Which Windows interface element typically appears to display information, a warning, an error message, or a request for confirmation?
A
Window
B
Pop-up menu
C
Message box
D
Taskbar
Question 2Single Answer
What is active desktop ?
A
a term that is synonymous with viewing your desktop as web page
B
a feature to customize your desktop to display informating you can update from the internet
C
both a and b above mentioned
D
A software
E
None of these
Question 3Single Answer
What is meant by an active window?
A
A window that is minimized
B
The window currently receiving user input
C
Any window currently open
D
The window opened first
Question 4Single Answer
What was America Online (AOL) primarily known for during the early popularization of consumer Internet access?
A
An online service providing Internet access and proprietary online content
B
A computer operating system
C
A spreadsheet application
D
A database management system
Question 5Single Answer
An application is
A
word processing, accounting and engineering programs are example of application programs
B
computer program designed to enable users to perform specific job functions
C
Both a and b above mentioned
D
a document
E
None of these
Question 6Single Answer
Which of the following programs enables you to calculate numbers related to rows and columns?
A
Window program
B
Spreadsheet program
C
Graphics program
D
Word program
E
None of these
Question 7Single Answer
The term Briefcase is used for
A
a special folder on the windows desktop used to keep documents up to date when shared between computers
B
a window that us currently open
C
A folder which keeps deleted, files for a while and can be retrieved from it
D
All of the above
E
None of these
Question 8Single Answer
Yojna a weekly journal
A
Ministry of Finance
B
Ministry of Information and Broadcastin
C
Ministry of Rural Development
D
Planning Commission
Question 9Single Answer
Kurukshetra a journal on rural development is published by
A
Ministry of Finance
B
Ministry of Information and Broadcastin
C
Ministry of Rural Development
D
Planning Commission
Question 10Single Answer
Devaluation of a currency means
A
Fixing the value of the currency in conjuction with the movement in the value of a basket of predetermined currencies
B
Reduction in the value of a currency vis-à-vis major internationally traded currencies
C
Fixing the value of currency in multilateral consultaion with the IMF the World Bank and major trading partners
D
Permitting the currency to seek its worth in the international market
Question 11Single Answer
In India rural incomes are generally lower than the urban incomes, which of the following reasons account for this
1. a large number of farmers are illiterate and know little about scientific agriculture
2. prices of primary products are lower than those of manufactured products
3. Investments in agriculture has been low when compared to investment in industry
A
1 and 3
B
2 and 3
C
1 and 2
D
1,2 and 3
Question 12Single Answer
Which of the following programmes aims at the promotion of savings among rural women
A
Rashtriya Mahila Kosh
B
Indira Mahila Yojna
C
Jawahar Rozgar Yojna
D
Mahila Samridhi Yojna
Question 13Single Answer
What is Net National Product
A
the money value of final goods and services produced annually in the economy
B
the money value of annual service generation in the economy
C
the money value of tangible goods produced annually in the economy
D
The money value of tangible goods available in the economy
Question 14Single Answer
National income is the
A
net national product at market price
B
net national product at factor cost
C
net domestic product at market price
D
net domestic product at factor cost
Question 15Single Answer
Chelliah Committee of 1992 deals with the overhauling of our
A
financial system
B
tax system
C
patents and copyrights
D
Public sector undertakings
Question 16Single Answer
During which Five Year Plan was the annual growth rate of National Income the lowest
A
2nd plan
B
3rd plan
C
5th plan
D
6th plan
Question 17Single Answer
Which of the following taxes is a progressive tax
A
sales tax
B
custom tax
C
excise tax
D
income tax
Question 18Single Answer
How many such pairs of letters are there in the word ‘CLEANLINESS’ each of the which has as many letters between them in the word as they have in the English alphabet, in the same sequence?
A
Two
B
Three
C
Five
D
Four
E
None of these
Question 19Single Answer
Team A has scored more goals than Team B
Team C has scored fewer goals than Team B
Team A has scored fewer goals than Team C .
If the first two statements are true, the third statement is
A
True
B
False
C
Uncertain
D
None
Question 20Single Answer
If it is possible to make only one meaningful word with the second, the third, the sixth and the eight letters of the word FRAGMENT using each only once, which of the following will be the third letter of that word ? If no such word can be formed, give ‘X’ as the answer and if more than one such word can be formed, give ‘Y’ as the answer.
A
A
B
E
C
T
D
X
E
Y
Question 21Single Answer
How many such letters are there in the word ORIENTAL each of which is as far away from the beginning of the word as when they are arranged alphabetically?
A
None
B
One
C
Two
D
Three
E
More than three
Question 22Single Answer
Passage :
A B C D E F G H I J K L M N O P Q R S T U V W X Y Z .
Which letter in this alphabet is the eighth letter to the right of the letter and which is tenth letter to the left of the last but one letter of the alphabet ?
A
X
B
W
C
I
D
H
Question 23Single Answer
Passage :
Direction : The following question is based on the five words given below:
AND FOR THE BIG SUM (The new words formed after performing the mentioned operations may or may not necessarily the meaningful English words.)
