Question for KEA Assistant Professor (Physics) 2026 - Quiz / Questions / MCQ

Objective Questions

Latest KEA Assistant Professor Physics Exam Question (Objective Questions), MCQ in English

Subjects : Physics

Question Bank KEA Assistant Professor (Physics) Exam Paper 4 - English

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Physics

Question 1Single Answer

Which of the following is a scalar quantity?

A
Momentum
B
Work
C
Displacement
D
Acceleration

Question 2Single Answer

The scalar product of two mutually perpendicular vectors is:

A
Zero
B
Unity
C
Maximum
D
Negative

Question 3Single Answer

The vector product of two parallel vectors is:

A
Zero
B
Unity
C
Maximum
D
Infinite

Question 4Single Answer

The direction of the cross product of two vectors is determined by:

A
Fleming’s left-hand rule
B
Right-hand rule
C
Lenz’s law
D
Ampere’s rule

Question 5Single Answer

Which vector operation produces a scalar quantity?

A
Cross product
B
Vector addition
C
Vector subtraction
D
Dot product

Question 6Single Answer

A unit vector is characterized by:

A
Zero magnitude
B
Unit magnitude
C
Infinite magnitude
D
Variable magnitude

Question 7Single Answer

The resultant of two equal and opposite vectors is:

A
A null vector
B
A unit vector
C
A perpendicular vector
D
A parallel vector

Question 8Single Answer

The magnitude of the resultant of two vectors is greatest when the angle between them is:

A
90°
B
45°
C
0°
D
180°

Question 9Single Answer

Newton’s first law of motion is also known as the law of:

A
Inertia
B
Gravitation
C
Momentum
D
Acceleration

Question 10Single Answer

Newton’s second law fundamentally relates force to the rate of change of:

A
Energy
B
Density
C
Position
D
Momentum

Question 11Single Answer

Newton’s third law states that action and reaction forces:

A
Act on different bodies
B
Are unequal
C
Act on the same body
D
Always cancel each other

Question 12Single Answer

The inertia of a body depends primarily on its:

A
Mass
B
Acceleration
C
Velocity
D
Shape

Question 13Single Answer

In the absence of an external force, the total linear momentum of an isolated system:

A
Continuously increases
B
Remains conserved
C
Continuously decreases
D
Becomes zero

Question 14Single Answer

An inertial frame of reference is one in which:

A
Only gravitational laws are valid
B
Newton’s laws are valid
C
Every object remains at rest
D
Coriolis force must be included

Question 15Single Answer

A frame accelerating relative to an inertial frame is generally called a:

A
Non-inertial frame
B
Stationary frame
C
Galilean frame
D
Absolute frame

Question 16Single Answer

To apply Newton’s laws directly in a non-inertial frame, one introduces:

A
Conservative forces
B
Contact forces
C
Fictitious forces
D
Molecular forces

Question 17Single Answer

The centrifugal force is observed in:

A
An inertial frame only
B
A rotating frame
C
A freely falling inertial frame
D
A stationary laboratory only

Question 18Single Answer

Coriolis force arises because of:

A
Translational acceleration alone
B
Elastic deformation
C
Gravitational attraction alone
D
Rotation of the reference frame

Question 19Single Answer

Coriolis force acts on an object when it:

A
Is at rest relative to the rotating frame
B
Has zero mass
C
Moves relative to the rotating frame
D
Moves only radially in an inertial frame

Question 20Single Answer

Coriolis force does no work because it is:

A
Parallel to velocity
B
Perpendicular to relative velocity
C
Independent of velocity
D
Always conservative

Question 21Single Answer

Coriolis effects on Earth are important in explaining the motion of:

A
Sound inside solids only
B
Atomic nuclei
C
Electrons in atoms
D
Weather systems

Question 22Single Answer

In the Northern Hemisphere, the Coriolis effect tends to deflect moving objects toward the:

A
Right
B
Left
C
Equator only
D
Vertical direction

Question 23Single Answer

The Coriolis effect is zero at Earth’s:

A
Equator
B
Poles
C
Tropics only
D
Mid-latitudes only

Question 24Single Answer

The moment of inertia of a rigid body is the rotational analogue of:

A
Force
B
Energy
C
Momentum
D
Mass

Question 25Single Answer

The moment of inertia of a body depends on:

A
Angular velocity only
B
Mass distribution about the axis
C
Angular acceleration only
D
Applied torque only

Question 26Single Answer

The SI unit of moment of inertia is:

