Question for KDMC Junior Engineer 2026 - Quiz / Questions / MCQ

Objective Questions

Latest KDMC JE Exam Question (Objective Questions), MCQ in English

Subjects : General Knowledge, Maharashtra Municipal Corporations Act, Concerned Subject (Civil)

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General Knowledge

Question 1Single Answer

Yojna a weekly journal

A
Ministry of Finance
B
Ministry of Information and Broadcastin
C
Ministry of Rural Development
D
Planning Commission

Question 2Single Answer

Kurukshetra a journal on rural development is published by

A
Ministry of Finance
B
Ministry of Information and Broadcastin
C
Ministry of Rural Development
D
Planning Commission

Question 3Single Answer

Devaluation of a currency means

A
Fixing the value of the currency in conjuction with the movement in the value of a basket of predetermined currencies
B
Reduction in the value of a currency vis-à-vis major internationally traded currencies
C
Fixing the value of currency in multilateral consultaion with the IMF the World Bank and major trading partners
D
Permitting the currency to seek its worth in the international market

Question 4Single Answer

On which date is Maharashtra Day celebrated ?

A
May 1
B
May 2
C
May 3
D
May 4

Question 5Single Answer

On which date is Shivaji Maharaj's birth anniversary celebrated ?

A
February 19
B
February 20
C
February 2
D
February 22

Question 6Single Answer

On which date is Chhatrapati Shivaji Maharaj Jayanti celebrated ?

A
February 19
B
February 20
C
February 21
D
February 22

Question 7Single Answer

On which date is Dr. Babasaheb Ambedkar Jayanti celebrated ?

A
April 14
B
April 15
C
April 16
D
April 17

Question 8Single Answer

Sattriya dance form is famous in which of these states ?

A
Assam
B
Himachal Pradesh
C
Punjab
D
Tamil Nadu

Question 9Single Answer

"Who said, 'India was a parrot unto itself'?

A
Malik Muhammad Joyce
B
Raskhan
C
Rich Khusrow
D
Rich Hasan

Question 10Single Answer

Which is the national game of Bhutan ?

A
badminton
B
basketball
C
football
D
archery

Question 11Single Answer

When was the Constituent Assembly of India formed?

A
1946
B
1947
C
1948
D
1950

Question 12Single Answer

Who was the Chairman of the Drafting Committee of the Indian Constitution?

A
Dr. Rajendra Prasad
B
Dr. B.R. Ambedkar
C
Jawaharlal Nehru
D
Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel

Question 13Single Answer

Who is known as the "Father of the Indian Renaissance" ?

A
Raja Ram Mohan Roy
B
Swami Vivekananda
C
Rabindranath Tagore
D
Mahatma Gandhi

Question 14Single Answer

Which classical dance form is associated with Tamil Nadu ?

A
Kathak
B
Kuchipudi
C
Bharatanatyam
D
Odissi

Question 15Single Answer

What is the study of ethics primarily concerned with ?

A
Economic behavior
B
Human values and moral principles
C
Physical health
D
Political systems

Question 16Single Answer

Which of the following is a branch of ethics that deals with the philosophical study of morality ?

A
Metaphysics
B
Aesthetics
C
Normative ethics
D
Epistemology

Question 17Single Answer

Which is the longest river in India?

A
Yamuna
B
Ganges
C
Brahmaputra
D
Godavari

Question 18Single Answer

The Western Ghats are also known as:

A
Sahyadris
B
Vindhyas
C
Satpuras
D
Aravallis

Question 19Single Answer

Which ministry launched the Green Hydrogen Certification Scheme of India (GHCI)?

A
Ministry of Power
B
Ministry of Petroleum and Natural Gas
C
Ministry of New and Renewable Energy
D
Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change

Question 20Single Answer

Who publishes the Special 301 Report?

A
World Trade Organization (WTO)
B
World Intellectual Property Organization (WIPO)
C
United States Trade Representative (USTR)
D
International Trade Commission (ITC)

Maharashtra Municipal Corporations Act

Question 21Single Answer

What is the short title of the Act?

A
Maharashtra Municipal Corporations Act, 1949
B
Maharashtra Municipal Act, 1949
C
Bombay Municipal Corporations Act, 1949
D
Mumbai Municipal Act, 1949

Question 22Single Answer

Which areas does the Act extend to?

A
Only Mumbai
B
All larger urban areas except Brihan Mumbai
C
Rural areas of Maharashtra
D
Entire India

Question 23Single Answer

When did the Act commence?

