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Question Bank JPSC Assistant Public Prosecutor Prelims Exam Paper 2 - English

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Law

Question 1Single Answer

Which Act gave separate electorate rights to Muslims in India ?

A
The Indian Councils Act, 1909
B
The Government of India Act, 1915
C
The Government of India Act, 1919
D
The Government of India Act, 1935

Question 2Single Answer

Which one of the following made the Indian Legislature bicameral ?

A
The Indian Councils Act, 1909
B
Government of India Act, 1919
C
Government of India Act, 1935
D
Indian Independence Act, 1947

Question 3Single Answer

'Diarchy' was established in India by which of the following ?

A
The Indian Councils Act, 1909
B
The Government of India Act, 1935
C
The Government of India Act, 1919
D
None of the above

Question 4Single Answer

Which one of the following aimed at providing a federal structure for India ?

A
Indian Councils Act, 1909
B
Government of India Act, 1919
C
Government of India Act, 1935
D
Indian Independence Act, 1947

Question 5Single Answer

As a guardian of the government of India Act, 1935 a Court was constituted which was called.

A
Privy Council
B
Supreme Court
C
High Court
D
Federal Court

Question 6Single Answer

Under the Government of India Act 1935, the Federal court had -

A
Original jurisdiction only
B
Appellate jurisdiction only
C
Advisory jurisdiction only
D
Original, appellate and advisory jurisdiction

Question 7Single Answer

Under the Government of India's Act 1935, how many Governors and Chief Commissioners provinces constituted in British India ?

A
14 and 7
B
11 and 7
C
15 and 9
D
None of the above

Question 8Single Answer

The Mountbaten plan led to the enactment of :

A
Government of India Act, 1919
B
Government of India Act, 1935
C
The Indian Independence Act, 1947
D
None of the above

Question 9Single Answer

The plan of Lord Mountbatten was excepted by the congress and the muslim league. The British Parliament enacted the Indian Independence act, 1947 which got Royal assistant on -

A
3 June, 1947
B
4 July, 1947
C
15 July, 1947
D
18 July, 1947

Question 10Single Answer

Which one of the following relates to transfer of power to the Indians and partition of the country ?

A
Simon Commission
B
Cripps Mission
C
Cabinet Mission Plan
D
The Mountbatten plan

Question 11Single Answer

In which year Mayor's Courts were introduced in three Presidency Towns in India ?

A
1726
B
1772
C
1774
D
1781

Question 12Single Answer

On whose recommendation amongst the following the Constituent Assembly was constituted ?

A
Cripps Mission
B
Webel Mission
C
Lord Mountbatten
D
Cabinet Mission Plan

Question 13Single Answer

Who was the Constitutional Advisor to the Constitutent Assembly ?

A
Dr. B. R. Ambedkar
B
Pt. Jawahar Lal Nehru
C
Sr. B.N. Rau
D
Dr. Rajendra Prasad

Question 14Single Answer

The first Constituent Assembly Meeting held on 9.12.46 was presided over by -

A
Dr. Rajendra Prasad
B
Shri S.N. Sinha
C
Shri Jawahar Lal Nehru
D
None of the above

Question 15Single Answer

Who among the following was the President of Constituent Assembly ?

A
Dr. Rajendra Prasad
B
Sardar Patel
C
Dr. Bhimrao Ambedkar
D
Pt. J. Nehru

Question 16Single Answer

Who was the first Prsident of Constituent Assembly of India ?

A
Dr. B. R. Ambedkar
B
Dr. K. N. Katju
C
Dr. Rajendra Prasad
D
C. Rajagopalachari

Question 17Single Answer

The number of the members of the Drafting Committee of the Constitution were

Question 18Single Answer

Who among the following was the Chairman of the Constitution Drafting Committee ?

A
Dr. B. R. Ambedkar
B
Motilal Nehru
C
M.K. Gandhi
D
Sardar Patel

Question 19Single Answer

The members of the Constituent Assembly were -

A
Elected directly by the people
B
Nominated by the Indian National Congress
C
Delegate of Indian princes
D
Mainly elected by the provincial Asemblies

Question 20Single Answer

When was the first meeting of the Constituent Assembly held ?