A
kg m
B
N m²
C
kg m²
D
kg/m²

Question 27Single Answer

The parallel-axis theorem is used to determine moment of inertia about an axis:

A
Perpendicular to a known axis
B
Tangential to any circular path
C
Passing only through the origin
D
Parallel to an axis through the center of mass

Question 28Single Answer

The perpendicular-axis theorem is applicable to:

A
Fluids only
B
All three-dimensional bodies without restriction
C
Plane laminae
D
Elastic strings only

Question 29Single Answer

The radius of gyration represents the distance from the axis at which the entire mass may be assumed concentrated to give the same:

A
Torque
B
Angular velocity
C
Moment of inertia
D
Linear momentum

Question 30Single Answer

Torque is the rotational analogue of:

A
Mass
B
Force
C
Linear velocity
D
Density

Question 31Single Answer

Angular momentum remains conserved when the net external:

A
Force is constant
B
Energy is zero
C
Torque is zero
D
Acceleration is constant

Question 32Single Answer

A skater spinning with arms extended rotates faster after pulling the arms inward because of conservation of:

A
Angular momentum
B
Linear momentum
C
Potential energy only
D
Mass

Question 33Single Answer

The center of mass of a uniform symmetric body lies at its:

A
Surface
B
Lowest point
C
Highest point
D
Geometric center

Question 34Single Answer

A rigid body is an idealized body in which the distance between any two constituent particles:

A
Continuously increases
B
Continuously decreases
C
Remains constant
D
Becomes zero during rotation

Question 35Single Answer

For pure rolling without slipping, the point of contact with a stationary surface has instantaneous velocity:

A
Maximum
B
Zero
C
Equal to twice the center-of-mass velocity
D
Infinite

Question 36Single Answer

The rotational kinetic energy of a rigid body depends on its moment of inertia and:

A
Linear displacement
B
Angular velocity
C
Density only
D
Pressure

Question 37Single Answer

A body is in rotational equilibrium when the net:

A
Torque is zero
B
Momentum is maximum
C
Velocity is zero
D
Mass is zero

Question 38Single Answer

Elasticity is the property of a material by which it:

A
Permanently deforms under every force
B
Becomes fluid under stress
C
Regains its original configuration after removal of deforming force
D
Increases its mass after deformation

Question 39Single Answer

Stress is defined as:

A
Deformation per unit length
B
Energy per unit volume only
C
Restoring force per unit area
D
Change in volume per unit pressure

Question 40Single Answer

Strain is a:

A
Vector with dimensions of force
B
Dimensionless quantity
C
Quantity with dimensions of pressure
D
Quantity measured in newtons

Question 41Single Answer

Young’s modulus relates longitudinal stress to:

A
Volume strain
B
Shear strain
C
Longitudinal strain
D
Angular momentum

Question 42Single Answer

Bulk modulus measures resistance to change in:

A
Volume
B
Shape only
C
Temperature
D
Mass

Question 43Single Answer

Shear modulus is associated primarily with change in:

A
Mass
B
Shape
C
Temperature
D
Chemical composition

Question 44Single Answer

Hooke’s law is valid within the:

A
Elastic limit
B
Plastic region only
C
Fracture region only
D
Entire range of deformation

Question 45Single Answer

Poisson’s ratio involves the ratio of:

A
Force to displacement
B
Stress to pressure
C
Volume to mass
D
Lateral strain to longitudinal strain

Question 46Single Answer

The area under a stress-strain curve up to the elastic limit represents elastic energy stored per unit:

A
Mass
B
Length
C
Volume
D
Time

Question 47Single Answer

A material that undergoes substantial permanent deformation before fracture is described as:

A
Brittle
B
Incompressible
C
Perfectly rigid
D
Ductile

Question 48Single Answer

Conservation of mechanical energy applies directly when only:

A
Non-conservative forces act
B
Frictional forces dominate
C
Conservative forces perform work
D
Viscous forces dominate

Question 49Single Answer

Which is a conservative force?

A
Kinetic friction
B
Viscous drag
C
Air resistance
D
Gravitational force

Question 50Single Answer

Work done by a conservative force around a closed path is:

A
Positive
B
Negative
C
Infinite
D
Zero

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Physics

Question 51Single Answer

Linear momentum conservation follows fundamentally from spatial:

A
Compressibility
B
Isotropy of time
C
Periodicity
D
Homogeneity

Question 52Single Answer

Conservation of angular momentum is associated with rotational:

A
Friction
B
Dissipation
C
Symmetry
D
Instability

Question 53Single Answer

Conservation of energy is associated with the homogeneity of:

A
Space
B
Mass
C
Time
D
Charge

Question 54Single Answer

In an elastic collision, which quantities are conserved?