A
January 26, 1950
B
December 29, 1949
C
May 1, 1960
D
As notified in the Official Gazette

Question 24Single Answer

What does "Corporation" mean under the Act?

A
A private company
B
Municipal Corporation for a larger urban area
C
State government body
D
Central government agency

Question 25Single Answer

Who is a "Councillor" under the Act?

A
Appointed municipal officer
B
Elected or nominated member of the Corporation
C
State government official
D
Mayor of the city

Question 26Single Answer

What is a "public street" as defined in the Act?

A
Private property
B
Government office road
C
Street with public access for 20 years
D
Toll road

Question 27Single Answer

What does "land" include under the Act?

A
Only agricultural land
B
Benefits arising from land and things attached to earth
C
Only residential plots
D
Water bodies only

Question 28Single Answer

What is "rateable value" in the Act?

A
Market value of property
B
Annual rental value for taxation
C
Construction cost of building
D
Land purchase price

Question 29Single Answer

Who is the "Commissioner" under the Act?

A
Elected Mayor
B
State Election Commissioner
C
Appointed Municipal Commissioner
D
Councillor

Question 30Single Answer

What is a "municipal area" as per the Act?

A
Rural village
B
Larger urban area specified as a City
C
State capital only
D
Industrial zone

Question 31Single Answer

How is a Municipal Corporation established under the Act?

A
By central government order
B
By State Government notification
C
By public referendum
D
By municipal election

Question 32Single Answer

What is the minimum population for a larger urban area under the Act?

A
1 lakh
B
10 lakhs
C
3 lakhs
D
50 lakhs

Question 33Single Answer

How many Councillors can a Corporation have?

A
Fixed at 100
B
As specified by the State Election Commissioner
C
Only nominated members
D
Unlimited

Question 34Single Answer

Who nominates Councillors with special knowledge?

A
State Government
B
Corporation
C
Mayor
D
Commissioner

Question 35Single Answer

What is the maximum number of nominated Councillors?

A
2
B
5
C
10
D
15

Question 36Single Answer

Which article governs seat reservations under the Act?

A
Article 243T
B
Article 356
C
Article 370
D
Article 19

Question 37Single Answer

What percentage of seats are reserved for women?

A
One-third
B
One-half
C
One-fourth
D
Two-thirds

Question 38Single Answer

Who specifies ward boundaries for elections?

A
Municipal Commissioner
B
State Election Commissioner
C
Mayor
D
District Collector

Question 39Single Answer

What is the duration of a Corporation?

A
3 years
B
7 years
C
5 years
D
10 years

Question 40Single Answer

When must elections be held after Corporation dissolution?

A
Within 3 months
B
Within 6 months
C
Within 1 year
D
No fixed timeline

Concerned Subject (Civil)

Question 41Single Answer

A water supply distribution system for an averagely-populated township is to be designed for

A
Maximum daily demand
B
Maximum hourly demand and fire demand
C
Average demand
D
Maximum daily demand and fire demand or maximum hourly demand, whichever is higher

Question 42Single Answer

A combined sewerage system is more appropriate for developed areas where

A
Rainfall occurs for a very few days in a year
B
Rainfall occurs almost uniformly throughout the year
C
Air temperatures are nearly uniform throughout the year
D
Air temperatures through the year include extremes during certain runs of days

Question 43Single Answer

100 m³ of sludge holds a moisture content of 95%. If its moisture content chagnes to 90%, the volume of this sludge will then be

A
40.5m³
B
50m³
C
75m³
D
94.7m³

Question 44Single Answer

The design overflow rate of a sedimentation tank is chosen considering

A
Flow rate through the tank
B
Diameter of the particle intended to be removed
C
Volume of the sedimentation tank
D
Detention time in the tank

Question 45Single Answer

Consider the following statements in respect of flow equalization in a waste water treatment plant :
1. Biological treatment is enhanced because shock loadings are eliminated or minimized
2. Flow equalizations is an attractive option for upgrading the performance of overloaded treatment plants.
3. Inhibiting substances can be diluted and pH can be stabilized
4. Thickening performance of primary sedimentation tanks following grit removal is improved.
Which of the above statements are correct?

