Temperature can be expressed as derived quantity in terms of
A
length and mass
B
mass and time
C
length, mass and time
D
None of these
Question 2Single Answer
Electron volt is a unit of
A
potential difference
B
charge
C
energy
D
capacity
Question 3Single Answer
Which of the following is not a synthetic fibre:
A
Anygora
B
Rayon
C
Nylon
D
Polyster
Question 4Single Answer
Which one of the following is not contained in Portland cement ?
A
Ca3Al2O6
B
Ca3SiO5
C
Ca2SiO4
D
Ca3(PO4)2
Question 5Single Answer
Which of the following contain enzymes for cellular respiration ?
A
Dictyosomes
B
Endoplasmic reticulum
C
lysosomes
D
Mitochondria
Elementary Maths
Question 6Single Answer
The elements of the set {x : x is an integer, x2 : 4} can be represent as .....Z..... . Here, Z refers to
A
{–2, 2}
B
{–1, 0, 1}
C
{–2, –1, 0, 1, 2}
D
{0, 1, 2}
Question 7Single Answer
A
B
C
D
None of these
Question 8Single Answer
If Y = {x : x is a positive factor of the number 2p – 1(2p – 1), where 2p – 1 is a prime number}, then Y can be represent in roster form as
A
{2}
B
{1, 2}
C
{1, 2, 22, ....., 2p – 1}
D
{1, 2, 22, 23,.... 2p – 1, (2p – 1)}
Question 9Single Answer
The set {x : x is a positive integer less than 6 and 3x – 1 is an even number} in roster form is
A
{1, 2, 3, 4, 5}
B
{1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6}
C
{2, 4, 6}
D
{1, 3, 5}
Question 10Single Answer
If A B and A B, then
A
A is called a proper subset of B
B
A is called a super set of B
C
A is not a subset of B
D
B is a subset of A
Rajasthan GK & Current Affairs
Question 11Single Answer
What fraction of India's total area is covered by Rajasthan?
A
Around 5%
B
Around 15%
C
Around 10%
D
Around 20%
Question 12Single Answer
Which of the following statements is NOT TRUE?
A
Rajasthan's total geographical area is around 3.42 Lakh Sq. Km.
B
Total Populations of Rajasthan is around 10 crore.
C
Out of total population of Rajasthan, 24.9% people live in urban regions.
D
All of the above
Question 13Single Answer
Which district has highest population in Rajasthan?
A
Jaipur
B
Jaisalmer
C
Udaipur
D
Ajmer
Question 14Single Answer
What fraction of Rajasthan's total area is covered by Thar Desert?
A
Around 30%
B
Around 40%
C
Around 60%
D
Around 70%
Question 15Single Answer
The temple city of Osean in Rajasthan was established by which of the following Rajputs?
A
Gurjar Pratiharas
B
Chauhans
C
Solankis
D
Sisodias
Question 16Single Answer
The Jhamarkotra mines of Rajasthan are best known for which among the following minerals?
A
Mica
B
Zinc
C
Rock Phosphate
D
Lime Stone
Question 17Single Answer
What is the population of Scheduled Caste in Rajasthan?
A
20.3%
B
21%
C
17.8%
D
21.6%
Question 18Single Answer
According to census 2011, what is the literacy rate in Rajasthan?
A
60%
B
78%
C
66%
D
55%
Question 19Single Answer
How many people are working in Rajasthan (in percentage)?
A
56%
B
23%
C
43.6%
D
52.4%
Question 20Single Answer
The word 'Rajputana' for Rajasthan was first used by:
A
James Todd
B
George Thomas
C
Geogra Greeson
D
Kushal Labh
Question 21Single Answer
How many districts are there in Rajasthan in 2021?
A
21
B
16
C
30
D
33
Question 22Single Answer
Rajasthan shares the longest border with which state?
A
Gujarat
B
Madhya Pradesh
C
Uttar Pradesh
D
Haryana
Question 23Single Answer
Which district of the Rajasthan does not touch the international border?
A
Ganganagar
B
Bikaner
C
Barmer
D
Jodhpur
Question 24Single Answer
Which of the following districts of Rajasthan has shortest international boundary?
A
Jaisalmer
B
Bikaner
C
Barmer
D
Ganganagar
Question 25Single Answer
With how many states Rajasthan shares its border?
A
7
B
5
C
6
D
3
Question 26Single Answer
Which city in Rajasthan hosted the "Desert Festival" in 2024 ?
