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Question Bank

JPSC ACF Prelims Exam - English

Duration: 120 · Questions: 150 · Max Marks: 150 · Language: 3

View JPSC ACF 2026 Exam Page

Indian History and Indian National Movement

1
The Cripps mission was an attempt by the British government to
  1. A.Extend communal representation in the Imperial legislature
  2. B.Convince the Congress to join the Central legislature
  3. C.Secure full Indian cooperation and support for their efforts in World War II
  4. D.Conclude the Round Table Conferences Successfully
2
The proposal of the Cripps mission was that
1. India would be a dominion associated with the United Kingdom
2. An elected body charged with the task of making the constitution would be setup immediately after the World War Il is stopped.
Which of the above is/are correct?
  1. A.I only
  2. B.2 only
  3. C.Both 1 and 2
  4. D.None
3
The proposal of the Cripps mission was that
1. An Indian Union with a dominion status would be set up and it would be free to decide its relations with the Commonwealth
2. After the end of the World War I, a constituent assembly would be convened to frame a new constitution
3. Any province not willing to join the Indian Union could have a separate constitution and form a separate Union
Which of the above is/are correct?
  1. A.1 only
  2. B.1 and 3 only
  3. C.2 and 3 only
  4. D.1, 2 and 3
4
Why Indian National Congress (INC) leaders were not satisfied with the Cripps Mission (1942) proposals?
  1. A.Cripps Mission did not address the issue of separate electorates.
  2. B.Cripps Mission did not deliberate any matter with the Indian leaders and proposed unilateral measures.
  3. C.Leaders wanted full independence rather than a dominion status.
  4. D.Cripps Mission agreed for post-war real transfer of power but maintained that the Viceroy and Secretary of State shall be appointed by the crown.
5
Mahatma Gandhi decided to launch 'Individual Satyagraha' due to dissatisfaction With
  1. A.Government of India Act, 1935 which eroded autonomy of local bodies
  2. B.Religious intolerance in the countryside
  3. C.August offer made by the British during the course of the Second World War
  4. D.State of untouchables in the country
6
Consider the following with reference to the East India Association organised in London:
1. It was founded by Dadabhai Naoroji.
2. The organisation aimed to present correct information about India to the British public and voice Indian grievances.
3. The East India Association incorporated the National Indian Association before the Komagata Maru incident.
Select the correct answer using the codes below.
  1. A.1 and 2 only
  2. B.2 and 3 only
  3. C.3 only
  4. D.1 and 3 only
7
The aim of the Indian Association found by Surendranath Banerjee was to
  1. A.Represent the views of the educated middle class and take united community action.
  2. B.Give shape to and establish the Indian National Congress.
  3. C.Advocate constitutional reforms through legislative action.
  4. D.Organise seditious movements to dethrone the British empire.
8
The Unionist Party was a powerful political party during the period 1923–1947. Consider  the following about this party:
1. The party represented the interests of land holders-Hindus, Muslims and also the Sikhs.
2. The party was particularly powerful in the Punjab region and it did not favour the creation of Pakistan as a separate state.
Which of the above is/are correct?
  1. A.1 only
  2. B.2 only
  3. C.Both
  4. D.None
9
The Ilbert Bill controversy is said to be a high watermark in the history of Indian National Movement.
This is because it invoked issues of
1. Racial discrimination between Indian and Europeans.
2. Security lapse on the Indian borders, especially the North-West Frontier Province.
3. Suppression of Indian media houses and their nationalisation by the government.
Select the correct answer using the codes below.
  1. A.1 only
  2. B.1 and 2 only
  3. C.2 and 3 only
  4. D.1 and 3 only
10
​The Vernacular Press Act in British India was concerned with
  1. A.Promoting local language new for generating local employment
  2. B.Providing for licensing and rep of newspapers published by indigenous tribes
  3. C.Banning all vernacular la publications in India
  4. D.None of the above
11