A
1, 2, 3 and 4
B
1, 2 and 3 only
C
1, 2 and 4 only
D
3 and 4 only

Question 46Single Answer

A drain carrying 5m³/s of wastewater with its BOD of 100mg/l joins a stream carrying 50 m³/ s flow with its BOD of 5mg/l. What will be the value of the BOD of the combined flow after complete mixing?

A
3.6 mg/l
B
13.6 mg/l
C
33.6 mg/l
D
53.6 mg/l

Question 47Single Answer

Consider the following statements in respect of aerated grit chamber:
1. The grit accumulates at the bottom in advancing spiral-flow aeration tanks, location ally preceded by grit chambers, led to the eventual development of aerated grit chambers.
2. The excessive wear on grit handling equipment is a major factor for the popularity of aerated grit chambers.
3. Aerated grit chambers are designed to provide detention period of 1 minute at maximum rate of flow.
4. Diffusers are located at 0.45 m to 0.6 m above the bottom of teh chamber.
Which of the above statements are correct?

A
1, 2 and 3 only
B
3 and 4 only
C
1, 2 and 4 only
D
1, 2, 3 and 4

Question 48Single Answer

Quick sand condition occurs when

A
the void ratio of the soil becomes 1.0
B
the upward seepage pressure in soil becomes zero
C
the upward seepage pressure in soil becones equal to the saturated unit weight of he soil
D
the upward seepage pressure in soil becomes equal to he submerged unit weight of the soil

Question 49Single Answer

The side of a square land was measured as 150 m and is in error by 0.05 m. What is the corresponding error in the computed area of the land.

A
5 m²
B
25 m²
C
10 m²
D
20 m²

Question 50Single Answer

Consider the following statements in respect of anaerobic sludge digester:
1. It is less expensive compared to several other methods available.
2. Processing of separable solids impacts the environment to a minimum
3. Quantity of separated solids requiring disposal is minimal
4. Digested sludge is very readily dewaterable.
Which of the above statements are correct?

A
1, 2, 3 and 4
B
1, 2 and 3 only
C
3 and 4 only
D
1, 2 and 4 only

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Concerned Subject (Civil)

Question 51Single Answer

Consider the following statements :
1. There will be no defects in select grade timbers.
2. The codal values for strength of grade-II timer without defects may be reduced by 37.5%.
3. For timber used as columns, the permissible stress in ungraded timbers is adopted with a multiplying factor of 0.50.
4. In case of wind force and earthquakes, a modification factor of 1.33 is adopted. Which of the above statements are correct ?

A
1 and 3 only
B
1 and 4 only
C
2 and 4 only
D
2 and 3 only

Question 52Single Answer

Consider the following statements regarding timber :
1. The strength of timber increases by Kiln seasoning.
2. Cutting of wood is to be done prior to treatment.
3. Water seasoning is good for prevention of warping.
4. ASCU treatment enhances the strength of wood. Which of the above statements are correct ?

A
1, 2 and 3 only
B
2, 3 and 4 only
C
1, 3 and 4 only
D
1, 2, 3 and 4

Question 53Single Answer

Gase(s) emitted during rotting or decomposition of timber is /are mainly

A
Methane and Hydrogen
B
Hydrogen Sulphide
C
Carbonic acid and Hydrogen
D
Ammonia

Question 54Single Answer

Efflorescence of bricks is due to

A
Excessive burning of bricks
B
High silt content in brick clay
C
High porosity of bricks
D
Soluble salts present in parent clay

Question 55Single Answer

Disintegration of bricks masonry walls is primarily due to
1. Efflorescence
2. Magnesium sulphate in brick
3. Calcined clay admixtures
4. Kankar nodules
Which of the a above statements are correct ?

A
1, 2 and 3 only
B
1, 2 and 4 only
C
3 and 4 only
D
1, 2, 3 and 4

Question 56Single Answer

Consider the following test :
1. Transverse strength test
2. Water absorption test
3. Impact test
4. Breaking strength test
Which of the above are relevant to testing of tiles ?

A
1, 2 and 3 only
B
1, 2 and 4 only
C
3 and 4 only
D
1, 2, 3 and 4

Question 57Single Answer

Which of the following statements is/are correct regarding the strength of cement ?
1. Particle sizes less than 3 m increases the viscous nature of the cement.
2. Finer particles in cement can be replaced by fly-ash to improve the strength.