A
Jaipur
B
Udaipur
C
Jaisalmer
D
Bikaner
Question 27Single Answer
The "Rajasthan International Film Festival 2024" was held in which city ?
A
Ajmer
B
Kota
C
Jaipur
D
Jodhpur
Question 28Single Answer
Which initiative was launched by the Rajasthan government in 2024 to promote tourism ?
A
Rajasthan Tourism Revival Plan
B
Padharo Mhare Desh Campaign
C
Incredible Rajasthan
D
Heritage Rajasthan
Question 29Single Answer
The "Rajasthan IT Day" in 2024 focused on which area of technology ?
A
Artificial Intelligence
B
Blockchain
C
Cybersecurity
D
E-Governance
Question 30Single Answer
Which wildlife sanctuary in Rajasthan was declared a "tiger reserve" in 2024 ?
A
Ranthambore
B
Sariska
C
Mukundra Hills
D
Kailadevi
Question 31Single Answer
The Rajasthan government launched which program to promote renewable energy in 2024 ?
A
Solar Rajasthan
B
Green Rajasthan Initiative
C
Clean and Green Rajasthan
D
Ujjwal Rajasthan
Question 32Single Answer
Which historical site in Rajasthan was proposed for UNESCO World Heritage status in 2024 ?
A
Chittorgarh Fort
B
Kumbhalgarh Fort
C
Jantar Mantar
D
Amber Fort
Question 33Single Answer
In 2024, which city in Rajasthan launched a new smart city project ?
A
Jaipur
B
Udaipur
C
Jodhpur
D
Bikaner
Question 34Single Answer
Rajasthan's "Bhamashah Yojana" was primarily focused on :
A
Women's empowerment
B
Health insurance
C
Financial inclusion
D
Education
Question 35Single Answer
Which festival, celebrated with great fervor in Rajasthan, marks the onset of the monsoon season ?
A
Teej
B
Gangaur
C
Makar Sankranti
D
Holi
Question 36Single Answer
Indian Current Events In 2024, who was appointed as the Chief Justice of India ?
A
Justice N. V. Ramana
B
Justice D. Y. Chandrachud
C
Justice S. A. Bobde
D
Justice U. U. Lalit
Question 37Single Answer
Which Indian state became the first to implement a "Digital Health ID" for all citizens in 2024 ?
A
Kerala
B
Maharashtra
C
Andhra Pradesh
D
Karnataka
Question 38Single Answer
The "National Education Policy 2024" introduced which major change in the Indian education system ?
A
Compulsory vocational training
B
Three-language formula
C
5+3+3+4 education structure
D
National Testing Agency
Question 39Single Answer
Which Indian state announced the "Zero Budget Natural Farming" initiative in 2024 ?
A
Punjab
B
Gujarat
C
Himachal Pradesh
D
Tamil Nadu
Question 40Single Answer
In 2024, India launched its third lunar mission named :
A
Chandrayaan-2
B
Chandrayaan-3
C
Chandrayaan-4
D
Chandrayaan-5
Gk & Daily Current Affairs
Question 41Single Answer
Yojna a weekly journal
A
Ministry of Finance
B
Ministry of Information and Broadcastin
C
Ministry of Rural Development
D
Planning Commission
Question 42Single Answer
Kurukshetra a journal on rural development is published by
A
Ministry of Finance
B
Ministry of Information and Broadcastin
C
Ministry of Rural Development
D
Planning Commission
Question 43Single Answer
Devaluation of a currency means
A
Fixing the value of the currency in conjuction with the movement in the value of a basket of predetermined currencies
B
Reduction in the value of a currency vis-à-vis major internationally traded currencies
C
Fixing the value of currency in multilateral consultaion with the IMF the World Bank and major trading partners
D
Permitting the currency to seek its worth in the international market
Question 44Single Answer
In India rural incomes are generally lower than the urban incomes, which of the following reasons account for this
1. a large number of farmers are illiterate and know little about scientific agriculture
2. prices of primary products are lower than those of manufactured products
3. Investments in agriculture has been low when compared to investment in industry
A
1 and 3
B
2 and 3
C
1 and 2
D
1,2 and 3
Question 45Single Answer
Which of the following programmes aims at the promotion of savings among rural women
A
Rashtriya Mahila Kosh
B
Indira Mahila Yojna
C
Jawahar Rozgar Yojna
D
Mahila Samridhi Yojna
Question 46Single Answer
On what date did India celebrate the 9th anniversary of the Goods and Services Tax (GST) implementation?