If the third alphabet of each of the words is changed to the next alphabet in the English alphabetical series, which of the following will form a meaningful English word?
A
SUM
B
BIG
C
Both BIG and THE
D
FOR
E
Both FOR and BIG
Question 24Single Answer
Passage :
Direction : The following question is based on the five words given below:
AND FOR THE BIG SUM (The new words formed after performing the mentioned operations may or may not necessarily the meaningful English words.)
If the given words are arranged in the order as they would appear in a dictionary from left to right, which of the following will be second from the right ?
A
AND
B
FOR
C
THE
D
BIG
E
SUM
Question 25Single Answer
Passage :
Direction: The following question is based on the five words given below:
AND FOR THE BIG SUM (The new words formed after performing the mentioned operations may or may not necessarily the meaningful English words.)
If second alphabet in each of the words is changed to next alphabet in the English alphabetical order, how many words having two vowels (same or different vowels) will be formed ?
A
None
B
One
C
Two
D
Three
E
Four
Question 26Single Answer
Passage :
Direction : The following question is based on the five words given below:
AND FOR THE BIG SUM (The new words formed after performing the mentioned operations may or may not necessarily the meaningful English words.)
How many letters are there in the English alphabetical series between the second letter of the word which is second from the right and the second letter of the word which is second from the left of the given words?
A
Two
B
Five
C
Six
D
Nine
E
Three
Question 27Single Answer
Passage :
Direction: The following question is based on the five words given below:
AND FOR THE BIG SUM (The new words formed after performing the mentioned operations may or may not necessarily the meaningful English words.)
If in each of the given words, each of the consonant is changed to previous letter and each vowel is changed to next letter in the English alphabetical series, in how many words thus formed will no vowels appear?
A
None
B
One
C
Two
D
Three
E
More than three
Question 28Single Answer
Where did Chuar revolt happen in Jharkhand ?
A
Maanbhum
B
Tamar
C
Dhalbhum
D
Santhal Pargana
Question 29Single Answer
Which of the following trees is also known as the 'king of deciduous forest' ?
A
semal
B
rosewood
C
sal
D
gular
Question 30Single Answer
Which was the first tribal rebellion in Jharkhand against the British ?
A
Chero
B
Bhumij
C
Kharwar
D
Dhal
Question 31Single Answer
What was the name of the Anglo Indian member who was nominated by the governer of Jharkhand to the state legislative assembly (2014) ?
A
Michael Lobo
B
Joseph Galstaun
C
David Cooper
D
Sam Martin
Question 32Single Answer
Which of the following queens extended her support in the pahariya revolt ?
A
queen of Sitapur
B
queen of Rampur
C
queen of Singhbhum
D
queen of Maheshpur
Question 33Single Answer
What was the percentage of farm labours in Jharkhand during 2017- 18 ?
A
65,40
B
66.85
C
68.70
D
69.42
Question 34Single Answer
Bhukhan Singh, the leader of chero revolt was hanged in which year ?
A
1802
B
1805
C
1808
D
1810
Question 35Single Answer
When did Malik Bayan (Ibrahim Ali, according to santhali sources), the army general of Muhammad- Bin-Tughlaq attack the Hazaribagh region ?
A
1325
B
1340
C
1352
D
1365
Question 36Single Answer
After the auction of Palamu region by the British, which king was assigned the responsibility to rule over it ?
A
Medini Rai
B
Jaswant Singh
C
Ghanshyam Singh
D
Ramavatar Singh
Question 37Single Answer
Which ruler of Delhi annexed Satgaon of Hazaribagh and made it the capital of the region ?
A
Feroz Shah Tughlaq
B
Muhammad Bin Tughlaq
C
Jahangir
D
Shah Muhammad Tughlaq
Question 38Single Answer
Sattriya dance form is famous in which of these states ?
A
Assam
B
Himachal Pradesh
C
Punjab
D
Tamil Nadu
Question 39Single Answer
"Who said, 'India was a parrot unto itself'?
A
Malik Muhammad Joyce
B
Raskhan
C
Rich Khusrow
D
Rich Hasan
Question 40Single Answer
Which is the national game of Bhutan ?
A
badminton
B
basketball
C
football
D
archery
Question 41Single Answer
When was the Constituent Assembly of India formed?
A
1946
B
1947
C
1948
D
1950
Question 42Single Answer
Who is known as the "Father of the Indian Renaissance" ?
A
Raja Ram Mohan Roy
B
Swami Vivekananda
C
Rabindranath Tagore
D
Mahatma Gandhi
Question 43Single Answer
What is the study of ethics primarily concerned with ?
A
Economic behavior
B
Human values and moral principles
C
Physical health
D
Political systems
Question 44Single Answer
Who is known as the "Missile Man of India"?
A
Dr. Homi J. Bhabha
B
Dr. Vikram Sarabhai
C
Dr. APJ Abdul Kalam
D
Dr. Satish Dhawan
Question 45Single Answer
Which of the following is a natural division of Jharkhand?
A
Coastal Plain
B
Northern Plateau
C
Desert Area
D
River Delta
Question 46Single Answer
Where was the 8th International Solar Alliance (ISA) Assembly held in 2025?