A
8^th December
B
9^th December
C
10^th December
D
12^th December

Question 21Single Answer

The first meeting of the Constituent Assembly was held on -

A
9^th December, 1946
B
15^th August, 1947
C
26^th December, 1949
D
10^th December, 1948

Question 22Single Answer

The task of making the Constitution was over on -

A
26^th November, 1949
B
26^th January, 1950
C
15^th August, 1947
D
25^th November, 1949

Question 23Single Answer

The Constitution of India was adopted by the Constituent Assembly on -

A
November 25, 1949
B
November 29, 1949
C
November 26, 1949
D
November 27, 1949

Question 24Single Answer

The Constitution of India, as framed by the Constituent Assembly, was finally adopted and enacted on -

A
15^th August, 1947
B
26^th November, 1949
C
30^th January, 1949
D
26^th January, 1950

Question 25Single Answer

On which one of the following dates, the Constitution of India was adopted and finalized by the Constituent Assembly -

A
26^th January, 1950
B
26^th November, 1949
C
26^th November, 1950
D
26^th January, 1948

Question 26Single Answer

The Draft of Indian Evidence Act, 1872 was prepared by .

A
Lord Macaulay
B
Sir James F. Stephen
C
Huxley
D
Sir Henery Maine

Question 27Single Answer

Who drafted the Indian Evidence Act

A
Lord Denning
B
A.V. Dicey
C
Lord Macaulay
D
J. F. Stephen

Question 28Single Answer

Which of the following statements is correct in relation to Evidence Act ?

A
Sir Henry Maine prepared the draft Bill of the Act
B
Sir James Stephen prepared the draft Bill of the Act
C
The draft Bill of the Act was prepared by II Law
D
None of the above

Question 29Single Answer

The law of evidence under the Indian Evidence Act, 1872 is

A
Substantive Law
B
Procedural Law
C
Substantive and Procedural Law
D
None of the above

Question 30Single Answer

Law of evidence is

A
A substantive law
B
an adjective law
C
Both (A) and (B)
D
Neither (A) nor (B)

Question 31Single Answer

Indian Evidence Act, 1872 applies to

A
Only civil proceedings
B
Only criminal proceedings
C
Civil and criminal Proceeding both
D
None of the above

Question 32Single Answer

Indian Evidence Act, applies to both Civil and Criminal Proceedings before a Court is the statement :

A
Not correct
B
Correct
C
Partly correct
D
None of the above

Question 33Single Answer

Law of Evidence :

A
Retrospective
B
Effect the fundamental right of person
C
Always have prospective effect
D
Not a procedural law

Question 34Single Answer

Point out the correct answer
Law of Evidence is

A
Lex Talionis
B
Lex Fori
C
Lex Loci
D
Lex Situ

Question 35Single Answer

The meaning of 'Lex Loci' is :

A
Law of the Land is Supreme
B
Law of Land
C
Local Laws
D
Law of England

Question 36Single Answer

The Indian Evidence Act, 1872 has been divided into………Parts and ........... Chapters .

A
2, 10
B
3, 11
C
4, 12 3, 12
D
3, 12

Question 37Single Answer

How many Sections and Chapters are there in Indian Evidence Act ?

A
164 Sections and 10 Chapters
B
167 Sections and 10 Chapters
C
167 Sections and 11 Chapters
D
167 Sections and 9 Chapters

Question 38Single Answer

As per preamble of the Indian Evidence Act, 1872, the purpose of this Act is

A
to provide, define and amend the law of evidence
B
to provide, consolidate the law of evidence
C
to define and amend the law of evidence
D
to consolidate, define and amend the law of evidence

Question 39Single Answer

Indian Evidence Act, 1872 was enacted on the of

A
6th October, 1860
B
1st March, 1874
C
15th March, 1872
D
1st September, 1872

Question 40Single Answer

Which one of of the following dates enforcement of Indian Evidence Act, 1872 is correct ?