A
July 1, 2026
B
June 30, 2026
C
July 2, 2026
D
June 29, 2026
Question 47Single Answer
Which global event is India participating in with Sweden as a partner?
A
Venus Orbiter Mission 'Shukrayaan'
B
Chandrayaan-4
C
Gaganyaan crewed mission
D
Mars Orbiter Mission-2
Question 48Single Answer
Who became India's 97th Chess Grandmaster in late June 2026?
A
Gukesh D
B
Praggnanandhaa R
C
Harshavardhan G.B.
D
Arjun Erigaisi
Question 49Single Answer
What major merger was approved by the boards of PFC and REC Limited on June 30, 2026?
A
Merger with SBI
B
Merger into a single power financing entity
C
Merger with NTPC
D
Merger with IREDA
Question 50Single Answer
Which initiative was launched at the Rashtriya Gramin Vikas Sammelan 2026 for rural women SHGs?
A
Lakhpati Didi App
B
Digital India Rural Scheme
C
PM Kisan Drone Yojana
D
SARAS Shakti Collection and Coffee Table Book
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Electrical Engineering
Question 51Single Answer
When a very small amount of higher conducting metal is added to a conductor, its conductivity will
A
increase
B
decrease
C
remain the same
D
increase or decrease depending on the impurity
Question 52Single Answer
An electrically balanced atom has 30 protons in its nucleus and 2 electrons in its outermost shell. The materials made of such atom is
A
a conductor
B
an insulator
C
a semiconductor
D
a superconductor
Question 53Single Answer
The temperature coefficient of resistance of a doped semiconductor is
A
always positive
B
always negative
C
zero
D
positive or negative depending upon the level of doping
Question 54Single Answer
In the slice processing of an integrated circuit
A
components are formed in the areas where silicon dioxide remains
B
components are formed in the areas where silicon dioxide has been removed
C
the diffusing elements diffuse through silicon dioxide
D
only on diffusion process is used
Question 55Single Answer
Permanent magnet loses the magnetic behaviour when heated because of
1. atomic vibration
2. dipole vibration
3. realignment of dipoles
Which of the above are correct?
A
1 and 2 only
B
1 and 3 only
C
1, 2 and 3
D
2 and 3
Question 56Single Answer
A Zener regulator has an input voltage varying between 20 V and 30 V. The desired regulated voltage is 12 V, while the load varies between 140 and 10k The maximum resistance in series with the unregulated source and Zener diode would be
A
3.3
B
6.6
C
36.6
D
93.3
Question 57Single Answer
A short in any type of circuit (series, parallel or combination) causes the total circuit
1. resistance to decrease
2. power to decreases
3. current to increase
Which of the above are correct?
A
2 and 3
B
2 and 4
C
1 and 4
D
1 and 3
Question 58Single Answer
An air-cored solenoid of 250 turns has a cross-sectional area A = 80 cm2 and length l = 100 cm. The value of its inductance is
A
0.425 mH
B
0.628 mH
C
0.751 mH
D
0.904 mH
Question 59Single Answer
The current in a coil changes uniformly from 10 A to 1 A in half a second. A voltmeter connected across the coil gives a reading of 36 V. The self-inductance of the coil is
A
0.5 H
B
1 H
C
2 H
D
4 H
Question 60Single Answer
In a mutually coupled circuit, the primary current is reduced from 4A to zero in 10 s. A voltage of 40000 V is observed across the secondary. The mutual inductance between the coils is
A
100 H
B
10 H
C
0.1 H
D
0.01 H
Question 61Single Answer
A CRO screen has 10 divisions on the horizontal scale. If a voltage signal 5 sin (314t + 45°) is examined with a line base setting of 5 ms/div, the number of signals displayed on the screen will be
A
1.25 cycles
B
2.5 cycles
C
5 cycles
D
10 cycles
Question 62Single Answer
Which one of the following conditions will be correct when three identical bulbs forming a star are connected to a three-phase balanced supply?
A
The bulb in R phase will be the brightest
B
The bulb in Y phase will be the brightest
C
The bulb in B phase will be the brightest
D
All the bulbs will be equally bright
Question 63Single Answer
Loading by the measuring instruments introduces an error in the measured parameter. Which of the following devices gives most accurate result?
