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Question Bank

Question for Karnataka HC Civil Judge - Quiz / Questions / MCQ in English

Last Update on : October 10, 2026

Duration: 90 · Questions: 100 · Max Marks: 100

View Karnataka High Court Civil Judge 2026 Exam Page

To boost your performance in Karnataka HC Civil Judge exam, practice each question regularly and with focus. Every question tests your subject understanding, so solve them one at a time. Taking a quiz improves your speed and accuracy. Practicing topic-wise MCQs. Students benefit greatly from reviewing questions with answer keys, which help clarify concepts and strengthen Questions knowledge for success in Karnataka HC Civil Judge exams.

Latest Karnataka HC Civil Judge Exam Question (Objective Questions), MCQ in English

Subjects : Civil Law, Criminal Law, General Knowledge & Reasoning

Question Bank Karnataka HC Civil Judge (Prelims) Exam - English

Civil Law

Q 1 :
What is the primary purpose of the Law of Evidence in civil cases?
  1. A.To regulate court procedures
  2. B.To determine guilt or innocence
  3. C.To ensure fair and just proceedings
  4. D.To define civil offenses
Q 2 :
Hearsay evidence is generally:
  1. A.Admissible
  2. B.Inadmissible
  3. C.Conditional
  4. D.Irrelevant
Q 3 :
What does the term "burden of proof" refer to in civil cases?
  1. A.Defendant's responsibility to prove innocence
  2. B.Plaintiff's responsibility to prove the case
  3. C.Both parties' equal responsibility
  4. D.Judge's responsibility to gather evidence
Q 4 :
Which of the following is NOT a type of evidence in civil cases?
  1. A.Testimonial evidence
  2. B.Documentary evidence
  3. C.Expert evidence
  4. D.Criminal evidence
Q 5 :
What is the best definition of circumstantial evidence?
  1. A.Direct evidence that proves a fact
  2. B.Evidence based on personal knowledge
  3. C.Indirect evidence that implies a fact
  4. D.Hearsay evidence
Q 6 :
What is the "best evidence rule"?
  1. A.The most convincing evidence should be presented
  2. B.Only original documents are admissible
  3. C.Hearsay evidence is always admissible
  4. D.Expert opinions are preferred over eyewitness accounts
Q 7 :
In civil cases, what is the purpose of the discovery process?
  1. A.To surprise the opposing party
  2. B.To gather evidence before trial
  3. C.To keep evidence confidential
  4. D.To speed up the trial process
Q 8 :
What is the role of a character witness in civil cases?
  1. A.To provide expert opinions
  2. B.To testify about the defendant's reputation
  3. C.To present scientific evidence
  4. D.To establish motive
Q 9 :
What is the difference between direct and cross-examination?
  1. A.Direct examination is conducted by the defense, while cross-examination is by the prosecution
  2. B.Direct examination is the initial questioning, while cross-examination follows
  3. C.Direct examination is for expert witnesses, while cross-examination is for lay witnesses
  4. D.Direct examination is only for the plaintiff, while cross-examination is for the defendant
Q 10 :
What does the parol evidence rule address in civil cases?
  1. A.The admissibility of oral statements
  2. B.The use of expert witnesses
  3. C.The credibility of witnesses
  4. D.The exclusion of written contracts
Q 11 :
What is the significance of the "fruit of the poisonous tree" doctrine in evidence law?
  1. A.Admissible evidence obtained unlawfully is excluded
  2. B.Circumstantial evidence is deemed inadmissible
  3. C.Hearsay evidence is considered unreliable
  4. D.Expert testimony is given more weight
Q 12 :
In civil cases, what is the purpose of a motion in limine?
  1. A.To dismiss the case
  2. B.To exclude certain evidence before trial
  3. C.To request a summary judgment
  4. D.To impeach a witness
Q 13 :
What is the role of a court-appointed expert witness?
  1. A.To advocate for one party
  2. B.To assist the court by providing expertise
