen
C.Oxytocin
D.Prolactin
Q 105 :
What is the function of the uterus?
A.Urine formation
B.Sperm production
C.Implantation and growth of the embryo
D.Hormone secretion
Q 106 :
Which of the following is a male accessory reproductive gland?
A.Bartholin gland
B.Seminal vesicle
C.Cervical gland
D.Urethral gland
Q 107 :
Which organ connects the uterus to the external genitalia in females?
A.Ovary
B.Fallopian tube
C.Vagina
D.Cervix
Q 108 :
The scrotum helps in:
A.Sperm production
B.Hormone secretion
C.Temperature regulation for sperm
D.Fertilization
Q 109 :
Which structure produces ova?
A.Uterus
B.Ovary
C.Fallopian tube
D.Vagina
Q 110 :
Which of the following is not part of the male reproductive system?
A.Penis
B.Testes
C.Prostate gland
D.Cervix
Q 111 :
The function of the epididymis is to:
A.Produce sperm
B.Store and mature sperm
C.Produce testosterone
D.Form semen
Q 112 :
The inner lining of the uterus is called:
A.Endometrium
B.Myometrium
C.Perimetrium
D.Epimetrium
Q 113 :
Sperm are produced in:
A.Vas deferens
B.Prostate gland
C.Seminiferous tubules
D.Urethra
Q 114 :
Which of the following carries sperm from the testes to the urethra?
A.Fallopian tube
B.Vas deferens
C.Seminal vesicle
D.Epididymis
Q 115 :
Which part of the male reproductive system secretes a fluid that nourishes sperm?
A.Penis
B.Scrotum
C.Prostate gland
D.Urethra
Q 116 :
Which hormone is responsible for ovulation?
A.FSH
B.LH
C.Estrogen
D.Progesterone
Q 117 :
The vulva includes all the following except:
A.Labia majora
B.Clitoris
C.Vagina
D.Mons pubis
Q 118 :
The clitoris is homologous to which male organ?
A.Testis
B.Penis
C.Prostate
D.Scrotum
Q 119 :
The cervix is located between the:
A.Vagina and vulva
B.Uterus and vagina
C.Uterus and fallopian tube
D.Ovary and uterus
Q 120 :
Which of the following is the site of sperm storage in males?