A
PMMC
B
Hot-wire
C
CRO
D
Electrodynamic
Question 64Single Answer
A moving-coil galvanometer can be used as a DC ammeter by connecting
A
a high resistance in series with the meter
B
a high resistance across the meter
C
a low resistance across the meter
D
a low resistance in series with the meter
Question 65Single Answer
Consider the following types of damping:
1. Air-friction damping
2.Fluid-friction damping
3.Eddy-current damping
PMMC type instruments use which of the above?
A
1 only
B
2 only
C
3 only
D
1,2 and 3
Question 66Single Answer
In data acquisition system, analog data acquisition system is used
A
for narrow frequency width, while digital data acquisition system is used when wide frequency width is to be monitored
B
for wide frequency width, while digital data acquisition system is used when narrow frequency width is to be monitored
C
when quantity to be monitored varies slowly, while its counterpart is preferred if the quantity to be monitored varies very fast
D
when quantity to be monitored is time-variant, while digital data acquisition system is preferred when quantity is time invariant
Question 67Single Answer
During the measurement of resistance by Carey Foster bridge, no error is introduced due to
1.contact resistance
2. Connecting leads
3.thermoelectric e.m.f.
which of the above are correct?
A
1 and 2 only
B
1 and 3 only
C
2 and 3 only
D
1,2 and 3
Question 68Single Answer
Which of the following is true for the complete response of any network voltage or current variables for a step excitation to a first-order circuit?
A
It has the form at k1 e-at
B
It has the form k
C
It may have either the form (a) or the form of (a) plus (b)
D
It has the form e+at
Question 69Single Answer
A piezoelectric crystal has a coupling coefficient K of 0.32. How much electrical energy must be applied to produce output energy of 7.06 × 10–3 J?
A
25.38 mJ
B
22.19 mJ
C
4.80 mJ
D
2.26 mJ
Question 70Single Answer
A wattmeter reads 10 kW, when its current coil is connected in R phase and the potential coil is connected across R and neutral of a balanced 400 V (RYB sequence) supply. The line current is 54 A. If the potential coil reconnected across B-Y phases with the current coil in R phase, the new reading of the wattmeter will be nearly
A
10 kW
B
13 kW
C
16 kW
D
19 kW
Question 71Single Answer
For a type-I system, the intersection of the initial slope of the Bode plot with 0dB axis gives
A
steady-state error
B
error constant
C
phase margin
D
cross-over frequency
Question 72Single Answer
The desirable features of a servomotor are
A
low rotor inertia and low bearing friction
B
high rotor inertia and high bearing friction.
C
low rotor inertia and high bearing friction
D
high rotor inertia low bearing friction
Question 73Single Answer
Permeance is inversely related to
A
resistance
B
conductance
C
reluctance
D
capacitance
Question 74Single Answer
Consider the following statements regarding an ideal core material:
1. It has very high permeability.
2. It loses all its magnetism when there is no current flow.
3. It does not saturate easily.
Which of the above statements are correct?
A
1 and 2 only
B
1 and 3 only
C
2 and 3 only
D
1, 2 and 3
Question 75Single Answer
The characteristic impedance of a transmission line depends upon
A
shape of the conductor
B
surface treatment of the conductor
C
conductivity of the material
D
geometric configuration of the conductor
Question 76Single Answer
A semiconductor differs from a conductor in that it has
A
Only one path for the free electrons in the valence band
B
Only one path for holes in the conduction band
C
Two paths followed by free electrons and holes, one an ordinary path in the conduction band and the other one an extraordinary path in the valence band, respectively
D
Two paths followed by free electrons and holes, one an extraordinary path in the conduction band and the other one an ordinary path in valence band, respectively
Question 77Single Answer
Which of the following circuits is used for converting a sine wave into a square wave?
A
Monostablemultivibrator
B
Bistablemultivibrator
C
Schmitt trigger circuit
D
Darlington complementary pair
Question 78Single Answer
Which of the following elements of electrical engineering cannot be analyzed using Ohm’s law ?
A
Capacitors
B
Inductors
C
Transistors
D
Resistance
Question 79Single Answer
Consider the following statements: A power supply uses bridge rectifier with a capacitor input filter. If one of the diodes is defective, then
1. The dc load voltage will be lower than its expected value
2. Ripple frequency will be lower than its expected value
3. The surge current will increase considerably
Which of the above statements are correct?