A
Geneva, Switzerland
B
New Delhi, India
C
Paris, France
D
Abu Dhabi, UAE
Question 47Single Answer
What was a major outcome of the DRDO's SAMANVAY 2025 event in Bengaluru?
A
Launch of a new satellite
B
Transfer of 12 Licensing Agreements for Transfer of Technology
C
Signing of international arms deal
D
Development of AI drones
Question 48Single Answer
What was the focus of the first India-Sri Lanka Joint Working Group (JWG) meeting on Agriculture held in October 2025?
A
Farm mechanization and climate-resilient agriculture
B
Trade tariffs
C
Water disputes
D
Export quotas
Question 49Single Answer
Which company delivered India’s first 220kV Mobile Gas Insulated Switchgear (GIS) System in October 2025?
A
Siemens
B
ABB
C
GE
D
Toshiba
Question 50Single Answer
What is India’s total installed power capacity as of September 30, 2025?
A
500.89 GW
B
450 GW
C
400 GW
D
550 GW
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Child Development and Pedagogy
Question 51Single Answer
Which of the following is not the aspects of child development?
A
Physical development
B
Social development
C
Cognitive development
D
Maturity
Question 52Single Answer
Development can be described as growth in
A
cognitive state
B
physical state
C
social state
D
All of the above
Question 53Single Answer
Which of the following is not correct about meaning of development?
A
It is a series of changes as a result of maturity
B
It is a series of changes as a result of experience
C
It is a mere progressive series of changes
D
None of the above
Question 54Single Answer
Development sequence starts with ...... and ends with ......
A
ovum-sperm, zygote
B
ovum - sperm, blastocyst
C
blastocyst, zygote
D
ovum - sperm, fertilisation
Question 55Single Answer
The feeling of shame and pride develops in ........ stage.
A
infancy
B
childhood
C
adolescence
D
adulthood
Question 56Single Answer
The major difference about the concept of development between JE Anderson and E Hurlock is that Anderson considers it as ......... and Hurlock considers it as ...
A
growth and behavioural changes, processes for maturing an organism
B
growth and behavioural changes, growth and changes relating to maturity
C
growth and changes relating to maturity processes for maturing an organism
D
None of the above
Question 57Single Answer
Which of the given statement is partially correct about the characteristics of development?
A
Each phase of development has its own variable
B
Development is a process that is continuous predictable and has individual differences
C
Each phase of development is with its own characteristic behaviour
D
Development is affected by cultural changes to a certain extent
Question 58Single Answer
Consider the statement about development in human beings
I. Upto adolescence.
II. Upto adulthood.
III. Throughout life.
Which of the statement(s) given above is correct?
A
Only I
B
Only II
C
Only III
D
None of these
Question 59Single Answer
Consider the given statement(s)
I. Mental development states that sensation is a gateway of knowledge.
II. Motor development accounts for the strength and speed.
III. Change in the individual behaviour due to maturation is learning.
Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?
A
Only I
B
Only Il
C
Only III
D
All of these
Question 60Single Answer
Choose the incorrect matching with the help of given codes
I. Physical nervous system and development endocrine glands
II. Adolescence love for exploration.
III. Early childhood : sensitive language development period.
A
Codes
l is incorrect matching
B
Both I, II are incorrect matching
C
Both II, III are incorrect matching
D
None of the above
Question 61Single Answer
Early childhood period is
A
sensitive to language development
B
crucial for maturity level
C
meant for learning through the forced behaviour
D
is complex in terms of growth and development cognitively
Question 62Single Answer
The age group 6 to 11 years falls under
A
early childhood
B
pre-natal age
C
later childhood
D
None of these
Question 63Single Answer
Consider the following statement(s)
I. Physical health and mental abilities are influencer of emotional development.
II. Fulfilling social expectations comes under social development.
Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?
A
Only I
B
Only II
C
Neither I nor II
D
Both I and II
Question 64Single Answer
In which of the following stages do children become active members of their peer group?
A
Adolescence
B
Adulthood
C
Early childhood
D
Childhood
Question 65Single Answer
Which of the following statements is not correct about development?
A
Each phase of the development has hazards
B
Development is not aided by stimulation
C
Development is affected by cultural changes
D
Each phase of the development has characteristic behavior
Question 66Single Answer
Which of the following statements is not true about development?
A
Development is the product of interaction
B
Development follows an orderly sequence
C
Development is individualised process
D
Development proceeds from specific to general
Question 67Single Answer
Which one of the following statements best sums up the relationship between development and learning?
A
Development is independent of learning
B
Learning trails behind development
C
Learning and development are synonymous terms
D
Learning and development are inter-related in a complex manner
Question 68Single Answer
Which of the following development tasks is not appropriate to the late childhood?
A
Learning physical skills necessary for ordinary games
B
Achieving a masculine or feminine social role
C
Achieving personal independence
D
Learning to get along with age-mates
Question 69Single Answer
The meaning of development is
A
progressive series of changes
B
progressive series of changes as a result of motivation
C
progressive series of changes as a result of motivation and experience
D
series of changes as a result of maturation and experience
Question 70Single Answer
The best method to study growth and development of the child is
A
psychoanalytic method
B
comparative method
C
development method
D
statistical method
Question 71Single Answer
What are the factors related to learner that affects the learning?