Figures associated with the Permanent Settlement in 1793 were
1. Cornwallis
2. Kenneth Mckenzie
3. Thomas Munro
Select the correct answer using the codes below.
  1. A.I only
  2. B.2 and 3 only
  3. C.I and 3 only
  4. D.1 and 2 only
12
Which of the following land arrangements were prevalent after the application of Permanent Settlement in rural Bengal?
1. Zamindars were responsible for paying revenue to the Company and distributing the revenue demand over villages.
2. Each village ryot paid rent to the zamindar.
3. Jotedars gave out loans to ryots and sold their produce.
Select the correct answer using the codes below.
  1. A.1 and 2 only
  2. B.2 and 3 only
  3. C.3 only
  4. D.1, 2 and 3
13
Which of the following dynasties do NOT belong to Medieval India?
  1. A.Western Ganga dynasty
  2. B.Kakatiya Kingdom
  3. C.Rashtrakuta dynasty
  4. D.Nanda dynasty
14
Consider the following statements about Alvars and Nayanars:
1. They used Tamil for promoting their messages and singing hymns in praise of God.
2. They did not believe in caste-based discrimination prevailing in the Hindu society then
3. They later merged with the Vaishnavites and Shaivites. Choose the correct answer using the codes below.
  1. A.1 and 2
  2. B.2 and 3
  3. C.1 and 3
  4. D.2 only
15
The most powerful trend of medieval Indian literature between 1000 and 1800 AD is devotional (bhakti) poetry. The dominating note of bhakti is
  1. A.ecstasy and total identity with God
  2. B.bliss in becoming the servant of God
  3. C.detachment of worldly identities and service of God
  4. D.detachment of worldly identities and service of mankind
16
Match List-I with List-II
  List-I                                                              List-II
(Author)                                                         (Book)
(a) John William Kaye                                (i) Indian Old and New
(b) Mary Carpenter                                    (ii) The Economic History of India under Early  British Rule
(c) Ramesh Chandra Dutt                         (iii) A History of the Sepoy War in India
(d) Valentine Chiral                                   (iv) Six months in India
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
  1. A.(a) (b) (c) (d)
    ​(iii) (iv) (ii) (i)
  2. B.(iv) (iii) (i) (ii)
  3. C.(ii) (i) (iv) (iii)
  4. D.(ii) (iii) (i) (iv)
17
Match List-I with List-II :
 List-I                                                   List-II
(Book)                                               (Contents)
(a) Nizami-i Anjum                           (i) Deals with current weights and measures
(b) Tuhfat-ul Hind                            (ii) Hindu astrology
(c) Dabistan-i                                  (iii) Hindu prosody and Mazahib rhetoric
(d) Risala-Miqdariyah                     (iv) Different religions and sects of India
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
  1. A.(a) (b) (c) (d)
    ​(iii) (iv) (i) (ii)
  2. B.(i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
  3. C.(ii) (iii) (iv) (i)
  4. D.(iv) (i) (ii) (iii)
18
Given below are two statements : One is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R) .
Assertion (A) : The Supreme Council of the Governor-General in Calcutta gave extraordinary powers to Special Commissions to capture and punish rebels of the 1857 Revolt, in its Act XIV of June 1857
Reason (R) : The primary aim of Sir Syed Ahmed Khan's Causes of the Indian Revolt (1858), then a government sub-Judge, was to show the loyalty of Muslims, who in the years following the rebellion were viewed with suspicion and disfavour 
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below :
  1. A.Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
  2. B.Both (A) and (R) are correct, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
  3. C.(A) is correct, but (R) is not correct
  4. D.(A) is not correct, but (R) is correct
19
Ibn Battuta informs that the Sultan had fixed Wednesday for freeing male slaves, Friday for freeing female slaves and Saturday for marrying men slaves to female slaves. Identify the Sultan .
  1. A.Balban
  2. B.Aladdin Kanji
  3. C.Muhammad Bin Tughlaq
  4. D.Firuz Shah Tughlaq
20
In the Bayan Hoard, coins of which Gupta ruler have been found in the highest number ?
  1. A.Chandragupta-I
  2. B.Samudragupta
  3. C.Chandragupta-II
  4. D.Kumaragupta-I