A
1 and 2 only
B
1 and 3 only
C
2 and 3 only
D
1, 2 and 3
Question 80Single Answer
Three identical amplifiers each having a voltage gain of 50 are cascaded. The open loop voltage gain of the combined amplifier is
A
71 dB
B
82 dB
C
91 dB
D
102 dB
Question 81Single Answer
A clamper circuit
1. Adds or subtracts a dc voltage to or from a waveform
2. Does not change the shape of the waveform
Which of the above statements are correct?
A
1 only
B
2 only
C
Both 1 and 2
D
Neither 1 nor 2
Question 82Single Answer
If a carrier of 100% modulated AM is suppressed before transmission, the power saving is nearly
A
50%
B
67%
C
100%
D
125%
Question 83Single Answer
When the modulating frequency is doubled the modulation index is halved and the modulating voltage remains constant. This happens when the modulating system is
A
AM
B
PM
C
FM
D
Delta Modulation
Question 84Single Answer
The four basic elements in a PLL are loop filter, loop amplifier, VCO and
A
Up converter
B
Down converter
C
Phase detector
D
Frequency multiplier
Question 85Single Answer
In a frequency modulated (FM) system, when the audio frequency is 500 Hz and audio frequency voltage is 2.4 V, the frequency deviation is 4.8 kHz. If the audio frequency voltage is now increased to 7.2 V then what is the new value of deviation?
A
0.6 kHz
B
3.6 kHz
C
12.4 kHz
D
14.4 kHz
Question 86Single Answer
In an IGBT cell the collector and emitter are respectively
A
n and p
B
n+ and p+
C
p and n
D
p+ and n+
Question 87Single Answer
The main units in a pulse code modulator are:
1. Sampler
2. Quantiser
3. Encoder
4. Comparator
A
1 and 2 only
B
2 and 3 only
C
1, 2 and 3 only
D
2 and 4 only
Question 88Single Answer
NAND and NOR gates are called ‘Universal’ gates primarily because
A
They are available everywhere
B
They are widely used in I.C. packages
C
They can be combined to produce AND, OR and NOR gate
D
They can be manufactured easily
Question 89Single Answer
To turn-off a GTO what is required at the gate?
A
A high amplitude (but low energy) negative current
B
A low amplitude negative current
C
A high amplitude negative voltage
D
A low amplitude negative voltage
Question 90Single Answer
In a power transformer, the core loss is 50 W at 40 Hz and 100 W at 60 Hz, under the condition of same maximum flux density in both cases. The core loss at 50 Hz will be
A
64 W
B
73 W
C
82 W
D
91 W
Question 91Single Answer
Consider the following advantages of a distributed winding in a rotating machine:
1. Better utilization of core as a number of evenly placed small slots are used
2. Improved waveform as harmonic emf’s are reduced
3. Diminished armature reaction and efficient cooling
Which of the above advantages are correct?
A
1 and 2 only
B
1 and 3 only
C
2 and 3 only
D
1, 2 and 3
Question 92Single Answer
The breadth factor for 3rd harmonic emf of a 3-phase, 4-pole, synchronous machine having 36 stator slots is
A
0.47
B
0.53
C
0.67
D
0.73
Question 93Single Answer
Consider the following factors for a dc machine:
1. Interpole
2. Armature resistance
3. Reduction in field current
Which of the above factors are responsible for decrease in terminal voltage of a shunt generator?
A
1 and 2 only
B
2 and 3 only
C
1 and 3 only
D
1, 2 and 3
Question 94Single Answer
A dc motor develops an electromagnetic torque of 150 N-m in a certain operating condition. From this operating condition, a 10% reduction in field flux and 50% increase in armature current is made. What will be new value of electromagnetic torque?
A
225 N-m
B
202.5 N-m
C
22.5 N-m
D
20.25 N-m
Question 95Single Answer
If the capacitor of a capacitor-start single-phase motor fails to open when the motor picks up speed,
A
The motor will stop
B
The auxiliary winding will be damaged
C
The capacitor will be damaged
D
The winding will be damaged
Question 96Single Answer
For a 3-phase induction motor, what fraction/ multiple of supply voltage is required for a direct-on-line starting method such that starting current is limited to 5 times the full-load current and motor develops 1-5 times full-load torque at starting time?
A
1.632
B
1.226
C
0.816
D
0.456
Question 97Single Answer
What is the material of slip-rings in an induction machine?
A
Carbon
B
Nickel
C
Phosphor bronze
D
Manganese
Question 98Single Answer
The stator loss of a 3-phase induction motor is 2 kW. If the motor is running with a slip of 4% and power input of 90 kW, then what is the rotor mechanical power developed?