A
Physical and mental health of the learner
B
Level of aspiration and achievement motivation
C
Readiness and will power
D
All of the above
Question 72Single Answer
Cognitive development means
A
development of intelligence
B
development of child
C
development of physical skills
D
development of individual
Question 73Single Answer
Which of the following is most essential for learning?
A
Good percentage child relationship
B
High intelligence
C
Good school
D
Desire to learn
Question 74Single Answer
Which of the following is not good for quality learning ?
A
Making notes
B
Extra reading
C
Using guide books
D
Self study
Question 75Single Answer
Human development is divided into domains such as
A
physical, spiritual, cognitive and social
B
physical, cognitive, emotional and social
C
emotional, cognitive, spiritual and social-psychological
D
psychological, cognitive, emotional and physical
Question 76Single Answer
Development starts from
A
post-childhood stage
B
pre-natal stage
C
the stage of infancy
D
pre-childhood stage
Question 77Single Answer
Adolescents may experience
A
feeling of fear about sins committed in childhood
B
feeling of self-actualisation
C
feeling of satiation about life
D
anxiety and concern about themselves
Question 78Single Answer
Which is the incorrect way to support the language development?
A
Letting the child talk uninterruptedly on a topic
B
Disapproving the use of their own language
C
Supporting initiation taken by children
D
Providing opportunities for using language
Question 79Single Answer
Naresh and Mukesh have same age group. They show quite difference in social and mental development. It is due to the following principle of development.
A
Principle of modifiability
B
Principle of definite and predictable pattern
C
Principle of individuality
D
Principle of uniform pattern
Question 80Single Answer
Development occurs in human being
A
upto the end of adolescence period
B
upto the end of childhood
C
upto the starting of adulthood
D
throughout the life
Question 81Single Answer
Which of the following principle of development is incorrect one?
A
There are individual differences in development
B
Development is the result of coincidences
C
It is a continuous process
D
It is predictable
Question 82Single Answer
For the language development of child it is important to
A
give them opportunities to express their thoughts
B
activities should be organised for developing language skills
C
give practice to writing, reading, speaking and listening
D
All of the above
Question 83Single Answer
Human development is
A
quantitative
B
qualitative
C
unmeasurable to a certain extent
D
Both (1) and (2)
Question 84Single Answer
Learning is
A
a change in behaviour
B
the result of experience or practice
C
relatively permanent change in behaviour
D
All of the above
Question 85Single Answer
Physical growth and development is called
A
readiness
B
maturation
C
mobility
D
heredity
Question 86Single Answer
In child development
A
emphasis is on process
B
emphasis is on the role of environment and experience
C
it is study from conception to adolescence
D
All of the above
Question 87Single Answer
Scope of study of child development is
A
study of different stages of child development
B
study of effects of environment on child development
C
study of individual differences
D
All of the above
Question 88Single Answer
Factors influencing the emotional development are
A
physical health
B
mental abilities
C
fatigue
D
All of these
Question 89Single Answer
"Social development means acquisition of the ability to have in accordance with social exceptions". This statement is of
A
Hurlock
B
TP Nunn
C
Mcdougall
D
Ross
Question 90Single Answer
For the development or formation of concept in the student, the teacher should
A
follow simple to complex method of teaching
B
provide opportunity to the student for ample experience
C
provide opportunity to the student for transfer of formed concepts
D
follow all the above activities
Question 91Single Answer
For the development of imagination
A
sense organs should be trained
B
story should be narrated
C
attention should be paid on the development of creative tendencies
D
All the above activities should be carried out
Question 92Single Answer
The most appropriate meaning of learning is
A
acquisition of skills
B
inculcation of knowledge
C
modification of behaviour
D
personal adjustment
Question 93Single Answer
Which of the following is a correct sequence of human development?
A
Infancy, adolescence, childhood, adulthood
B
Infancy, childhood, adolescence, adulthood
C
Childhood, adolescence, adulthood, infancy
D
Childhood, infancy, adolescence, adulthood
Question 94Single Answer
Which one of the following provides information about the roles and behaviours which are acceptable in a group, during early childhood period?
A
Siblings and teachers
B
Teachers and peers
C
Peers and parents
D
Parents and siblings
Question 95Single Answer
Which of the following is not a study skill ?
A
Writing formal reports
B
Note-taking
C
Using a dictionary
D
Getting information from an encyclopedia
Question 96Single Answer
In middle childhood, speech is more ....... rather than ...
A
socialised, egocentric
B
animistic, socialised
C
mature, immature
D
egocentric, socialized
Question 97Single Answer
The period of infancy is from
A
O to 2 years
B
O to 3 years
C
2 to 3 years
D
O to 1 years
Question 98Single Answer
Which of the following is a principle of development?