  3. C.To testify as a character witness
  4. D.To present hearsay evidence
Q 14 :
Which of the following is an example of real evidence in a civil case?
  1. A.Witness testimony
  2. B.Documented records
  3. C.Physical objects
  4. D.Expert opinions
Q 15 :
According to the Indian Partnership Act, what is the term for the act of a partner binding the firm to a contract?
  1. A.Implied authority
  2. B.Actual authority
  3. C.Ostensible authority
  4. D.Imputed authority
Q 16 :
What is the best description of the "best interests of the child" standard?
  1. A.A standard of proof
  2. B.A rule of evidence
  3. C.A legal presumption
  4. D.A guiding principle in child custody cases
Q 17 :
What is the term for the dissolution of a partnership due to the death of a partner?
  1. A.Dissolution by mutual consent
  2. B.Dissolution by agreement
  3. C.Dissolution by operation of law
  4. D.Dissolution by court order
Q 18 :
What is the "Dead Man's Statute" designed to address?
  1. A.Hearsay evidence
  2. B.Admissibility of expert testimony
  3. C.Competency of witnesses
  4. D.Testimony about transactions with deceased individuals
Q 19 :
According to the Indian Partnership Act, what is the liability of a partner for the wrongful act or omission of another partner?
  1. A.Joint liability
  2. B.Several liability
  3. C.Joint and several liability
  4. D.Limited liability
Q 20 :
What does the "chain of custody" refer to in evidence law?
  1. A.The order of presenting witnesses
  2. B.The chronological sequence of events
  3. C.The proper handling and documentation of physical evidence
  4. D.The authentication of electronic records
Q 21 :
In a partnership, what is the term for the partner who is actively involved in the day-to-day management of the business?
  1. A.Active Partner
  2. B. Working Partner
  3. C.Managing Partner
  4. D.Operational Partner
Q 22 :
Which type of evidence is generally considered the most reliable in civil cases?
  1. A.Hearsay evidence
  2. B.Expert testimony
  3. C.Documentary evidence
  4. D.Circumstantial evidence
Q 23 :
According to the Indian Partnership Act, how is the share of a deceased partner in the partnership determined?
  1. A.By the court's decision
  2. B.According to the partnership deed
  3. C.Equally among all partners
  4. D.By the surviving partners
Q 24 :
What is the role of a fact-finder in a civil trial?
  1. A.To present evidence
  2. B.To interpret the law
  3. C.To determine the facts of the case
  4. D.To make legal arguments
Q 25 :
What is the term for a partner who lends money to the firm but does not participate in its management?
  1. A.Nominal Partner
  2. B.Silent Partner
  3. C.Secret Partner
  4. D.Dormant Partner
Q 26 :
In civil cases, what is the purpose of the "res gestae" exception?
  1. A.To admit evidence of prior bad acts
  2. B.To allow admission of spontaneous statements
  3. C.To exclude irrelevant evidence
  4. D.To limit the use of expert witnesses
Q 27 :
Under the Indian Partnership Act, how can a partnership be dissolved by the court?
  1. A.Insanity of a partner
  2. B.Misappropriation of funds
  3. C.Persistent misconduct
  4. D.All of the above
Q 28 :
What is the significance of the "collateral source rule" in civil cases?
  1. A.It limits the use of character evidence
  2. B.It allows a plaintiff to recover damages from sources other than the defendant
  3. C.It governs the admissibility of expert testimony
  4. D.It establishes the burden of proof for the plaintiff
Q 29 :
According to the Indian Partnership Act, what is the term for a partner who holds out to the public that someone is their partner, even if it's not true?
  1. A.Ostensible Partner
  2. B.Implied Partner
  3. C.De facto Partner
  4. D.Quasi Partner
Q 30 :
Which of the following is an example of demonstrative evidence?
  1. A.Eyewitness testimony
  2. B.Medical records
  3. C.Maps, charts, or diagrams
  4. D.Expert opinions