A
84.48 kW
B
86.35 kW
C
89.72 kW
D
90.52 kW
Question 99Single Answer
In a single-phase capacitor-start induction motor, the direction of rotation
A
can be changed by reversing the main winding terminals
B
cannot be changed
C
is dependent on the size of the capacitor
D
can be changed only in large capacity motors.
Question 100Single Answer
A transformer may have negative voltage regulation if the load power factor (p.f.) is
A
Leading for some values of p.f.
B
Unity p.f.
C
Lagging but not zero p.f.
D
Only zero p.f. lag
Question 101Single Answer
If a square matrix of order 100 has exactly 15 distinct eigenvalues, then the degree of the minimum polynomial is
A
At least 15
B
At most 15
C
Always 15
D
Exactly 100
Question 102Single Answer
For high speed reading and storing of information in a computer, the core shall be of
A
Ferrite
B
Piezoelectric
C
Pyroelectric
D
Ferromagnetic above 768°C
Question 103Single Answer
Soft magnetic materials should have
A
Large saturation magnetization and large permeability
B
Low saturation magnetization and large permeability
C
Large saturation magnetization and low permeability
D
Low saturation magnetization and low permeability
Question 104Single Answer
Orbital magnetic moment of an electron, in an atom, is of the order of
A
0.1 Bohr magneton
B
1.0 Bohr magneton
C
10 Bohr magneton
D
100 Bohr magneton
Question 105Single Answer
When the temperature of a ferromagnetic material exceeds the Curie temperature, it behaves similar to a
A
Diamagnetic material
B
Ferrimagnetic material
C
Paramagnetic material
D
Antiferromagnetic material
Question 106Single Answer
What is the correct sequence of the following materials in ascending order of their resistivity ?
1. Iron
2. Silver
3. Constantan
4. Mica
5. Aluminium
Select the correct answer using the codes given below :
A
2, 5, 1, 3 and 4
B
4, 5, 3, 1 and 2
C
2, 3, 1, 5 and 4
D
4, 5, 1, 3 and 2
Question 107Single Answer
In the first Cauer network, with a pole at infinity, the first element must be
A
Series capacitor
B
Series inductor
C
Shunt capacitor
D
Shunt inductor
Question 108Single Answer
The total magnetic moment
1. is called saturation magnetization.
2. depends on the number of magnetic dipoles per unit volume, the instant electric current and the area of the current loop.
Which of the above statements is/are correct ?
A
1 only
B
2 only
C
Both 1 and 2
D
Neither 1 nor 2
Question 109Single Answer
Susceptibility of a diamagnetic material is 1. Negative
2. Positive
3. Dependent on the temperature
4. Independent of the temperature
A
1 and 2 only
B
1 and 3 only
C
2 and 3 only
D
1, 2 and 3
Question 110Single Answer
Superconductivity is a material property associated with
A
Changing shape by stretching
B
Stretching without breaking
C
A loss of thermal resistance
D
A loss of electrical resistance
Question 111Single Answer
An atom in a crystal vibrates at a frequency, determined by
1. Crystal heat current
2. Crystal temperature
3. The stiffness of the bonds with neighbour atoms
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
A
1 only
B
2 only
C
3 only
D
1, 2 and 3
Question 112Single Answer
Consider the following statements:
1. Nano means 10–9 so that nano materials have an order of dimension higher than the size of atom and come in the form of rods, tubes, spheres or even thin sheets/films
2. Nano materials have enhanced of changed structural property
3. Nano elements lend themselves to mechanical processing like rolling, twisting, positioning
4. Nano elements show important electrical, magnetic and optical characteristics that are useful in electrical industry
Which of the above statements are correct?
A
1, 2 and 3 only
B
1, 2, 3 and 4
C
3 and 4 only
D
1, 2 and 4 only
Question 113Single Answer
For a two-part reciprocal network, the three transmission parameters are A = 4, B = 7 and C = 5. What is the value of D?
A
9.5
B
9.0
C
8.5
D
8.0
Question 114Single Answer
Consider the following as representations of reciprocity in terms of z-parameters:
1. z11 = z12 2. z12 = z22
3. z12 = z21
Which of the above representations is/are correct?
A
1 only
B
2 only
C
3 only
D
1, 2 and 3
Question 115Single Answer
Kirchhoff’s current law is applicable to
1. Closed loops in a circuit
2. Junction in a circuit
3. Magnetic circuits
Which of the above is/are correct?