A
It is a discontinuous process
B
All processes of development are not inter-connected
C
It does not proceed at the same pace for all
D
Development is always linear
Question 99Single Answer
Understanding the principles of development of a child helps a teacher in
A
effectively catering to the different learning styles of learners
B
identifying the social status of learners
C
identifying the economic background of the learners
D
rationalising why the learners ought to be taught
Question 100Single Answer
Which of the following statements cannot be considered as a feature of learning'?
A
Learning is something that occurs as a result of certain experiences
B
Study of behaviour is learning
C
Unlearning is also a part of learning
D
Learning is a process that mediates behavior
Social Science
Question 101Single Answer
‘Economics is the study of mankind in the ordinary business of life’ was given by :
A
Adam Smith
B
Lord Robbins
C
Alfred Marshall
D
Samuelson
Question 102Single Answer
A study of how increase in the corporate income tax rate will affect the natural unemployment rate is an example of :
A
Macro Economics
B
Descriptive Economics
C
Micro Economics
D
Normative Economics
Question 103Single Answer
Under a free economy, prices are :
A
Regulated
B
Determined through free interplay of demand and supply
C
Partly regulated
D
None of these
Question 104Single Answer
In a free market economy, when consumers increase their purchase of a goods and the level of _______exceeds ______ then prices tend to rise :
A
Demand, Supply
B
Supply, Demand
C
Prices, Demand
D
Profits, Supply
Question 105Single Answer
Under Inductive method, the logic proceeds from:
A
General to particulars
B
Particular to general
C
Both (a) and (b)
D
None
Question 106Single Answer
Which of these would cause a rightward shift of the PPC curve?
A
Improvement in technology
B
Greater capital formation
C
Increase in population
D
All of these
Question 107Single Answer
Economics is the study of :
A
How society manages its unlimited resources
B
How to reduce our wants until we are satisfied
C
Who society manages its scarce resources
D
How to fully satisfy our unlimited wants.
Question 108Single Answer
Choose the industrial cities that grew rapidly in Britain in the nineteenth and twentieth centuries:
A
Leeds and Manchester
B
Bristol and Manchester
C
Carlisle and Leeds
D
Chester and Leeds
Question 109Single Answer
Which were the three Presidency cities of Colonial India in late eighteenth century?
A
Calcutta, Bombay and Madras
B
Calcutta, Bombay and Surat
C
Bombay, Madras and Delhi
D
None of these
Question 110Single Answer
What is Urbanization?
A
Migration of population from rural to urban area
B
Migration of people from urban to rural
C
Migration of people from one country to another
D
Migration of population from one state to another one
Question 111Single Answer
What is de urbanization in the colonial context?
A
The process by which many old towns, trading centers and ports emerged due to emergence of new cities.
B
The process by which many old towns, trading centers and ports declined due to emergence of new cities.
C
a and b both
D
None of these
Question 112Single Answer
Which of the following Indian cities which were de-urbanized during the nineteenth century?
i. Machlipatnam
ii. Surat
iii. Seringapatam
iv. Bombay
A
i and ii
B
i, iv and ii
C
i, ii and iii
D
i, ii, iii and iv
Question 113Single Answer
In which year Delhi became the capital of British India?
A
1916
B
1913
C
1915
D
1911
Question 114Single Answer
When was Shahjahanabad built?
A
by ShahJahan in 1640
B
by ShahJahan in 1638
C
by ShahJahan in 1639
D
None of these
Question 115Single Answer
Before Delhi, which city was the capital of British India?
A
Calcutta
B
Madras
C
Bombay
D
Agra
Question 116Single Answer
The earlist manuscripts were written on
A
palm leaves
B
paper
C
wood
D
stones
Question 117Single Answer
What does BC and AD stands for?
A
Anno Domini and Before Common
B
Before Christ and Anno Domini
C
Anno Domini and Before Christ
D
None of the above
Question 118Single Answer
Which of the following is/are characteristic(s) of a manuscript?
(A) It is written on a hard surface such as a stone or a metal.
(B) It is an old book written by hand.
(C) It is written on palm leaf or on specially prepared bark of the birch tree.
A
Only A
B
B and C
C
Only B
D
All of these
Question 119Single Answer
Which one of the following statements is false?
A
History is about changes that over time, about finding out how things were in the past and how things have changed
B
In the histories narrated by British historians about India, the rule of each Governor-General was important
C
James Mill divided Indian History into three periods Hindu, Muslim and Christian
D
The British in India believed that surveys were important for effective administration
Question 120Single Answer
Which is the criteria to decide that a particular date is important in history?
A
They are the date of birth of a king or emperor
B
A particular event or set of events has occurred on or around that date
C
It is the date of coronation of a king
D
All of the above
Question 121Single Answer
Which of the following are incorrect statements?
(A) The archaeological evidence is obtained by the systematic examination of building monumentas and work of art.
(B) The credit for excavating the Pre-Aryan past goes to Sir William Jones.
(C) The Asiatic Society of Bengal established on 1786.
(D) James Mill is known as the 'Father of Indian Archaeology'.
A
A and B
B
C and D
C
B and D
D
B, C and D
Question 122Single Answer
Consider the following statements A and B and choose the correct option
(A) Inscriptions are the most reliable evidence and their study is called epigraphy.