Geography of India and the World

1
Normal Cycle of Erosion is associated with
  1. A.Glacial Erosion    
  2. B.Fluvial Erosion
  3. C.Marine Erosion          
  4. D.Wind Erosion
2
The drainage pattern which is not controlled by the parent structure o which it flows is termed as
  1. A.Consequent 
  2. B.Subsequent
  3. C.Insequent      
  4. D.Resequent
3
The term “Swash” refers to
  1. A.Backward  movement of sea water at the beach after the breaking of a wave.
  2. B.Oblique movement of sea water at the beach after the breaking of a wave.
  3. C.Forward movement of sea water up the beach after the breaking of a wave.
  4. D.Sideward movement of sea water up the beach after the breaking of a wave.
4
The unconsolidated rock material deposited by surface wash at the base of a cliff is called
  1. A.Alluvium
  2. B.Colluvium
  3. C.Moraines
  4. D.Silt
5
Which one of the followings represents a source of atmospheric energy?
  1. A.Infrared radiation emitted downward from clouds
  2. B.Visible radiation scattered upward into the space
  3. C.Latent heat released
  4. D.Albedo of the earth and the atmosphere
6
Which one of the following proceses is important for the formation of lightning in a developing cloud?
  1. A.Absorption of solar cosmic rays
  2. B.Small lapse rate
  3. C.Strong vertical air currents
  4. D.Heavy rainfall
7
Given below are two statements, one labelled as Assertion (A) and other labelled as Reason (R). Select your answer from the codes given below:
Assertion (A) : Land surface is heated more quickly and to a greater extent than the water surface when subjected to equal amount of inslation.
Reason (R) :The land is opaque while water is transparent to solar radiation.
  1. A.Codes :
    Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is correct explanation of (A).
  2. B.Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not correct explanation of (A).
  3. C.(A) is true, but (R) is false.
  4. D.(A) is false , but (R) is true.
8
Which one of the ‘C’ types of climate receives the bulk of its precipitation during the cold season?
  1. A.Cfa           
  2. B.Cs
  3. C.cwa               
  4. D.Cfc
9
Which one of the following statements is not true about the Coriolis Force?
  1. A.It is the effect of earth’s rotation.
  2. B.It is maximum over polar region.
  3. C.It is directly related to frictional force.
  4. D.It is proportional to wind speed.ove
10
Identify the correct statement pertaining to the Mid-Atlantic Ridge from the floor of Atlantic Ocean among the following:
  1. A.Almost 3 Km above
  2. B.Almost 4 Km above
  3. C.Almost 5 Km above
  4. D.Almost 6 Km above
11
Which is the longest river in India?
  1. A.Yamuna
  2. B.Ganges
  3. C.Brahmaputra
  4. D.Godavari
12
The Western Ghats are also known as:
  1. A.Sahyadris
  2. B.Vindhyas
  3. C.Satpuras
  4. D.Aravallis
13
Which river is known as the ‘Sorrow of Bihar’?
  1. A.Ganges
  2. B.Kosi
  3. C.Son
  4. D.Gandak
14
Which mountain range separates Northern India from Southern India?
  1. A.Aravallis
  2. B.Vindhyas
  3. C.Eastern Ghats
  4. D.Himalayas
15
The Deccan Plateau is bordered by which two mountain ranges?
  1. A.Himalayas and Western Ghats
  2. B.Western Ghats and Eastern Ghats
  3. C.Vindhyas and Satpuras
  4. D.Aravallis and Satpuras
16
Which Indian state has the longest coastline?
  1. A.Gujarat
  2. B.Maharashtra
  3. C.Tamil Nadu
  4. D.Andhra Pradesh
17
Which is the only active volcano in India?
  1. A.Deccan Traps
  2. B.Barren Island
  3. C.Narcondam Island
  4. D.Lakshadweep
18
The Tropic of Cancer passes through how many Indian states?
  1. A.5
  2. B.7
  3. C.8
  4. D.10
19
The Western Coastal Plains of India are divided into which three sections?
  1. A.Konkan, Malabar, Coromandel
  2. B.Konkan, Kannad, Malabar
  3. C.Malabar, Coromandel, Northern Circar
  4. D.Konkan, Northern Circar, Malabar
20
In which state is the Thar Desert located?
  1. A.Gujarat
  2. B.Rajasthan
  3. C.Madhya Pradesh
  4. D.Punjab