A
1 only
B
2 only
C
3 only
D
1, 2 and 3
Question 116Single Answer
Which of the following are satisfied in a non-linear network?
1. Associative 2. Superposition
3. Homogeneity 4. Bilaterality
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
A
1 and 3 only
B
1 and 4 only
C
2 and 3 only
D
2 and 4 only
Question 117Single Answer
Consider the following statements:
1. Network theorems are not derivable from Kirchhoff’s law
2. To get the Norton current, one has to short the current source
3. Thevenin’s theorem is suitable for a circuit involving voltage sources and series connections
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
A
1, 2 and 3
B
1 only
C
2 only
D
3 only
Question 118Single Answer
What is the octal equivalent of (5621.125)10?
A
11774.010
B
12765.100
C
16572.100
D
17652.010
Question 119Single Answer
What is the hexadecimal representation of (657)8?
A
1 AF
B
D 78
C
D 71
D
32 F
Question 120Single Answer
In potential transformers, the secondary turns are increased slightly and the primary and secondary windings are wound as closely as possible to compensate for
A
Phase angle and ratio error, respectively
B
Ratio and phase angle error, respectively
C
Any eddy current loss and hysteresis loss, respectively
D
The hysteresis loss and eddy current loss, respectively
Question 121Single Answer
Which one of the following methods is used for the measurement of high resistances?
A
Carey-Foster bridge method
B
Substitution method
C
Loss of charge method
D
Potentiometer method
Question 122Single Answer
Consider the following statements with regard to induction type wattmeter:
1. Can be used on both ac and dc systems.
2. Power consumption is relatively low.
3. It is accurate only at stated frequency and temperature.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
A
1 only
B
2 only
C
3 only
D
1,2 and 3
Question 123Single Answer
A computer system has a cache with a cache access time TC = 10 ns, a hit ratio of 80% and an average memory access time TM = 20 ns. What is the access time for physical memory TP?
A
90 ns
B
80 ns
C
60 ns
D
20 ns
Question 124Single Answer
The minimum number of arithmetic operations required to evaluate the polynomial P(X) = X5+ 8X3+ X for a given value of X using only one temporary variable is
A
8
B
7
C
6
D
5
Question 125Single Answer
A freewheeling diode in phase-controlled rectifiers
A
enables inverter operation
B
is responsible for additional reactive power
C
improves the line power factor
D
is responsible for additional harmonics
Question 126Single Answer
Assuming both the voltage sources are in phase, the value of R for which maximum power is transferred from circuit A to circuit B is
A
0.8 Ω
B
1.4 Ω
C
2 Ω
D
2.8 Ω
Question 127Single Answer
For the intrinsic gallium-arsenide, the conductivity at room temperature 25°C is 10-6 (ohm-m)-1, the electron and hole nobilities are 0.85 m2/V-s and 0.04 m2/V-s respectively. What is the intrinsic carrier concentration at the room temperature?
A
7.0 × 1012 m-3
B
7.0 × 10-12 m-3
C
7.0 × 10-12 m3
D
7.0 × 1012 m3
Question 128Single Answer
The resistivity of intrinsic germanium at 30°C is 0.46 –m. What is the intrinsic carrier density at 30°C if the electron mobility is 0.38 m2/V-s and the hole mobility is 0.18 m2/V-s?
A
9.2 × 105/m3
B
2.77 × 103/m3
C
2.43 × 1019/m3
D
8.9 × 1012/m3
Question 129Single Answer
Heat conduction in a semiconductor takes place
A
By the mobility of the carriers
B
Due to energy gap between conduction band and valency band
C
By the holes and thermal vibrations of atoms
D
By the electrons and thermal vibrations of atoms
Question 130Single Answer
Brewster angle is the angle when a wave is incident on the surface of a perfect dielectric at which there is no reflected wave and the incident wave is
A
Parallel polarized
B
Perpendicularly polarized
C
Normally polarized
D
None of the above
Question 131Single Answer
An electrical breakdown of a p-n junction occurs if
A
Forward voltage increases up to the rating
B
Reverse voltage increases beyond the rating
C
Forward voltage decreases below the rating
D
Reverse voltage decreases below the rating
Question 132Single Answer
The chief deterrent to the widespread application of superconducting materials is
A
Very difficult to form, machine or case
B
The difficult in attaining and maintaining extremely low temperature
C
The poor strength-to-weight ratio
D
The lower oxidation rate at elevated temperatures
Question 133Single Answer
Which one of the following properties is not observed in the carbon nanotubes ?