A
1 only
B
2 only
C
Both 1 and 2
D
Neither 1 nor 2

Question 58Single Answer

The constituent compound in Portland cement which reacts immediately with water, and also sets earliest, is

A
Tricalcium silicate
B
Dicalcium silicate
C
Tricalcium aluminate
D
Tetracalcium aluminoferrite

Question 59Single Answer

Which of the following statements are correct with regard to cement mortar ?
1. Workability of cement mortar can be improved by addition of lime.
2. Fly-ash cement is economical in plastering jobs.
3. Addition of saw dust improves workability.
4. Sand in mortar can be replaced by finely crushed fire bricks.

A
1, 2, 3 and 4
B
1, 2 and 3 only
C
3 and 4 only
D
1, 2 and 4 only

Question 60Single Answer

In a concrete mix of proportion 1 : 3 : 6, the actual quantity of sand, which is judged to have undergone 15% bulking, per unit volume of cement, will be

A
3.00
B
3.45
C
4.50
D
6.00

Question 61Single Answer

Consider the following statements:
1. IS 3583 refers to Burnt Clay Paving Bricks.
2. IS 5779 refers to Burnt Clay Soling Bricks.
3. IS 3952 refers to Burnt Clay Hollow Bricks.
4. IS 2222 refers to Burnt Clay Lay Bricks.
Which of the above statements are correct?

A
1, 2 and 3 only
B
1, 2 and 4 only
C
3 and 4 only
D
1, 2, 3 and 4

Question 62Single Answer

Consider the following statements:
1. A high aggregate impact value indicates strong aggregates.
2. A low aggregate crushing value indicates high crushing strength of aggregates.
3. Aggregates having elongation index values greater than 15% are generally considered suitable for pavement construction.
4. Flakiness index of aggregates should not be less than 25% for use in road construction.
Which of the above statements are correct?

A
2 and 3 only
B
2 and 4 only
C
1 and 3 only
D
1 and 4 only

Question 63Single Answer

Consider the following statements regarding refractory bricks in furnaces:
1. The furnace is fired at temperatures more than 1700°C.
2. Silica content in the soil should be less than 40%.
3. Water absorption of bricks should not exceed 10%
4. Chrome bricks are known as basic bricks. Which of the above statements are correct?

A
1 and 2 only
B
2 and 4 only
C
1 and 3 only
D
3 and 4 only

Question 64Single Answer

Consider the following statements about lime:
1. Calcination of limestone results in quick lime.
2. Lime produced from pure variety of chalk is hydraulic lime.
3. Hydrated lime is obtained by treating quick lime with water.
Which of the above statements are correct?

A
1, 2 and 3
B
1 and 2 only
C
2 and 3 only
D
1 and 3 only

Question 65Single Answer

Consider the following statements:
1. If more water is added to concrete for increasing its workability, it results into concrete of low strength.
2. No slump is an indication of a good workable concrete.
3. Higher the slump of concrete, lower will be its workability.
4. Workability of concrete is affected by water content as well as water-cement ratio.
Which of the above statements are correct?

A
1 and 3 only
B
2 and 3 only
C
1 and 4 only
D
2 and 4 only

Question 66Single Answer

Pozzolana used as an admixture in concrete has the following advantages:
1. It improves workability with lesser amount of water.
2. It increases the heat of hydration and so lets the concrete set quickly.
3. It increases the resistance of concrete to attack by salts and sulphates.
4. It leaches out calcium hydroxide.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

A
1, 2 and 3 only
B
1, 2 and 4 only
C
1, 3 and 4 only
D
2, 3 and 4 only

Question 67Single Answer

Consider the following statements regarding Cyclopean Concrete:
1. Size of aggregate is more than 150 mm.
2. Size of aggregate is less than 150 mm.
3. High slump.
4. High temperature rise due to heat of hydration.
Which of the above statements are correct?

A
1 and 3 only
B
1 and 4 only
C
2 and 3 only
D
2 and 4 only

Question 68Single Answer

A chain, working a crane, has sectional area of 625 mm² and transmits a load of 10 kN. When the load is being lowered at a uniform rate of 40 m/min, the chain gets jammed suddenly at which time the length of the chain unwound is 10m. Assuming E = 200 GPa, the stress induced in the chain due to this sudden jamming is

A
100.6 N/mm²
B
120.4 N/mm²
C
140.2 N/mm²
D
160.0 N/mm²

Question 69Single Answer

In mild steel specimens subjected to tensile test cycle, the elastic limit in tension is raised and the elastic limit in compression is lowered, This is called

A
Annealing effect
B
Bauschinger effect
C
Strain rate effect
D
Fatigue effect

Question 70Single Answer

Consider the following statements :
1. The shear stress distribution across the section of a circular shaft subjected to twisting varies parabolically.
2. The shear stress at the centre of a circular shaft under twisting moment is zero
3. The shear stress at the extreme fibres of a circular shaft under twisting moment is maximum.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?