Indian Polity and Constitution of India

1
When was the Constituent Assembly of India formed?
  1. A.1946
  2. B.1947
  3. C.1948
  4. D.1950
2
Who was the Chairman of the Drafting Committee of the Indian Constitution?
  1. A.Dr. Rajendra Prasad
  2. B.Dr. B.R. Ambedkar
  3. C.Jawaharlal Nehru
  4. D.Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel
3
The idea of the Constituent Assembly was first put forward by:
  1. A.Mahatma Gandhi
  2. B.M.N. Roy
  3. C.Jawaharlal Nehru
  4. D.Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel
4
The Cabinet Mission Plan for India was proposed in:
  1. A.1942
  2. B.1945
  3. C.1946
  4. D.1947
5
The Constitution of India was adopted on:
  1. A.15th August 1947
  2. B.26th January 1950
  3. C.26th November 1949
  4. D.30th January 1948
6
The Preamble of the Indian Constitution is borrowed from the Constitution of:
  1. A.USA
  2. B.UK
  3. C.Canada
  4. D.Australia
7
The Indian Constitution was enforced on:
  1. A.15th August 1947
  2. B.26th January 1950
  3. C.26th November 1949
  4. D.30th January 1948
8
The concept of the 'Rule of Law' in the Indian Constitution is derived from:
  1. A.USA
  2. B.UK
  3. C.Germany
  4. D.Canada
9
The term 'Secular' was added to the Preamble by the:
  1. A.42nd Amendment
  2. B.44th Amendment
  3. C.52nd Amendment
  4. D.62nd Amendment
10
The 'Directive Principles of State Policy' in the Indian Constitution were inspired by:
  1. A.The Constitution of Canada
  2. B.The Constitution of Ireland
  3. C.The Constitution of Australia
  4. D.The Constitution of USA
11
The Constitution of India was drafted by:
  1. A.200 members
  2. B.298 members
  3. C.250 members
  4. D.310 members
12
The objective resolution, which later became the Preamble, was moved by:
  1. A.Mahatma Gandhi
  2. B.Sardar Patel
  3. C.Jawaharlal Nehru
  4. D.B.R. Ambedkar
13
Which part of the Indian Constitution deals with the Fundamental Rights?
  1. A.Part II
  2. B.Part III
  3. C.Part IV
  4. D.Part V
14
The concept of Judicial Review in the Indian Constitution is borrowed from:
  1. A.UK
  2. B.USA
  3. C.Canada
  4. D.Australia
15
The Union List in the Seventh Schedule contains:
  1. A.52 subjects
  2. B.66 subjects
  3. C.97 subjects
  4. D.61 subjects
16
The concept of a 'Federation with a strong centre' is taken from the Constitution of:
  1. A.Canada
  2. B.USA
  3. C.Australia
  4. D.Germany
17
The President of the Constituent Assembly was:
  1. A.Dr. B.R. Ambedkar
  2. B.Dr. Rajendra Prasad
  3. C.Jawaharlal Nehru
  4. D.Sardar Patel
18
Which article of the Indian Constitution deals with the abolition of untouchability?
  1. A.Article 14
  2. B.Article 15
  3. C.Article 17
  4. D.Article 19
19
The Constitution of India was written in:
  1. A.English only
  2. B.Hindi only
  3. C.Both English and Hindi
  4. D.Regional languages
20
The concept of 'Fundamental Duties' was added to the Constitution by the:
  1. A.42nd Amendment
  2. B.44th Amendment
  3. C.46th Amendment
  4. D.48th Amendment