A
Both momentum and kinetic energy
B
Kinetic energy only
C
Momentum only
D
Neither momentum nor kinetic energy

Question 55Single Answer

In a perfectly inelastic collision, the colliding bodies:

A
Rebound with unchanged speeds
B
Conserve kinetic energy completely
C
Stick together after collision
D
Have zero total momentum before collision

Question 56Single Answer

The coefficient of restitution for a perfectly elastic collision is:

A
Zero
B
Greater than two
C
One-half
D
One

Question 57Single Answer

The work-energy theorem relates net work to the change in:

A
Momentum
B
Potential energy only
C
Kinetic energy
D
Angular displacement

Question 58Single Answer

Gravitational force between two point masses is:

A
Repulsive
B
Attractive
C
Sometimes attractive and sometimes repulsive
D
Independent of their masses

Question 59Single Answer

Newton’s law of gravitation obeys an:

A
Linear distance dependence
B
Inverse-cube dependence
C
Exponential dependence
D
Inverse-square dependence

Question 60Single Answer

The gravitational field inside a uniform spherical shell is:

A
Constant and nonzero
B
Radially outward
C
Infinite
D
Zero

Question 61Single Answer

The gravitational potential inside a uniform spherical shell is:

A
Zero everywhere necessarily
B
Infinite
C
Constant
D
Proportional to distance from the center

Question 62Single Answer

Escape velocity from a planet is independent of the:

A
Planet’s mass
B
Planet’s radius
C
Mass of the escaping body
D
Gravitational constant

Question 63Single Answer

The value of gravitational acceleration at the center of Earth is approximately:

A
Zero
B
Maximum
C
Equal to its surface value
D
Infinite

Question 64Single Answer

As altitude above Earth’s surface increases significantly, gravitational acceleration:

A
Decreases
B
Increases
C
Remains exactly constant
D
Becomes independent of Earth

Question 65Single Answer

Kepler’s first law states that planets move around the Sun in:

A
Circular paths with Earth at the center
B
Straight lines
C
Parabolic paths only
D
Elliptical orbits with the Sun at one focus

Question 66Single Answer

Kepler’s second law is fundamentally related to conservation of:

A
Angular momentum
B
Linear momentum
C
Electric charge
D
Rest mass

Question 67Single Answer

According to Kepler’s second law, the radius vector joining a planet and the Sun sweeps out:

A
Equal areas in equal times
B
Equal distances in equal times
C
Equal angles in unequal times
D
Unequal areas in equal times

Question 68Single Answer

A planet moves fastest in its orbit when it is:

A
Nearest the Sun
B
Farthest from the Sun
C
At the minor axis only
D
Moving perpendicular to its orbit

Question 69Single Answer

The point in a planetary orbit nearest to the Sun is called:

A
Aphelion
B
Apogee
C
Perigee
D
Perihelion

Question 70Single Answer

The point in Earth satellite orbit nearest Earth is called:

A
Perihelion
B
Perigee
C
Aphelion
D
Zenith

Question 71Single Answer

An artificial satellite remains in orbit because gravity provides the required:

A
Centripetal force
B
Tangential force
C
Buoyant force
D
Viscous force

Question 72Single Answer

Astronauts in an orbiting spacecraft experience apparent weightlessness because they are:

A
Outside Earth’s gravitational field
B
Beyond the atmosphere only
C
Completely stationary
D
In continuous free fall

Question 73Single Answer

A geostationary satellite appears stationary relative to an observer on:

A
The Moon
B
The Sun
C
Mars
D
Earth

Question 74Single Answer

A geostationary satellite must orbit approximately in the plane of Earth’s:

A
Polar axis
B
Ecliptic at any inclination
C
Equator
D
Magnetic axis

Question 75Single Answer

A geostationary satellite revolves around Earth in the:

A
Opposite direction to Earth’s rotation
B
Same direction as Earth’s rotation
C
North-south direction
D
Random direction

Question 76Single Answer

Polar satellites are particularly useful for:

A
Continuous communication over one equatorial location only
B
Producing artificial gravity
C
Earth observation and remote sensing
D
Changing Earth’s rotation

Question 77Single Answer

Surface tension arises mainly because molecules at a liquid surface experience:

A
Net inward cohesive attraction
B
Balanced cohesive forces in all directions
C
No intermolecular forces
D
Only gravitational forces