A
15th March, 1872
B
1st September, 1872
C
1st July, 1872
D
1st February, 1872

Question 41Single Answer

Indian evidence act was enforced

A
1 Sep. 1862
B
1 Oct. 1872
C
1 July 1872
D
None of the above

Question 42Single Answer

The Indian Evidence Act applies to -

A
proceedings before tribunals
B
affidavits presented to any court or
C
proceedings before an arbitrator
D
None of the above

Question 43Single Answer

The affidavit given to the Court is

A
not an evidence
B
an evidence
C
merely a written statement
D
a proof

Question 44Single Answer

Indian Evidence Act 1872 does not apply to

A
Affidavits produced before the court
B
proceedings before the arbitrator
C
Both (a) and (b)
D
On Judicial proceedings before the courtv

Question 45Single Answer

The Indian Evidence Act applies to

A
Affidavits
B
Judicial proceedings
C
Arbitration proceedings
D
All of these

Question 46Single Answer

The Indian Evidence Act, 1872 applies to

A
administrative tribunal's proceedings
B
arbitrator's proceedings
C
contempt's proceedins
D
none of the above

Question 47Single Answer

Which evidence is not admissible ?

A
Evidence on affidavit
B
Oral evidence
C
Documentary evidence
D
Expert evidence

Question 48Single Answer

To which of the following does the Evidence Act apply ?

A
Non-judicial proceedingsf
B
Affidavits
C
Judicial proceedings
D
Arbitration proceedings

Question 49Single Answer

The Indian Evidence Act, 1872 applies to :-

A
All judicial proceedings in or before any Court
B
affidavits presented to any Court or officer
C
proceedings before an Arbitrator
D
All the above

Question 50Single Answer

The Indian Evidence Act :

A
applies to proceedings before an arbitrator
B
does not apply to proceedings before an arbitrator
C
does not apply to appeals
D
is basically a substantive law

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Law

Question 51Single Answer

1. Which of the following is correct answer ?
i. Provisions of Cr.P.C. not apply to the State of Jammu and Kashmir
ii. All provisions of Cr.P.C. not apply to the State of Nagaland
Choose the correct answer

A
Only (i) is correct
B
Only (ii) is correct
C
Both (i) and (ii) are incorrect
D
Both (i) and (ii) are correct

Question 52Single Answer

Which among the following chapters of the Cr.P.C., 1973 does not apply to the State of Nagaland and the tribal areas ?

A
Chapter VIII
B
Chapter IX
C
Chapter X
D
Chapter XI

Question 53Single Answer

The provisions of Code of Criminal Procedure 1973, other than those relating to Chapter VIII, X and XI, thereof shall not apply in which of the following -

A
State of Tripura
B
State of Assam
C
State of Meghalya
D
State of Nagaland

Question 54Single Answer

Reason for non-applicability of some of the provisions of the Criminal Procedure Code to the State of Nagaland have been stated by the Supreme Court in -

A
State of Nagaland v. Ratan Singh
B
Maharaja Vikram Kishore of Tripura v. Province of Assam
C
Zarzoliana v. Government of Mizoram
D
State of Nagaland v. Chung

Question 55Single Answer

What is the meaning of 'tribal areas' for the purpose of Section 1 of the Criminal Procedure Code ?

A
Municipal area of Shilong
B
Municipal area of Mizoram
C
Assam as prescribed in Para 20 of the Sixth Schedule of the Constitution
D
Arunachal Pradesh as prescribed by the Constitution

Question 56Single Answer

Assertion (A) : Subject to some exceptions the provisions of the Code of Criminal Procedure are not applicable to tribal areas in undivided Assam.
Reason (R) : These areas enjoy special status like the State of Jammu and Kashmir.
Code

A
Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is correct explanation of (A)
B
Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not correct explanation of (A)
C
(A) is true, but (R) is false
D
(A) is false, but (R) is true

Question 57Single Answer

When the Criminal Procedure Code, 1973 came into force ?

A
On April 1, 1973
B
On April 1, 1974
C
On January 1, 1974
D
On March 1, 1974

Question 58Single Answer

When the Criminal Procedure Code, 1973 received the assent of the President of India ?