General Knowledge & Reasoning

Q 31 :
How many such pairs of letters are there in the word ‘CLEANLINESS’ each of the which has as many letters between them in the word as they have in the English alphabet, in the same sequence?
  1. A.Two
  2. B.Three
  3. C.Five
  4. D.Four
  5. E.None of these
Q 32 :
Team A has scored more goals than Team B
Team C has scored fewer goals than Team B
Team A has scored fewer goals than Team C .
If the first two statements are true, the third statement is
  1. A.True
  2. B.False
  3. C.Uncertain
  4. D.None
Q 33 :
If it is possible to make only one meaningful word with the second, the third, the sixth and the eight letters of the word FRAGMENT using each only once, which of the following will be the third letter of that word ? If no such word can be formed, give ‘X’ as the answer and if more than one such word can be formed, give ‘Y’ as the answer.
  1. A.A
  2. B.E
  3. C.T
  4. D.X
  5. E.Y
Q 34 :
How many such letters are there in the word ORIENTAL each of which is as far away from the beginning of the word as when they are arranged alphabetically?
  1. A.None            
  2. B.One         
  3. C.Two       
  4. D.Three        
  5. E.More than three
Q 35 :
How many such pairs of letters in the word CREDIT each of which has as many letters between them in the word as in the English alphabet?
  1. A.None
  2. B.One
  3. C.Two
  4. D.Three
  5. E.More than three
Q 36 :
How many meaningful words can be made from the letters ‘LMEA’ using each letter only once in each word?
  1. A.None
  2. B.One
  3. C.Two
  4. D.Three
  5. E.More than three
Q 37 :
If it is possible to make only one meaningful word with the first, the second, the seventh and the eighth letters of the word TEMPORAL, which of the following will be the first letter of that word? If more than one such word can be made, give ‘Y’ as the answer and if no such word can be made, give ‘X’ as the answer.
  1. A.T
  2. B.L
  3. C.E
  4. D.Y
  5. E.X
Q 38 :
If the letters of the word HANDOVER are arranged alphabetically from left to right how many letters will remain at the same position?
  1. A.None
  2. B.One
  3. C.Two
  4. D.Three
  5. E.More than three
Q 39 :
How many such pairs of letters are there in the word EXCURSION, each of which has as many letters between them in the word as they have in the English alphabet?
  1. A.None
  2. B.One
  3. C.Two
  4. D.Three
  5. E.More than three
Q 40 :
If it is possible to make only one meaningful word with the first, the second, the third, the sixth and the eighth letters of the word DEVIATION first letter of that word is your answer? If more than one such word can be made formed your answer is ‘A’  and if no such word can be formed your answer is ‘B’.
  1. A.V
  2. B.T
  3. C.E
  4. D.A
  5. E.B
Q 41 :
Yojna a weekly journal
  1. A.Ministry of Finance        
  2. B.Ministry of Information and Broadcastin
  3. C.Ministry of Rural Development
  4. D.Planning Commission
Q 42 :
Kurukshetra a journal on rural development is published by
  1. A.Ministry of Finance 
  2. B.Ministry of Information and Broadcastin
  3. C.Ministry of Rural Development
  4. D.Planning Commission
Q 43 :
Devaluation of a currency means
  1. A.Fixing the value of the currency in conjuction with the movement in the value of a basket of predetermined currencies
  2. B.Reduction in the value of a currency vis-à-vis major internationally traded currencies
  3. C.Fixing the value of currency in multilateral consultaion with the IMF the World Bank and major trading partners
  4. D.Permitting the currency to seek its worth in the international market
Q 44 :
In India rural incomes are generally lower than the urban incomes, which of the following reasons account for this
            1. a large number of farmers are illiterate and know little about scientific agriculture
            2. prices of primary products are lower than those of manufactured products
            3. Investments in agriculture has been low when compared to investment in industry
  1. A.1 and 3
  2. B.2 and 3
  3. C.1 and 2
  4. D.1,2 and 3
Q 45 :
Which of the following programmes aims at the promotion of savings among rural women
  1. A.Rashtriya Mahila Kosh
  2. B.Indira Mahila Yojna
  3. C.Jawahar Rozgar Yojna
  4. D.Mahila Samridhi Yojna
Q 46 :
In ruby laser, the stimulated emission is due to transition from
  1. A.metastable state to any lower state
  2. B.any higher state of lower state
  3. C.metastable state to ground state
  4. D.any higher state to ground state
Q 47 :
10-6 M NaOH is diluted 100 times. The pH of the diluted base is
  1. A.between 7 and 8
  2. B.between 5 and 6
  3. C.between 6 and 7
  4. D.between 10 and 11
Q 48 :
In the electrolysis of acidulated water, it is desired to obtain 1.12 cc of hydrogen per second under STP condition. The current to be passed is
  1. A.1.93 A         
  2. B.9.65 A
  3. C.19.3 A        
  4. D.0.965 A
Q 49 :
The respiratory quotient during cellular respiration would depend on
  1. A.the nature of enzymes involved
  2. B.the nature of the substrate
  3. C.the amount of carbon dioxide released
  4. D.the amount of oxygen utilised
Q 50 :
Which of the following is not a green - house gas ?
  1. A.Water vapour
  2. B.Carbon monoxide
  3. C.Methane
  4. D.Oxygen

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