Question 78Single Answer

The SI unit of surface tension is:

A
J/m³
B
N/m²
C
N/m
D
kg/m³

Question 79Single Answer

Surface tension tends to make a free liquid surface attain:

A
Minimum area
B
Maximum area
C
Infinite area
D
Zero density

Question 80Single Answer

Small liquid drops tend to become spherical primarily because of:

A
Viscosity
B
Buoyancy
C
Osmosis
D
Surface tension

Question 81Single Answer

The rise of a liquid in a narrow capillary tube is mainly associated with:

A
Viscous heating
B
Nuclear force
C
Magnetic induction
D
Surface tension

Question 82Single Answer

Water rises in a clean glass capillary because the adhesive force between water and glass is:

A
Weaker than water’s cohesive force
B
Stronger than water’s cohesive force
C
Zero
D
Purely gravitational

Question 83Single Answer

Mercury is depressed in a clean glass capillary because:

A
It completely wets glass
B
Its surface tension is zero
C
Cohesive forces in mercury dominate over adhesion to glass
D
Its density is zero

Question 84Single Answer

Detergents facilitate cleaning mainly by:

A
Increasing water’s surface tension
B
Increasing water’s density greatly
C
Reducing water’s surface tension
D
Preventing wetting

Question 85Single Answer

Surface tension of most liquids generally:

A
Decreases with temperature
B
Increases with temperature
C
Is independent of temperature
D
Becomes infinite at the boiling point

Question 86Single Answer

Viscosity represents a fluid’s resistance to:

A
Osmosis
B
Gravitation
C
Flow
D
Surface formation

Question 87Single Answer

The SI unit of dynamic viscosity is:

A
Pa s
B
N/m
C
J s
D
kg/m²

Question 88Single Answer

The viscosity of ordinary liquids generally does what when temperature increases?

A
Increases
B
Decreases
C
Remains exactly constant
D
Becomes infinite

Question 89Single Answer

The viscosity of gases generally does what when temperature increases?

A
Decreases
B
Remains exactly constant
C
Becomes zero
D
Increases

Question 90Single Answer

Streamline flow is also known as:

A
Turbulent flow
B
Random flow
C
Rotational explosion
D
Laminar flow

Question 91Single Answer

Reynolds number is used primarily to predict the:

A
Osmotic pressure
B
Nature of fluid flow
C
Surface energy of a solid
D
Gravitational potential

Question 92Single Answer

Reynolds number is:

A
Measured in pascals
B
Dimensionless
C
Measured in newtons
D
Measured in joules

Question 93Single Answer

Turbulent flow is characterized by:

A
Smooth parallel layers only
B
Zero fluid velocity everywhere
C
Irregular velocity fluctuations and eddies
D
Absence of energy dissipation

Question 94Single Answer

According to the continuity principle for steady incompressible flow, fluid speed increases when the cross-sectional area:

A
Increases
B
Becomes infinite
C
Remains irrelevant
D
Decreases

Question 95Single Answer

Bernoulli’s principle expresses conservation of:

A
Mass density alone
B
Electric charge
C
Angular momentum only
D
Mechanical energy along a streamline

Question 96Single Answer

According to Bernoulli’s principle, in horizontal streamline flow, a region of higher fluid speed generally has:

A
Higher static pressure
B
Lower static pressure
C
Infinite pressure
D
Unchanged pressure under all circumstances

Question 97Single Answer

The Venturi meter is commonly used to measure:

A
Osmotic pressure
B
Surface tension only
C
Fluid flow rate
D
Elastic modulus

Question 98Single Answer

Stokes’ law describes the viscous drag on a:

A
Rigid disc rotating in vacuum
B
Planet moving around the Sun
C
Small sphere moving slowly through a viscous fluid
D
Satellite in orbit

Question 99Single Answer

Terminal velocity is reached when the net force on a falling body in a fluid becomes:

A
Maximum
B
Infinite
C
Equal to its weight only
D
Zero

Question 100Single Answer

Poiseuille flow refers to the laminar flow of a viscous fluid through a:

A
Rotating solid sphere
B
Vacuum chamber
C
Narrow cylindrical tube
D
Porous membrane only

Question 101Single Answer

The buoyant force on a submerged body is described by:

A
Archimedes’ principle
B
Hooke’s law
C
Kepler’s law
D
Snell’s law

Question 102Single Answer

According to Archimedes’ principle, buoyant force equals the weight of the:

A
Entire container
B
Displaced fluid
C
Body in vacuum
D
Fluid above the surface only