(B) James Princep, the secretary of the Asiatic Society of Bengal succeeded for the first time in deciphering the Brahmi script.
A
Both A and B are true
B
A is false and B is true
C
A and B are false
D
A is true and B is false
Question 123Single Answer
Companies Act is governed by
A
RBI
B
SEBI
C
Partnership Act
D
Ministry of Corporate Affairs
Question 124Single Answer
Own shares purchased by a company with a view to reduce its capital is called
A
sale
B
Purchase
C
buy-back
D
Private placement
Question 125Single Answer
A company in which there is only one member is called
A
one member company
B
one person company
C
single company
D
Individual company
Question 126Single Answer
Shares which have preferential rights are called
A
Equity share
B
Preference share
C
Debenture
D
Bond
Question 127Single Answer
Which of the following is the registered capital of the company ?
A
Nominal capital
B
Authorised capital
C
Share capital
D
Both (a) and (b)
Question 128Single Answer
Capital which is called only at the time of winding-up of the company is called
A
Capital reserve
B
Reserve capital
C
Secure capital
D
Authorised capital
Question 129Single Answer
Which kind of preference share entitIes its holders to receive arrear of dividends of previous years ?
A
Cumulative preference share
B
Non-cumulative preference share
C
Convertible preference share
D
Non-convertible dividend share
Question 130Single Answer
An efficient control system helps to
A
Accomplish organisational objectives
B
Boost employee morale
C
Judge accuracy of standards
D
All of the above
Question 131Single Answer
Controlling function of an organisation is
A
Forward-looking
B
Backward-looking
C
Forward as well as backward-looking
D
None of the above
Question 132Single Answer
Management audit is a technique to keep a check on the performance of
A
Company
B
Management of the company
C
Shareholders
D
Customers
Question 133Single Answer
Budgetary control requires the preparation of
A
Training schedule
B
Budgets
C
Network diagram
D
Responsibility centres
Question 134Single Answer
Which of the following is not applicable to responsibility accounting ?
A
Investment centre
B
Accounting centre
C
Profit centre
D
Cost centre
Question 135Single Answer
“Managerial control implies the measurement of accomplishment against the standard and the correction of deviations to assure attainment of objectives according to plans.” This definition has been given by
A
Koontz and O’ Donnell
B
Peter Drucker
C
Henri Fayol
D
Chester Barnard
Question 136Single Answer
Which of the following describes the nature of controlling ?
A
Goal-oriented process
B
Pervasive function
C
Continuous process
D
All of these
Question 137Single Answer
Which among the following are elements of Liberalism ?
I. Individual should have the right to develop his own personality
II. Man is a rational creature
III. Society should not be plural
IV. It believes in constitutionalism
Choose the correct answer from the options given below
A
I, II and III
B
II, III and IV
C
l, III and IV
D
I, II and IV
Question 138Single Answer
In which year did Pandita Ramabai open her Sharda Sadan (Home for Learning) ?
A
1889
B
1798
C
1898
D
1857
Question 139Single Answer
Given below are two statements .
Statement I Tagore and Gandhi met for the first time at Shantiniketan
Statement II Tagore and Gandhi met for the first time at Gurukul Kangri
In light of the above statements, choose the answer from the options given below
A
Both statement I and statement II are true
B
Both statement I and statement Il are false
C
Statement I is true, but statement II is false
D
Statement I is false, but statement II is true
Question 140Single Answer
Local Bodies Ombudsman may be established to hear complaints of corruption against local bodies .
This was the view of the
A
Ashok Mehta Committee
B
Balvant Rai Mehta Committee
C
LM Singhvi Committee
D
Second Administrative Reforms Commission
Question 141Single Answer
Who among the following envisaged that liberal democracy as a political apparatus would ensure the accountability of the Governors to the governed ?
A
John Stuart Mill
B
John Locke
C
Jeremy Bentham
D
Jean-Jacques Rousseau
Question 142Single Answer
Which theory of Rights claims that Rights are inalienable and cannot be separated or taken away from the individual as they are inharent and prior to society and state ?
A
Theory of Natural Rights
B
Theory of Legal Rights
C
Theory of Contractual Rights
D
Theory of Social Welfare Rights
Question 143Single Answer
Who among the following coined the term Ecofeminism ?
A
Francoise d' Eaubonne
B
Okin
C
Kate Millett
D
Germaine Greer
Question 144Single Answer
......... is the channelling of an increasing number of women into low-status, poorly paid manual work.
A
Feminisation of poverty
B
Female proletarianisation
C
Feminisation of labour
D
None of the above
Question 145Single Answer
An Italian consuming paneer tikka in Rome and an Indian consuming pizza in Varanasi is an example of
A
globalisation of food
B
globalisation of commodities
C
globalisation of culture
D
All of the above
Question 146Single Answer
Who had given the concept of 'modes of individual adaptation' ?
A
E Durkheim
B
T Parsons
C
RK Merton
D
P Blau
Question 147Single Answer
Consider the following statements and state which of the following is/are correct ?
I. Quantitative research is any research method that involves the analysis of numerical data derived usually from surveys and experiments.
II. Qualitative research is any research method that involves the analysis of numerical data derived usually from surveys and experiments.