A
25-12-1973
B
25-01-1974
C
25-02-1974
D
25-05-1974

Question 59Single Answer

The Code of Criminal Procedure (Amendment) Act 2005 (No. 25 of 2005) received the assent of the President on :

A
21^st July, 2005
B
23^rd June, 2005
C
22^nd August, 2005
D
20^th September, 2005

Question 60Single Answer

Criminal Law (Amendment) Act 2013, came into effect on

A
6^th April, 2013
B
3^rd February, 2013
C
7^th January, 2013
D
5^th March, 2013

Question 61Single Answer

Consider the following statements -
1. The Criminal Procedure Code, 1973 extends to the whole of India except the State of Jammu and Kashmir
2. The provisions relating to Chapters VIII, X, XI under the Criminal Procedure Code, 1973 shall not apply to the State of Nagaland and to the Tribal Areas
3. The Criminal Procedure Code, 1973 shall came into force on 25^th January, 1974
4. Chapter II of Cr.P.C. deals with Constitution of Criminal Courts and Offices
Which of the statements given below is correct ?

A
(1), (2), (3) and (4)
B
(2), (3) and (4)
C
(2) and (3) only
D
(1) and (4) only

Question 62Single Answer

Which of the following pairs is not correctly matched ?

A
Police report : Section 2(r)
B
Cognizable offence : Section 2(c)
C
Bailable offence : Section 2(b)
D
Investigation : Section 2(h)

Question 63Single Answer

'Bailable offence' means and offence which is shown as bailable in

A
the First Schedule of Cr.P.C
B
the Second Schedule of Cr.P.C
C
Section 425 Cr.P.C
D
Section 426 Cr.P.C.

Question 64Single Answer

What offence is bailable ?

A
Mentioned as bailable offence in I Schedule of Cr.P.C
B
All cases of summon's trial
C
All non-cognizable offences
D
All cases which are not triable by session

Question 65Single Answer

Non-bailable offence means -

A
Only those offence which are shown non bailable in the first schedule
B
All those offence which are not shown as bailable under first schedule or any other laws for the time being inforce
C
Such kind of offence for which police may arrest any person without warrant
D
Such kind of offence for which police cannot arrest any person without warrant

Question 66Single Answer

Who can frame the 'charge' according to the Criminal Procedure Code ?

A
Court
B
Public Prosecutor
C
Office-in-charge of the concerned police station
D
All of the above

Question 67Single Answer

A precise formulation of a specific accusation is called

A
Bailable offence
B
Cognizable offence
C
Charge
D
Non-compoundable offence

Question 68Single Answer

Under which Section of Cr.P.C. cognizable offence has been defined ?

A
Section 2(a)
B
Section 2(c)
C
Section 2(i)
D
Section 2(1)

Question 69Single Answer

Section 2(c) of the code of Criminal Procedure defines -

A
Bailable offence
B
Non- Bailable offence
C
Cognizable offence
D
Non-cognizable offence

Question 70Single Answer

In a cognizable offence a police officer :

A
Cannot arrest an accused without warrant
B
May arrest an accused without warrant
C
Can keep the accused in police custody without a remand order
D
Is not required to produce the accused before a Magistrate

Question 71Single Answer

Cognizable offence means an offence

A
For which a police officer may arrest without warrant
B
For which a police officer may arrest if warrant of arrest is issued
C
For which a police officer above the rank of Sub-Inspector may arrest
D
None of the above

Question 72Single Answer

In a cognizable case the police will have powers to :

A
investigate except the power to arrest without warrant
B
investigate and power to arrest without warrant only after seeking permission from the Magistrate
C
investigate including the power the arrest without warrant
D
investigate and arrest without warrant, only afer informing the Magistrate having jurisdiction to inquire into or try the offence

Question 73Single Answer

In a cognizable case, the police has authority

A
to arrest without warrant
B
to investigate the offence without the permission of the magistrate
C
Both (A) and (B)
D
either (A) or (B)

Question 74Single Answer

Point out the incorrect statement -

A
In cognizable offence any police officer may without an order from a Magistrate and without a warrant arrest any person
B
A private person may arrest or cause to be arrested any person committing a cognizable offence
C
An Executive Magistrate may arrest the offender when any offence is committed in his presence and within his jurisdiction
D
None of the above is correct

Question 75Single Answer

Section 2(d) of Cr. P.C., 1973 defines

A
Charge
B
Cognizable offence
C
Complaint
D
Inquiry

Question 76Single Answer

What is the official name of the legislation that replaced the Indian Penal Code, 1860?