History, Geography, Economy and Culture of Jharkhand

1
Where did Chuar revolt happen in Jharkhand ?
  1. A.Maanbhum
  2. B.Tamar
  3. C.Dhalbhum
  4. D.Santhal Pargana
2
Which of the following trees is also known as the 'king of deciduous forest' ?
  1. A.semal
  2. B.rosewood
  3. C.sal
  4. D.gular
3
Which was the first tribal rebellion in Jharkhand against the British ?
  1. A. Chero
  2. B. Bhumij
  3. C. Kharwar
  4. D. Dhal
4
What was the name of the Anglo Indian member who was nominated by the governer of Jharkhand to the state legislative assembly (2014) ?
  1. A. Michael Lobo
  2. B. Joseph Galstaun
  3. C. David Cooper
  4. D. Sam Martin
5
Which of the following queens extended her support in the pahariya revolt ?
  1. A. queen of Sitapur
  2. B. queen of Rampur
  3. C. queen of Singhbhum
  4. D. queen of Maheshpur
6
What was the percentage of farm labours in Jharkhand during 2017- 18 ?
  1. A. 65,40
  2. B. 66.85
  3. C. 68.70
  4. D. 69.42
7
Bhukhan Singh, the leader of chero revolt was hanged in which year ?
  1. A.1802
  2. B. 1805
  3. C. 1808
  4. D.1810
8
When did Malik Bayan (Ibrahim Ali, according to santhali sources), the army general of Muhammad- Bin-Tughlaq attack the Hazaribagh region ?
  1. A.1325
  2. B. 1340
  3. C.1352
  4. D. 1365
9
After the auction of Palamu region by the British, which king was assigned the responsibility to rule over it ?
  1. A.Medini Rai
  2. B.Jaswant Singh
  3. C.Ghanshyam Singh
  4. D. Ramavatar Singh
10
Which ruler of Delhi annexed Satgaon of Hazaribagh and made it the capital of the region ?
  1. A. Feroz Shah Tughlaq
  2. B. Muhammad Bin Tughlaq
  3. C. Jahangir
  4. D. Shah Muhammad Tughlaq
11
Which of the following tribes revolted against the British company and the king of Bhardev, Raja Ghanshyam Singh in 1817 ?
  1. A. Mahali
  2. B. Chero
  3. C. Asur
  4. D.Gond
12
In which year the people of 'Ho' tribe launch a massive revolt ?
  1. A. 1820-21
  2. B.1825-26
  3. C.1830-31
  4. D. 1834-35
13
In 2016, what was the percentage of people who followed Christianity in Jharkhand ?
  1. A.10.41
  2. B. 9.41
  3. C. 8.52
  4. D. 7.86
14
In which region 'Ho'revolt happen occured ?
  1. A.Singhbhum
  2. B. Tamar
  3. C.Santhal Pargana
  4. D. Hazaribagh
15
During the Quit India Movement in 1942, Jai Prakash Narayan along with his five companions successfully managed to escape from which of the following jails ?
  1. A.Ranchi
  2. B.Hotwar
  3. C. Patna
  4. D.Hazaribagh
16
During the Quit India Movement in 1942, Saraswati Devi of Hazaribagh was imprisoned in which of the following jails ?
  1. A. Boakro
  2. B.Deoghar
  3. C. Bhagalpur
  4. D.Patna
17
In which year did Maanbhum Jhanda Satyagrah occured ?
  1. A. 1942
  2. B. 1943
  3. C.1944
  4. D.1945
18
Which of the following temples is known as the Madan Mohan temple ?
  1. A. Boreiya temple
  2. B. Pahari temple
  3. C.Shraddha temple
  4. D. Devtar temple
19
Who was the founder ofChota Nagpur progressive society in 1915 ?
  1. A.Kartik Oraon
  2. B.Ramdayal Munda
  3. C.Joel Lakra
  4. D.Jaipal Singh Munda
20
In Kanwar tribe what is the bride value known as ?
  1. A.Sukdaam
  2. B. Pon
  3. C.Jhawar
  4. D. Katiya
21
Who was the founder of Santhal Pargana Adivasi Sabha in 1938 ?
  1. A.Devendra Murmu
  2. B. Theodor Sureen
  3. C.Pyare Kerketta
  4. D. Sukhdev Oraon
22
Who built the Chutiya Temple ?
  1. A.Raja Raghunath Shah
  2. B.Thakur Shahdev
  3. C. Gopal Rai
  4. D. Jaswant Singh
23
Who was the founder of Chota Nagpur Joint Association (Chota Nagpur Sanyukt Sangh) in 1954 ?
  1. A.Kartik Oraon
  2. B. Sukhdev Mahto
  3. C. Shibu Soren
  4. D. Divakar Murmu
24
When did Tana Bhagat movement start ?
  1. A. 1914
  2. B. 1913
  3. C.1912
  4. D.1911
25
Which was the first non violent tribal movement that was based completely on Gandhi's philosophy ?
  1. A. Bhumij Rebellion
  2. B.Chero Rebellion
  3. C.Safahod Rebellio
  4. D. Tana Bhagat Rebellion
26
The law of diminishing marginal utility is based on which assumption?
  1. A.All of the above
  2. B.Constant marginal utility of money
  3. C.Rational consumer
  4. D.Homogeneous units of goods
27
An indifference curve shows?
  1. A.Different levels of income
  2. B.Combinations of two goods yielding same satisfaction
  3. C.Budget constraints
  4. D.Different levels of utility functions
28
The slope of the indifference curve is known as?
  1. A.Opportunity cost
  2. B.Price ratio
  3. C.Marginal rate of substitution
  4. D.Budget line
29
If two indifference curves intersect, it violates which assumption?
  1. A.Non-satiation
  2. B.Rationality
  3. C.Convexity
  4. D.Transitivity
30
Which of the following is a cardinal utility approach?
  1. A.Indifference curve analysis
  2. B.Ordinal utility theory
  3. C.Marshall’s utility theory
  4. D.Revealed preference theory