III. Inferential statistics does not allow researchers to use data from a relatively small group to speculate with some level of certainty about a larger group.
IV. Quantitative research methods do not require statistical methods for collecting and reporting data.
V. Statistics is the mathematical method used to analyse numerical data.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below.
A
I, II, III and IV
B
Only I
C
II, III and IV
D
I and V
Question 148Single Answer
.................. is an epistemological position that advocates the application of the methods of natural science to the study of social reality and beyond.
A
Interpretivism
B
Constructionism
C
Positivism
D
None of these
Question 149Single Answer
A ......... entails the collection of data on more than one case (usually quite a lot more than one) and at a single point in time.
A
cross - sectional research design
B
longitudinal research design
C
Both 1. and 2
D
None of the above
Question 150Single Answer
Match List - I with List - II. List - I (Thinkers) List - II (Concepts/Ideas)
A. A Comte I. Size and density
B. E Durkheim II. Level of intellectual development
C. K Marx III. Evolution and complexity
D. H Spencer IV. Economic influence Choose the correct answer from the options given below.
A
A B C D
III IV I IIII
B
II I IV III
C
I III IV II
D
II III I IV
Science and Mathematics
Question 151Single Answer
The elements of the set {x : x is an integer, x2 : 4} can be represent as .....Z..... . Here, Z refers to
A
{–2, 2}
B
{–1, 0, 1}
C
{–2, –1, 0, 1, 2}
D
{0, 1, 2}
Question 152Single Answer
A
B
C
D
None of these
Question 153Single Answer
If Y = {x : x is a positive factor of the number 2p – 1(2p – 1), where 2p – 1 is a prime number}, then Y can be represent in roster form as
A
{2}
B
{1, 2}
C
{1, 2, 22, ....., 2p – 1}
D
{1, 2, 22, 23,.... 2p – 1, (2p – 1)}
Question 154Single Answer
The set {x : x is a positive integer less than 6 and 3x – 1 is an even number} in roster form is
A
{1, 2, 3, 4, 5}
B
{1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6}
C
{2, 4, 6}
D
{1, 3, 5}
Question 155Single Answer
If A B and A B, then
A
A is called a proper subset of B
B
A is called a super set of B
C
A is not a subset of B
D
B is a subset of A
Question 156Single Answer
The number of non-empty subsets of the set{1, 2, 3, 4} is
A
15
B
14
C
16
D
17
Question 157Single Answer
The number of elements of the power set of a set containing m elements is
A
2m – 1
B
m
C
m2
D
2m
Question 158Single Answer
If A = {x : x = n2, n = 1, 2, 3}, then number of proper subsets is
A
3
B
8
C
7
D
None of these
Question 159Single Answer
If A = {x : x = 4n + 1, 2 £ n £ 5},then number of subsets of A is
A
16
B
15
C
4
D
None of these
Question 160Single Answer
Let A and B be two non-empty subsets of a set X such that A is not a subset of B, then
A
A is always a subset of the complement of B
B
B is always a subset of A
C
A and B are always disjoint
D
A and the complement of B are always non-disjoint
Question 161Single Answer
Temperature can be expressed as derived quantity in terms of
A
length and mass
B
mass and time
C
length, mass and time
D
None of these
Question 162Single Answer
Electron volt is a unit of
A
potential difference
B
charge
C
energy
D
capacity
Question 163Single Answer
Dimensions of impulse are
A
[MLT –1]
B
[MLT²]
C
[MT–2]
D
[ML–1T–3]
Question 164Single Answer
Potential is measured in
A
joule/coulomb
B
watt/coulomb
C
newton–second
D
None of these
Question 165Single Answer
One Nanometer is equal to
A
10–9m
B
10–6m
C
10–10m
D
10–3m
Question 166Single Answer
Maxwell is the unit of
A
magnetic susceptibility
B
intensity of Magnetisation
C
magnetic Flux
D
magnetic Permeability
Question 167Single Answer
Which of the following is derived physical quantity ?
A
Mass
B
Velocity
C
Length
D
Time
Question 168Single Answer
What are the units of magnetic permeability ?
A
Wb A–1 m–1
B
Wb–1 Am
C
Wb A m–1
D
Wb A–1 m
Question 169Single Answer
Which of the following is not a synthetic fibre:
A
Anygora
B
Rayon
C
Nylon
D
Polyster
Question 170Single Answer
Which one of the following is not contained in Portland cement ?
A
Ca3Al2O6
B
Ca3SiO5
C
Ca2SiO4
D
Ca3(PO4)2
Question 171Single Answer
What is the reson for white cement to be white ?
A
It does not contain carbon
B
It does not contain silicon
C
It does not contain iron
D
It does not contain calcium
Question 172Single Answer
Which fertilizer is assimilated directly by the plant ?
A
Super phosphate
B
Nitrolim
C
Muriate of Potash
D
Humus
Question 173Single Answer
Which of the following chemicals is used in foam fire extinguishers ?
A
Aluminium sulphate
B
Copper sulphate
C
Cobalt sulphate
D
Nickel sulphate
Question 174Single Answer
What is a mixture of potassium nitrate, powdered charcoal and sulphur called ?