A
High stiffness and strengths
B
Low densities
C
Unusual electrical property
D
Non-ductile
Question 134Single Answer
The evidence for the importance of electron-phonon interaction in super-conductors comes from
A
Meissner effect
B
Josephson effect
C
Isotope effect
D
x quantization experiments
Question 135Single Answer
Which one of the following materials is used for cable insulation ?
A
Phenol formaldehyde
B
Polytetrafluoroethylene
C
Polyvinyl chloride
D
Acrylonitrile butadiene styrene
Question 136Single Answer
For high speed reading and storing of information in a computer, the material used is
A
Ferrite
B
Piezoelectric
C
Pyroelectric
D
Ferromagnetic above 768°C
Question 137Single Answer
The temperature above which an anti-ferromagnetic material becomes paramagnetic is called
A
Peak temperature
B
Neel temperatur
C
Critical temperature
D
Weiss temperature
Question 138Single Answer
Which effect is the converse of Peltier effect ?
A
Seeback effect
B
Thomson effect
C
Hall effect
D
Joule effect
Question 139Single Answer
Magnetic materials which may be readily magnetized in either direction are
A
Soft magnetic materials
B
Hard magnetic materials
C
High eddy current loss materials
D
High hysteresis loss materials
Question 140Single Answer
Consider the following statements regarding a ferromagnetic material:
1.Below the ferromagnetic Curie temperature, the ferromagnetic materials exhibit hysteresis effect.
2.The coercive force is the filed required to reduce the flux density to zero.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
A
Both 1 and 2
B
Neither 1 nor 2
C
1 only
D
2 only
Question 141Single Answer
The impact ionization phenomenon in semiconductor may be viewed as the reverse process of
A
Radiative recombination
B
Auger recombination
C
Surface recombination
D
Shockley-Read-Hall recombination
Question 142Single Answer
Refractive index of a slice glass can be reduced by doping it with tiny amount of
A
GeO2
B
B2O3
C
P2O5x
D
Al2O3
Question 143Single Answer
If a diameter of a copper wire is increased by two times keeping its terminal voltage same, then the drift velocity will
A
Become twice
B
Become half
C
ecome four times
D
Remain unchanged
Question 144Single Answer
In an induction type energy meter, the steady speed attained by the rotating disc is
1.Proportional to the deflecting torque.
2.Proportional to the resistance of the path of eddy currents.
3.Inversely proportional to the effective readings of disc from its axis.
4.Inversely proportional to the square of brake magnetic flux.
Which of the above are correct?
A
1, 2 and 3 only
B
1, 2 and 4 only
C
2, 3 and 4 only
D
1, 2, 3 and 4
Question 145Single Answer
If ‘KCLFTSB’ stands for ‘best of luck’ and ‘SHSWDG’ stands for ‘good wishes’, which of the following indicates ‘ace the exam’?
A
MCHTX
B
MXHTC
C
XMHCT
D
XMHTC
Question 146Single Answer
Consider the following statements associated with the basic electrostatic properties of ideal conductors:
1.The resultant field inside is zero.
2.The net charge density in the interior is zero.
3.Any net charges reside on the surface.
4.The surface is always equipotential.
5.The field just outside is zero.
Which of the above statements are correct?
A
1, 2, 3 and 4
B
3, 4 and 5 only
C
1, 2 and 3 only
D
2 and 3 only
Question 147Single Answer
A semiconductor device made out of a material having very high temperature coefficient of resistance is
A
Transistor
B
Varistor
C
Thyristor
D
Thermistor
Question 148Single Answer
The electrical conductivity of a semiconductor increases with increase in temperature because
A
The carrier concentration increases
B
The mobility of carrier increases
C
Both carrier concentration and mobility increases
D
The band gap decreases
Question 149Single Answer
Which of the following are associated with soft superconductors?
1.Silsbee’s rule
2.Meissner effect
3.Faraday rotation
4.Curie-Weiss law
A
2, 3 and 4
B
1 and 3 only
C
1 and 2 only
D
2 and 3 only
Question 150Single Answer
In a two-channel oscilloscope operating in x-y mode, two in-phase 50 Hz sinusoidal waveforms of equal amplitude are fed to the two channels. What will be the resultant pattern on the screen?
A
An ellipse
B
A parabola
C
Straight line inclined at 45 with respect to x-axis