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Latest KGMU Technician Radiotherapy Exam Question (Objective Questions), MCQ in English
Subjects : Radiotherapy, Mathematical Aptitude, English, General Knowledge, Reasoning
Question Bank KGMU Technician Radiotherapy Exam - English
Radiotherapy
Q 1 :
What is the typical energy range for orthovoltage X-rays?
A.10-50 kVp
B.50-150 kVp
C.200-500 kVp
D.1-2 MV
Q 2 :
What is the primary application of orthovoltage therapy?
A.Treating deep-seated tumors
B.Treating superficial lesions like skin cancers
C.Whole-body irradiation
D.Cranial stereotactic radiotherapy
Q 3 :
What is the penetration depth of orthovoltage radiation in tissue?
A.1-2 mm
B.3-5 cm
C.1-2 cm
D.5-10 cm
Q 4 :
What type of filter is commonly used in orthovoltage therapy to harden the beam?
A.Copper
B.Aluminum
C.Lead
D.Tungsten
Q 5 :
What is a disadvantage of orthovoltage radiotherapy?
A.High penetration depth
B.Increased skin dose due to low energy
C.Cannot treat surface lesions
D.High cost of operation
Q 6 :
What is the energy range for megavoltage X-rays produced by linear accelerators?
A.1-30 kVp
B.50-150 kVp
C.1-25 MV
D.30-50 MeV
Q 7 :
What advantage does megavoltage therapy provide compared to orthovoltage therapy?
A.Greater skin sparing effect
B.Higher dose deposition at the surface
C.Reduced machine cost
D.No shielding requirement
Q 8 :
is a common source in supervoltage therapy. What is its average photon energy?
A.1.17 and 1.33 MeV
B.6-8 MV
C.500 keV
D.25 MeV
Q 9 :
What is the primary mechanism of dose delivery in megavoltage therapy?
A.Photoelectric effect
B.Compton scattering
C.Pair production
D.Auger effect
Q 10 :
What type of shielding is used in megavoltage therapy rooms?
A.Lead
B.Concrete
C.Steel
D.Aluminum
Q 11 :
What is the most commonly used radioisotope in low-dose-rate brachytherapy for cervical cancer?
A.Iodine-125
B.Cobalt-60
C.Cesium-137
D.Iridium-192
Q 12 :
High-dose-rate (HDR) brachytherapy involves which of the following sources?
A.Gold-198
B.Iridium-192
C.Phosphorus-32
D.Strontium-89
Q 13 :
What is the main advantage of brachytherapy?
A.Uniform dose to large areas
B.Sparing of surrounding healthy tissues
C.High cost of treatment
D.No need for imaging
Q 14 :
What is the dose rate typically used in low-dose-rate (LDR) brachytherapy?
A.Less than 2 Gy/h
B.10-20 Gy/h
C.More than 50 Gy/h
D.No specific range
Q 15 :
Which applicator is used for brachytherapy in prostate cancer?
A.Tandem and ovoid
B.HDR catheter
C.Seed implants
D.Vaginal cylinder
Q 16 :
What is the primary distinction between stereotactic radiosurgery (SRS) and stereotactic radiotherapy (SRT)?
A.Number of treatment sessions
B.Use of linear accelerators
C.Type of imaging
D.Target size
Q 17 :
Which technique is commonly used for cranial stereotactic radiosurgery?
A.Gamma Knife
B.HDR brachytherapy
C.Cobalt-60 therapy
D.Proton therapy
Q 18 :
What is a primary application of stereotactic body radiotherapy (SBRT)?
A.Treating large tumors
B.Treating lung and liver cancers
C.Whole-body irradiation
D.Palliative care only
Q 19 :
Total Body Irradiation (TBI) is primarily used in the treatment of:
A.Skin cancers
B.Leukemia and lymphoma
C.Brain tumors
D.Breast cancer
Q 20 :
Which particle is used in heavy ion therapy?
A.Protons
B.Carbon ions
C.Neutrons
D.Alpha particles
Q 21 :
What is a major operational challenge in radiotherapy?
A.Regular maintenance of equipment
B.Use of unskilled technicians
C.Excessive shielding requirements
D.Limited patient cases
Q 22 :
What does a linear accelerator (LINAC) require for consistent performance?
A.Weekly quality assurance (QA) checks
B.Monthly replacement of components
C.Annual recalibration
D.Regular operator changes
Q 23 :
Which agency provides guidelines for radiotherapy equipment maintenance?
A.International Atomic Energy Agency (IAEA)
B.World Health Organization (WHO)
C.International Radiotherapy Federation (IRF)
D.Radiology Society of North America (RSNA)
Q 24 :
What is the significance of patient immobilization in radiotherapy?
A.Ensures machine safety
B.Prevents overdose
C.Reduces movement for precise dose delivery
D.Protects the operator from radiation
Q 25 :
What software is most commonly used in treatment planning systems (TPS) for radiotherapy?
A.MATLAB
B.Eclipse
C.AutoCAD
D.SPSS
Q 26 :
Which imaging modality is critical for accurate stereotactic radiosurgery planning?
A.X-ray
B.MRI
C.Ultrasound
D.CT Scan
Q 27 :
What dose rate is commonly delivered during Total Skin Electron Irradiation (TSEI)?
A.Low dose over several weeks
B.High dose in a single session
C.Moderate dose for daily fractions
D.Variable dose based on patient weight
Q 28 :
What is the typical beam energy used in Total Body Irradiation (TBI)?