A
Glass
B
Cement
C
paint
D
Gun powder
Question 175Single Answer
Which one of the following chemicals is used in beauty parlours for hair – setting ?
A
Sulphur based
B
Phosphorus based
C
Silicon based
D
Iron based
Question 176Single Answer
Which one of the following is used as a mordant in dyeing and tanning industry ?
A
Magnesium oxide
B
Magnesium carbonate
C
Magnesium chloride
D
Magnesium sulphate
Question 177Single Answer
Which of the following contain enzymes for cellular respiration ?
A
Dictyosomes
B
Endoplasmic reticulum
C
lysosomes
D
Mitochondria
Question 178Single Answer
Which one among the following nutrients is a strctural
A
Cell membrane
B
Plasma membrane
C
Cell wall
D
Nucleus
Question 179Single Answer
Which one among the following nutrients is a structural component of the cell wall of plants ?
A
Manganese
B
Potassium
C
Phosphorus
D
Calcium
Question 180Single Answer
Which of the following groups is present in animal cells ?
A
Mitochondria, Cell membrane, Cell wall, Cytoplasm
B
Chloroplasts, Cytoplasm, Vacuole, Nucleus
C
Nucleus, Cell membrane, Mitochondria, Cytoplasm
D
Vacuole, cell membrane, Nucleus, Mitochondria
Question 181Single Answer
For which among the following is not a true fruit ?
A
Apple
B
Date
C
Grape
D
Plum
Question 182Single Answer
Which one of the following is not a constituent of cell membrane ?
A
Cholesterol
B
Glycoplids
C
Proline
D
Phospholipids
Question 183Single Answer
The replication of DNA is a pre-requisite for a eukaryotic cell to undergo division. During the cell cycle, the DNA replicates in
A
S–phase
B
G1–phase
C
G2–phase
D
M-phase
Question 184Single Answer
During which stage of mitosis does cytokinesis usually occur in animals ?
A
Phophase
B
Metaphase
C
Anaphase
D
Telophase
Question 185Single Answer
Plant viruses usually contain :
A
RNA
B
DNA
C
DNA and RNA
D
DNA or RNA
Question 186Single Answer
Viruses were discovered by :
A
Stanley
B
Ivanowski
C
Twort
D
Herelle
Question 187Single Answer
Which statement best defines viruses?
A
Acellular infectious agents that replicate only inside living host cells
B
Cellular microorganisms containing only DNA
C
Free-living microorganisms capable of independent metabolism
D
Cellular microorganisms containing only RNA
Question 188Single Answer
Which infectious agents consist essentially of small, naked RNA molecules without a protein coat?
A
Virions
B
Prions
C
Viroids
D
Bacteriophages
Question 189Single Answer
Coliphage f X 174 contains :
A
double stranded RNA
B
single stranded DNA
C
double stranded DNA
D
single stranded RNA
Question 190Single Answer
Viruses differ from living organisms in that, they :
A
can grow inside a living host
B
can multiply inside a living host
C
can undergo mutation inside a living host
D
are non-cellular
Question 191Single Answer
Virus which attacks E.coli is called :
A
bacteriophage
B
coliphage
C
phytophage
D
zoophage
Question 192Single Answer
Which characteristic distinguishes viruses from cellular organisms?
A
They possess ribosomes for protein synthesis
B
They have independent energy metabolism
C
They are acellular and depend on host cells for replication
D
They reproduce by binary fission
Question 193Single Answer
What generally happens to contractile-vacuole activity when a freshwater Amoeba is transferred to a sufficiently hypertonic saline solution?
A
It increases rapidly
B
It remains unchanged
C
It decreases markedly or may cease
D
The vacuole divides repeatedly
Question 194Single Answer
What is the median adhesive pad located between the two terminal claws of a cockroach leg called?
A
Unguis
B
Arolium
C
Tibial spur
D
Cercus
Question 195Single Answer
The binomial system of Carolus Linnaeus was devoid of which of the following categories ?
A
Genus and species
B
Class and order
C
Phylum and family
D
Kingdom and class
Question 196Single Answer
The mouthparts of a cockroach are adapted primarily for which mode of feeding?
A
Biting and chewing
B
Piercing and sucking
C
Siphoning
D
Sponging
Question 197Single Answer
Which mosquito is the biological vector responsible for natural transmission of human malaria?
A
Male Culex
B
Female Culex
C
Female Aedes
D
Female Anopheles
Question 198Single Answer
Amniota group includes :
A
Aves and Reptiles
B
Pisces, Amphibia and Reptiles
C
Amphibia, Reptiles and Aves
D
Reptiles, Aves and Mammalia
Question 199Single Answer
Which combination correctly represents the principal mouthparts of a cockroach?
A
Labrum, mandibles, first maxillae, labium and hypopharynx
B
Labrum, antennae, tibia, labium and cerci
C
Mandibles, antennae, femur, maxillae and labium
D
Labrum, wings, mandibles, hypopharynx and tibia
Question 200Single Answer
In a typical winged insect, the two pairs of wings are borne on which thoracic segments?