Indian Economy

1
What is the primary purpose of agriculture?
  1. A.To produce energy
  2. B.To cultivate crops and rear animals for food, fiber, and other products
  3. C.To develop urban areas
  4. D.To promote tourism
2
Which of the following is a major component of agriculture?
  1. A.Manufacturing
  2. B.Information technology
  3. C.Horticulture
  4. D.Real estate
3
Agriculture is often referred to as the backbone of which economy?
  1. A.Industrial economy
  2. B.Service economy
  3. C.Rural economy
  4. D.Urban economy
4
What is subsistence farming?
  1. A.Farming for commercial purposes
  2. B.Farming primarily for household consumption
  3. C.Farming using advanced technology
  4. D.Farming with a focus on exports
5
Which of the following is NOT a type of agriculture?
  1. A.Organic farming
  2. B.Aquaculture
  3. C.Non-agricultural farming
  4. D.Precision farming
6
What is the primary objective of public finance?
  1. A.To manage government debt
  2. B.To regulate private sector finance
  3. C.To determine the allocation of resources for public goods
  4. D.To increase government revenue
7
Which of the following is an example of public finance?
  1. A.Private sector investment
  2. B.Government spending on health care
  3. C.Corporate tax planning
  4. D.Stock market investments
8
What is the main difference between public finance and private finance?
  1. A.Public finance is concerned with government activities, while private finance deals with individual or corporate finance
  2. B.Private finance involves taxes, while public finance involves spending
  3. C.Public finance is more concerned with profit-making than private finance
  4. D.There is no difference between the two
9
Which of the following is NOT a key function of public finance?
  1. A.Resource allocation
  2. B.Income distribution
  3. C.Profit generation
  4. D.Economic stabilization
10
Public finance is mainly concerned with the following aspect of government finance:
  1. A.Deficit financing
  2. B.Taxation and government expenditure
  3. C.Stock market investments
  4. D.Exchange rate management
11
Which of the following is NOT a key indicator of economic growth?
  1. A.GDP (Gross Domestic Product)
  2. B.Inflation rate
  3. C.Unemployment rate
  4. D.Per capita income
12
What is inflation?
  1. A.A sustained increase in the general price level of goods and services.
  2. B.A decrease in the general price level of goods and services.
  3. C.A period of economic recession.
  4. D.An increase in unemployment.
13
Which of the following is a leading economic indicator?
  1. A.Unemployment rate
  2. B.Consumer Price Index (CPI)
  3. C.Industrial production
  4. D.Interest rates
14
What is the primary function of the Reserve Bank of India (RBI)?
  1. A.To regulate the banking system in India.
  2. B.To manage the fiscal deficit.
  3. C.To implement government policies.
  4. D.To provide social security benefits.
15
What is monetary policy?
  1. A.Government spending and taxation policies.
  2. B.Policies that control the money supply and interest rates.
  3. C.Policies related to international trade.
  4. D.Policies aimed at reducing poverty.
16
What is fiscal policy?
  1. A.Government spending and taxation policies.
  2. B.Policies that control the money supply and interest rates.
  3. C.Policies related to international trade.
  4. D.Policies aimed at reducing poverty.
17
What is the Repo Rate?
  1. A.The interest rate at which commercial banks borrow from the RBI.
  2. B.The interest rate at which the RBI borrows from commercial banks.
  3. C.The interest rate at which banks lend to their customers.
  4. D.The interest rate at which the government borrows from the RBI.
18
What is the Reverse Repo Rate?
  1. A.The interest rate at which commercial banks borrow from the RBI.
  2. B.The interest rate at which the RBI borrows from commercial banks.
  3. C.The interest rate at which banks lend to their customers.
  4. D.The interest rate at which the government borrows from the RBI.
19
What is the Cash Reserve Ratio (CRR)?
  1. A.The percentage of deposits that banks must keep as reserves with the RBI.
  2. B.The percentage of deposits that banks can lend out.
  3. C.The interest rate charged by banks on loans.
  4. D.The rate at which the RBI lends to banks.
20
What is the Statutory Liquidity Ratio (SLR)?
  1. A.The percentage of deposits that banks must keep as reserves with the RBI.
  2. B.The percentage of deposits that banks must invest in government securities.
  3. C.The interest rate charged by banks on loans.
  4. D.The rate at which the RBI lends to banks.