Question 103Single Answer

Osmosis is the spontaneous movement of solvent through a semipermeable membrane from:

A
Higher solute concentration to lower solute concentration
B
Solid phase to gas phase
C
Higher pressure to vacuum only
D
Lower solute concentration to higher solute concentration

Question 104Single Answer

A semipermeable membrane ideally permits passage of:

A
Neither solvent nor solute
B
Solute particles only
C
Solvent molecules selectively
D
All particles equally

Question 105Single Answer

Osmotic pressure is the minimum external pressure required to:

A
Prevent osmosis
B
Increase evaporation
C
Increase surface tension
D
Produce turbulence

Question 106Single Answer

Reverse osmosis occurs when pressure greater than the osmotic pressure is applied to the:

A
Pure solvent side
B
Membrane edge only
C
Concentrated solution side
D
Gas phase

Question 107Single Answer

Reverse osmosis is widely used for:

A
Measuring moment of inertia
B
Water purification and desalination
C
Producing artificial satellites
D
Determining gravitational acceleration

Question 108Single Answer

A solution having the same osmotic pressure as another solution is called:

A
Hypertonic
B
Isotonic
C
Hypotonic
D
Supersaturated

Question 109Single Answer

A solution with higher effective osmotic concentration than a reference solution is called:

A
Hypotonic
B
Hypertonic
C
Isotonic
D
Ideal vacuum

Question 110Single Answer

A biological cell placed in a strongly hypotonic solution tends to:

A
Gain water
B
Lose water
C
Remain unaffected under all conditions
D
Lose all solutes without water movement

Question 111Single Answer

A biological cell placed in a hypertonic solution generally:

A
Loses water by osmosis
B
Gains water by osmosis
C
Experiences no solvent movement
D
Becomes gravitationally weightless

Question 112Single Answer

Dialysis and osmosis differ mainly because dialysis involves separation based on:

A
Selective diffusion of solutes through a membrane
B
Planetary motion
C
Surface tension alone
D
Rigid-body rotation

Question 113Single Answer

Which phenomenon is important in the uptake of water by plant roots?

A
Rotational inertia
B
Coriolis force
C
Osmosis
D
Centrifugal force

Question 114Single Answer

The conservation of mass in fluid dynamics is represented by the:

A
Torque equation
B
Kepler equation
C
Hooke relation
D
Continuity equation

Question 115Single Answer

Pascal’s principle states that pressure applied to a confined fluid is transmitted:

A
Undiminished throughout the fluid
B
Only downward
C
Only toward the free surface
D
Only in the direction of gravity

Question 116Single Answer

A hydraulic lift operates primarily on:

A
Kepler’s second law
B
Pascal’s principle
C
Coriolis effect
D
Conservation of angular momentum

Question 117Single Answer

Boyle’s law for a fixed mass of ideal gas is valid when which quantity remains constant?

A
Pressure
B
Density
C
Volume
D
Temperature

Question 118Single Answer

According to Charles’s law, the volume of a fixed mass of gas at constant pressure is directly proportional to its:

A
Density
B
Absolute temperature
C
Molecular mass
D
Compressibility

Question 119Single Answer

Avogadro’s law states that equal volumes of gases at the same temperature and pressure contain equal numbers of:

A
Atoms only
B
Molecules
C
Neutrons
D
Ions only

Question 120Single Answer

For an ideal gas, intermolecular forces are assumed to be:

A
Negligible
B
Strongly repulsive
C
Strongly attractive
D
Infinite

Question 121Single Answer

The internal energy of an ideal gas depends only on its:

A
Pressure
B
Temperature
C
Volume
D
Density

Question 122Single Answer

Real gases approach ideal-gas behavior most closely at:

A
High pressure and low temperature
B
High pressure and high density
C
Low pressure and high temperature
D
Low temperature and high density

Question 123Single Answer

The van der Waals equation modifies the ideal-gas equation by accounting for:

A
Nuclear forces
B
Ionization only
C
Molecular size and intermolecular attraction
D
Gravitational interaction only

Question 124Single Answer

In the van der Waals equation, the parameter (b) is associated with:

A
Attractive force
B
Effective molecular size
C
Heat capacity
D
Entropy

Question 125Single Answer

The critical temperature of a gas is the temperature above which the gas:

A
Becomes an ideal solid
B
Has zero pressure
C
Cannot be liquefied by pressure alone
D
Has zero entropy

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Latest KEA Assistant Professor Physics Exam Question (Objective Questions), MCQ in English

Physics

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