A
1, 2 and 3
B
1 only
C
2 only
D
3 only

Question 71Single Answer

One bag of Portland cement, 50 kg in weight, would normally have a bulk volume of

A
30 l
B
35 l
C
40 l
D
45 l

Question 72Single Answer

AsCu, a preservative for wood, developed by the Forest Research Institute, Dehradun, comprises of chemicals:

A
1 : 1 : 1
B
1 : 2 : 3
C
1 : 2 : 4
D
1 : 3 : 4

Question 73Single Answer

Consider the following statements related to autoclave bricks:
1.Less water absorption compared to other bricks.
2.Noise reduction
3.It is cheap compared to other types of bricks.
4.Requirement of bulk volume of mortar in joints being relatively less compared to other types of brick masonry.
5.Not recommended for outer walls.
Which of the above statements are relevant to the use of ‘autoclave’ bricks?

A
1, 2 and 4
B
1, 3 and 5
C
2, 3 and 4
D
2, 4 and 5

Question 74Single Answer

The minimum number of annular rings to be seen in every 2.54 cm in the radial direction from the core for timber to be classified as ‘Dense’ is

A
10
B
20
C
25
D
30

Question 75Single Answer

If the actual thickness of a brick masonry wall is 19 cm, its effective length is 2.70 m, its effective height is 2.82 m and its code specified stiffening coefficient is 1.2 then, for design considerations, the slenderness ratio of the wall will be taken as

A
11.8
B
12.4
C
14.2
D
14.8

Question 76Single Answer

Consider the following forms of water in a hydrated cement paste:
1.Capillary water
2.Chemically combined water
3.Interlayer water
4.Adsorbed water
Which of the above forms of water will, on its/their removal, cause shrinkage of the paste?

A
1, 2 and 3
B
1, 2 and 4
C
2, 3 and 4
D
1, 3 and 4

Question 77Single Answer

Consider the following statements:High early strength of cement is obtained as a result of
1.Fine grinding.
2.Decreasing the lime content
3.Burning at higher temperature
4.Increasing the quality of gypsum.
Which of the above statements are correct?

A
1 and 2
B
1 and 3
C
2 and 3
D
3 and 4

Question 78Single Answer

Consider the following statements related to ‘composite mortar’:
1.Addition of lime to cement mortar improves its workability
2.Composite mortar is obtained by adding 10% by weight of cement and mixing with water.
3.Composite mortar is not preferred in tall buildings.
4.Mechanical grinding is essential for developing composite mortar.Which of the above statements are true in this case?

A
1, 2 and 3 only
B
1, 3 and 4 only
C
2, 3 and 4 only
D
1, 2, 3 and 4

Question 79Single Answer

Consider the following statements related to ‘non-destructive testing’ of concrete:
1.Indentation test is used to assess the quality of concrete.
2.Resonant Frequency Method is based on a laboratory test.
3.Compressive strength of concrete is estimated through Pulse Velocity Measurement.
4.Dynamic modulus of Elasticity is determined by a Sonometer Test.
5.Thickness of concrete can be estimated by in-situ Rebound Hammer Test.
Which of the above statements are correct?

A
1, 2 and 3 only
B
1, 2 and 5 only
C
1, 2, 3 and 4 only
D
1, 2, 3, 4 and 5

Question 80Single Answer

What is the amount of water required for a workable RC of mix 1 : 2: 4 by weight., when W/C is 0-60 and unit weight of concrete is 2400 kg/m³?

A
165 l
B
205 l
C
245 l
D
285 l

Question 81Single Answer

What will be the depth of penetration of the plunger in Vicat Apparatus (IS : 5513 - 1976) from the bottom of the Vicat Mould, when the cement paste is tested for standard consistency, according to IS 4031 – 1988 ?

A
11 to 15 mm
B
8 to 10 mm
C
15 to 17 mm
D
5 to 7 mm

Question 82Single Answer

Two sewer pipelines A and B (having the same diameter and made of the same material) are laid at a bed slope of 1 in 225 and 1 in 625, respectively. Determine the ratio of their carrying capacities (Q_A to Q_B) .