Important contemporary events of the state, country and world

1
The Rajasthan AI-ML Policy 2026 was launched during which conference?
  1. A.Digital India Summit
  2. B.AI Action Summit
  3. C.Regional AI Impact Conference 2026
  4. D.India AI Impact Summit
2
Which ministry introduced the Swasth Bharat Portal?
  1. A.Ministry of Women and Child Development
  2. B.Ministry of Education
  3. C.Ministry of Health and Family Welfare
  4. D.Ministry of AYUSH
3
India's first green methanol project is located in which state?
  1. A.Gujarat
  2. B.Rajasthan
  3. C.Maharashtra
  4. D.Odisha
4
Mission Mausam was launched by which ministry?
  1. A.Ministry of Earth Sciences
  2. B.Ministry of Environment
  3. C.Ministry of Science and Technology
  4. D.Ministry of Agriculture
5
National Technology Day is observed in India on which date?
  1. A.10 May
  2. B.11 May
  3. C.12 May
  4. D.15 May
6
Which organization publishes the World Economic Outlook report?
  1. A.OECD
  2. B.WTO
  3. C.IMF
  4. D.World Bank
7
What was the theme of the 9th IONS Conclave of Chiefs 2026?
  1. A.Maritime Security First
  2. B.Indo-Pacific Cooperation
  3. C.Maritime Cooperation for Humanitarian Support
  4. D.Blue Economy Growth
8
Which city hosted the 9th IONS Conclave of Chiefs 2026?
  1. A.Kochi
  2. B.Mumbai
  3. C.Visakhapatnam
  4. D.Goa
9
What was the theme of BioAsia International Summit 2026?
  1. A.AI for Humanity
  2. B.Future of Biotechnology
  3. C.TechBio Unleashed: AI, Automation & the Biology Revolution
  4. D.Digital Health Revolution
10
Which city hosted the 23rd BioAsia International Summit 2026?
  1. A.Mumbai
  2. B.Chennai
  3. C.Bengaluru
  4. D.Hyderabad
11
Which country holds the BRICS Chairmanship in 2026?
  1. A.Brazil
  2. B.Russia
  3. C.China
  4. D.India
12
Which city hosted the Regional AI Impact Conference 2026?
  1. A.Chennai
  2. B.Jaipur
  3. C.Pune
  4. D.Kochi
13
Which country is expected to host COP31 Climate Summit 2026?
  1. A.France
  2. B.UAE
  3. C.Germany
  4. D.Turkey
14
Which country is scheduled to host the BRICS Summit 2026?
  1. A.China
  2. B.India
  3. C.South Africa
  4. D.Brazil
15
Which city is expected to host the G20 Summit 2026?
  1. A.New York
  2. B.Washington D.C.
  3. C.Miami
  4. D.Los Angeles
16
Which ministry organized the India AI Impact Summit 2026?
  1. A.Ministry of Science and Technology
  2. B.Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology
  3. C.Ministry of Commerce
  4. D.Ministry of Education
17
Where was the India AI Impact Summit 2026 organized?
  1. A.Pragati Maidan, Delhi
  2. B.Vigyan Bhawan, New Delhi
  3. C.Bharat Mandapam, New Delhi
  4. D.Hyderabad International Convention Centre
18
Which summit on Artificial Intelligence was hosted by India in February 2026?
  1. A.World AI Congress
  2. B.AI Action Summit
  3. C.India AI Impact Summit 2026
  4. D.Global AI Forum
19
Where was the BRICS Foreign Ministers' Meeting held in May 2026?
  1. A.Mumbai
  2. B.Hyderabad
  3. C.Bengaluru
  4. D.New Delhi
20
What is the theme of India’s BRICS Chairmanship 2026?
  1. A.Inclusive Growth for All
  2. B.Sustainable Global Economy
  3. C.One Earth One Future
  4. D.Building for Resilience, Innovation, Cooperation and Sustainability