A
Bharatiya Penal Code, 2023
B
Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023
C
Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023
D
Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita, 2023

Question 77Single Answer

When did the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023 receive presidential assent?

A
August 11, 2023
B
December 12, 2023
C
December 25, 2023
D
July 1, 2024

Question 78Single Answer

On which date did the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023 come into force?

A
December 25, 2023
B
January 1, 2024
C
July 1, 2024
D
August 15, 2024

Question 79Single Answer

What is the primary purpose of the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023?

A
To regulate civil disputes
B
To consolidate and amend laws relating to offences
C
To reform tax laws
D
To update family laws

Question 80Single Answer

How many sections does the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023 contain?

A
511
B
358
C
400
D
300

Question 81Single Answer

How many chapters are there in the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023?

A
23
B
20
C
25
D
18

Question 82Single Answer

Which of the following offences was removed from the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023?

A
Theft
B
Sedition
C
Robbery
D
Murder

Question 83Single Answer

What new offence was introduced in the BNS to address acts endangering India’s sovereignty?

A
Treason
B
Subversive activities
C
Sedition
D
Rebellion

Question 84Single Answer

Under the BNS, what is the punishment for murder by a group of five or more persons based on identity markers like caste or language?

A
Fine only
B
3 years imprisonment
C
7 years to life imprisonment or death
D
10 years imprisonment

Question 85Single Answer

What new form of punishment was introduced in the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023?

A
Community service
B
Public shaming
C
Exile
D
Corporal punishment

Question 86Single Answer

Which offence was newly added to the BNS to address terrorism?

A
Cybercrime
B
Terrorism
C
Forgery
D
Defamation

Question 87Single Answer

What does the BNS include in the definition of terrorism?

A
Acts of theft and robbery
B
Acts intended to threaten unity, integrity, or security of the country
C
Acts of civil disobedience
D
Acts of defamation

Question 88Single Answer

What is the punishment for gang rape under the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023?

A
7 years imprisonment
B
10 years to life imprisonment
C
Death penalty as maximum punishment
D
Both b and c

Question 89Single Answer

What is the age threshold for a victim to be classified as a major in gang rape cases under the BNS?

A
16 years
B
18 years
C
21 years
D
14 years

Question 90Single Answer

Which new offence addresses organized crime in the BNS?

A
Theft
B
Organized crime
C
Cheating
D
Breach of trust

Question 91Single Answer

What does the BNS include as part of organized crime?

A
Petty theft
B
Kidnapping and extortion by crime syndicates
C
Traffic violations
D
Civil disputes

Question 92Single Answer

Which section of the BNS distinguishes snatching from theft?

A
Section 302
B
Section 304
C
Section 310
D
Section 320

Question 93Single Answer

How does the BNS treat snatching differently from the IPC?

A
It does not recognize snatching
B
It treats snatching as theft
C
It distinguishes snatching from theft with specific provisions
D
It reduces punishment for snatching

Question 94Single Answer

What is the maximum punishment for mob lynching resulting in death under the BNS?

A
7 years imprisonment
B
Life imprisonment or death penalty
C
10 years imprisonment
D
Fine only

Question 95Single Answer

Which of the following is a new offence in the BNS related to negligent acts?

A
Causing death by negligence
B
Negligent acts causing catastrophe
C
Public nuisance
D
Trespass

Question 96Single Answer

What change has been made to the definition of 'night' in the BNS?

A
It remains the same as in the IPC
B
Defined as 'after sunset and before sunrise'
C
Defined as 'midnight to 5 AM'
D
Removed entirely

Question 97Single Answer

How has the definition of 'fire' been expanded in the BNS?

A
Includes only natural fire
B
Includes mischief by fire or explosive substance
C
Excludes explosives
D
Limited to accidental fires

Question 98Single Answer

Which colonial-era offence was removed from the BNS?

A
Murder
B
Adultery
C
Robbery
D
Assault

Question 99Single Answer

What new provision addresses sexual intercourse by deceitful means in the BNS?

A
Criminalizes false promises of marriage
B
Criminalizes all sexual intercourse
C
Removes punishment for deceit
D
Limits punishment to fines

Question 100Single Answer

Which section of the IPC dealing with sedition was removed in the BNS?

A
Section 120B
B
Section 124A
C
Section 302
D
Section 420

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