Question 83Single Answer

Select the correct statement with respect to an over - reinforced cement concrete section under the working stress method .

A
The compressive stress in steel reaches the allowable limit before the maximum tensile stress in concrete reaches the allowable limit
B
Tensile steel stress and maximum compressive stress in concrete simultaneously reach their allowable limits
C
The allowable limiting stress is reached in concrete before the steel stress reaches the limiting value
D
The tensile stress in steel reaches the allowable limit before the maximum compressive stress in concrete reaches the allowable limit

Question 84Single Answer

A cantilever beam of span L is built - in at the support. It is restrained against lateral deflection and torsion at the free end. The effective length of compression flange for the beam as per IS 800 : 2007 is

A
0.5 L
B
0.85 L
C
2 L
D
0.75 L

Question 85Single Answer

What is the principle of plane surveying ?

A
Working from part to whole
B
Working from point to area
C
Working from angle to volume
D
Working from whole to part

Question 86Single Answer

According is IS 5968 : 1987, the minimum radius of radius of curve to be provided in the alignment of unlined canals carrying a discharge of less than 30 cumecs up to 15 cumecs is :

A
100 m
B
1000 m
C
600 m
D
150 m

Question 87Single Answer

A Pelton wheel is to be designed for a pitch diameter of 1 m and jet diameter of 0.1 m. The number of buckets on the runner computed by Taygun’s formula is :

A
20
B
25
C
15
D
10

Question 88Single Answer

What is the effect of fly ash in concrete ?

A
Reduces the secondary hydration process
B
Increases the heat of hydration
C
Increases the amount of air entrainment
D
Reduces the heat of hydration

Question 89Single Answer

As per IS 456 : 2000, the minimum grade of concrete to be used for plain concrete and reinforced concrete, respectively, in concrete works exposed directly along the sea coast are :

A
M 20 and M 30
B
M 20 and M 25
C
M 22 and M 40
D
M 15 and M 25

Question 90Single Answer

Identify the property that changes as a function of the geometrical dimensions of a section in structural materials :

A
Mass density
B
Moment of inertia
C
Poission’s ratio
D
Modulus of elasticity

Question 91Single Answer

As per IRC (Indian Roads Congress) recommendation, what will be the designed stopping sight distance (in metres) at the vehicle speed of 80 km/h on a rural highway ?

A
120
B
140
C
70
D
60

Question 92Single Answer

No deduction is made in the quantity estimation for plastering work in cement mortar for openings having size up to :

A
0.5 m²
B
1.0 m²
C
3 m²
D
0.75 m²

Question 93Single Answer

What is the height of slump cone mould used for testing the workability of the concrete ?

A
20 cm
B
10 cm
C
30 cm
D
25 cm

Question 94Single Answer

Select the correct option with regard in the following statements (S1, S2) pertaining to pavements .
S1 : Present serviceability index is used for the functional evaluation of pavement surface condition
S2 : Rigid pavements are less affected by temperature variations than flexible pavements

A
Statements S1 is true and Statement S2 is false
B
Both statements S1 and S2 are false
C
Statements S1 is false and Statement S2 is true
D
Both statements S1 and S2 are true

Question 95Single Answer

If the quadrantal bearing of a line AB is S 31'35' E, then its whole circle bearing is equal in :

A
121^o25'
B
148^o25'
C
58^o25'
D
211^o25'

Question 96Single Answer

The overflowing sheet of water on a weir is called :

A
creek
B
crest
C
limp
D
nappe

Question 97Single Answer

According to IS 456 - 2000, what is the slump of a medium degree of workability of concrete if planed in heavily reinforced sections like slabs, beams, walls, columns ?

A
10 - 25 mm
B
25 - 50 mm
C
0 - 10 mm
D
50 - 100 mm

Question 98Single Answer

Which of the following is Kharif season in India ?

A
March / April to June / July
B
December / January to April / May
C
May / June to October / November
D
October / November to April / May

Question 99Single Answer

The estimated value of a built - up property at the end of its useful life without dismantled is called :

A
market value
B
book value
C
scrap value
D
salvage value

Question 100Single Answer

The amount of cement required for 100 m²area, of damp proof course with 2.5 cm thinkness, in with proportion of 1: 2 : 4 (cement : sand : aggregate) will be :

A
2.5 m²
B
0.55 m²
C
1.10 m²
D
0.25 m²

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