General Science

1
10-6 M NaOH is diluted 100 times. The pH of the diluted base is
  1. A.between 7 and 8
  2. B.between 5 and 6
  3. C.between 6 and 7
  4. D.between 10 and 11
2
In the electrolysis of acidulated water, it is desired to obtain 1.12 cc of hydrogen per second under STP condition. The current to be passed is
  1. A.1.93 A         
  2. B.9.65 A
  3. C.19.3 A        
  4. D.0.965 A
3
The one which decreases with dilution is
  1. A.molar conductance
  2. B.conductance
  3. C.specific conductance
  4. D.equivalent conductance
4
Vapour pressure of pure ‘A’ is 70 mm of Hg at 25oC. It forms an ideal solution with ‘B’ in which mole fraction of A is 0.8. if the vapour pressure of the solution is 84 mm of Hg at 25oC, the vapour pressure of pure ‘B’ at 25oC is
  1. A.28 mm   
  2. B.56 mm
  3. C.70 mm    
  4. D.140 mm
5
A 6% solution of urea is isotonic with
  1. A.1 M solution of glucose
  2. B.0.05 M solution of glucose
  3. C.6% solution of glucose
  4. D.25% solution of glucose
6
In countries nearer to polar region, the roads are sprinkled with CaCl2. This is
  1. A.to minimise the wear and tear of the roads
  2. B.to minimise the snow fall
  3. C.to minimise pollution
  4. D.to minimise the accumulation of dust on the road
7
The respiratory quotient during cellular respiration would depend on
  1. A.the nature of enzymes involved
  2. B.the nature of the substrate
  3. C.the amount of carbon dioxide released
  4. D.the amount of oxygen utilised
8
Which of the following is not a green - house gas ?
  1. A.Water vapour
  2. B.Carbon monoxide
  3. C.Methane
  4. D.Oxygen
9
Both husband and wife have normal vision though their fathers were colorblind and mothers did not have any gene for colorblindness. The probability of their daughters becoming colorblind is
  1. A.50%          
  2. B.75%
  3. C.0% 
  4. D.25%
10
An animal, which has both exoskeleton and endoskeleton structures is a
  1. A.fresh-water mussel
  2. B.tortoise
  3. C.frog
  4. D.jelly fish
11
Identify the group, which includes animals all of which give birth to young ones directly?
  1. A.Dolphin, kangaroo, bat, cat
  2. B.Platypus, penguin, bat, hippopotamus
  3. C.shrew, bat, kiwi, car
  4. D.Lion, whale, ostrich, bat
12
Compare the statement A and B.
Statement A Blood sugar level falls rapidly after hepatectomy.
Statement B The glycogen of the liver is the principal source of blood sugar.
Select the correct description.
  1. A.Both the statements A and B are correct and B is the reason for A
  2. B.Statement A is correct and B is wrong
  3. C.Statement A is wrong and B is correct
  4. D.Both the statements A and B are correct and B is not the reason for A
13
What is/are true about heart wood?
(A) It does not help in water conduction.
(B) It is also called laburnum.
(C) It is dark in colour but very soft.
(D) It has tracheary elements which are filled with tannin, resin, etc.
  1. A.B,C and D
  2. B.A and D
  3. C.B and D
  4. D.A, B and C
14
In ruby laser, the stimulated emission is due to transition from
  1. A.metastable state to any lower state
  2. B.any higher state of lower state
  3. C.metastable state to ground state
  4. D.any higher state to ground state
15
A direct current I flows along the length of an infinitely long straight thin walled pipe, then the magnetic field is
  1. A.uniform throughout the pipe not zero
  2. B.zero only along the axis of the pipe
  3. C.zero at any point inside the pipe
  4. D.maximum at the centre and minimum at the edge
16
convex lens made of glass has focal length 0.15m in air. If the refractive index of glass is 3/2, and that of water is 4/3 the focal length of lens when immersed in water is
  1. A.0.45 m    
  2. B.0.15 m
  3. C.0.30 m       
  4. D.0.6 m
17
Two sources are said to be coherent if they produce waves
  1. A.having a constant phase difference
  2. B.of equal wavelength
  3. C.of equal speed
  4. D.having same shape of wavefront
18
Three resistors 1 Ω, 2 Ω, 3Ω resistor a 3 V battery is connected. The current through 3 Ω resistor is -
  1. A.0.75 A     
  2. B.1 A
  3. C.2 A         
  4. D.1.5 A
19
In a common emitter amplifier the input signal is applied across
  1. A.anywhere 
  2. B.emitter-collector
  3. C.collector-base
  4. D.base-emitter
20
Adding detergents to water helps in removing dirty greasy stains. This is because
1. It increases greasy stains. This is because
2. It decreases the oil-water surface tension
3. It increases the viscosity of the solution
4. Dirt is held suspended surrounded by detergent molecules
  1. A.2 and 4
  2. B.1 only
  3. C.3 and 4
  4. D.4 only