A.1-2 MV
B.4-6 MV
C.10-12 MV
D.15-18 MV
Q 29 :
What is a key benefit of stereotactic body radiotherapy (SBRT) over conventional radiotherapy?
A.Less precision needed
B.Fewer treatment sessions
C.Larger treatment areas
D.No imaging required
Q 30 :
Which condition is TBI most commonly used as a preparative regimen for?
A.Brain metastases
B.Bone marrow transplantation
C.Liver failure
D.Prostate cancer
Q 31 :
What is the primary purpose of a radiation dosimeter?
A.Measuring patient blood pressure
B.Monitoring radiation exposure levels
C.Controlling machine voltage
D.Aligning the linear accelerator
Q 32 :
What type of shielding is used to protect radiotherapy staff from radiation exposure?
A.Polyethylene
B.Lead aprons and screens
C.Aluminum sheets
D.Plastic shields
Q 33 :
Which parameter is critical for patient positioning accuracy during radiotherapy?
A.Time of day
B.Use of immobilization devices
C.Operator's physical strength
D.Machine cooling system
Q 34 :
Which test is performed daily to check the linear accelerator's functionality?
A.Quality Assurance (QA) test
B.CT scan test
C.MRI calibration
D.Beam hardening test
Q 35 :
What is the main goal of treatment planning in radiotherapy?
A.Minimize radiation dose to the tumor
B.Maximize patient exposure
C.Deliver precise dose to the tumor while sparing healthy tissues
D.Avoid the use of imaging technologies
Q 36 :
What is a key advantage of proton therapy?
A.Low cost of treatment
B.Uniform dose delivery throughout the tumor
C.Bragg peak allows precise dose deposition
D.No requirement for imaging
Q 37 :
Which type of cancer is commonly treated using proton therapy?
A.Skin cancer
B.Prostate cancer
C.Lymphoma
D.Colon cancer
Q 38 :
What is a characteristic feature of neutron therapy?
A.High linear energy transfer (LET)
B.Low tissue penetration
C.Uniform distribution of dose
D.Exclusive use for pediatric cases
Q 39 :
What is the primary particle used in heavy ion therapy?
A.Carbon ions
B.Helium ions
C.Electrons
D.Neutrons
Q 40 :
What is the main operational challenge in proton and heavy ion therapy?
A.Excessive patient dose
B.High cost and complexity of equipment
C.Lack of trained professionals
D.Limited energy range
Q 41 :
Why is beam calibration critical in radiotherapy?
A.To reduce treatment costs
B.To ensure the correct dose is delivered
C.To eliminate the need for imaging
D.To improve patient comfort
Q 42 :
What type of imaging is typically used to verify tumor position before treatment?
A.Ultrasound
B.CT imaging
C.Plain X-ray
D.PET scan
Q 43 :
What is the role of a treatment planning system (TPS) in radiotherapy?
A.To monitor radiation workersβ exposure
B.To simulate and calculate the radiation dose for the patient
C.To manufacture radioisotopes
D.To enhance the energy of the beam
Q 44 :
Which modality is used in image-guided radiotherapy (IGRT)?
A.Optical imaging
B.CT, MRI, or ultrasound
C.Infrared imaging
D.Nuclear medicine scans
Q 45 :
What ensures patient safety during radiation treatment delivery?
A.Continuous monitoring and quality assurance
B.Using higher energy levels
C.Skipping imaging to save time
D.Decreasing the treatment area
Q 46 :
Which type of radiotherapy minimizes dose to surrounding healthy tissues?
A.3D conformal radiotherapy (3D-CRT)
B.Intensity-modulated radiotherapy (IMRT)
C.External beam radiotherapy (EBRT)
D.Superficial radiotherapy
Q 47 :
What is a significant feature of volumetric modulated arc therapy (VMAT)?
A.Dose is delivered while the machine rotates around the patient
B.Requires no imaging for planning
C.Used exclusively for pediatric cases
D.Limited to treating skin lesions
Q 48 :
Which organization provides guidelines on radiotherapy safety standards?
A.International Commission on Radiological Protection (ICRP)
B.World Health Organization (WHO)
C.National Cancer Institute (NCI)
D.American Medical Association (AMA)
Q 49 :
What is a major consideration in treating pediatric patients with radiotherapy?
A.High dose per session
B.Avoiding exposure to critical growth tissues
C.Lack of imaging requirements
D.Use of orthovoltage only
Q 50 :
Which technique is used to track tumor movement during treatment?
A.4D radiotherapy
B.VMAT
C.IGRT
D.3D-CRT
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KGMU Technician Radiotherapy Exam Question Bank Book - English
Which radiotherapy technique uses a rotating gantry to deliver radiation from multiple angles?
A.Intensity-modulated radiotherapy (IMRT)
B.Stereotactic radiosurgery (SRS)
C.Volumetric modulated arc therapy (VMAT)
D.3D conformal radiotherapy (3D-CRT)
Q 52 :
What is the primary benefit of stereotactic radiosurgery (SRS)?
A.It treats large tumor volumes effectively
B.It requires multiple treatment sessions
C.It delivers high doses of radiation precisely to a small tumor
D.It uses lower doses of radiation
Q 53 :
Which of the following is a characteristic of particle beam therapy?
A.It uses photons to deliver the radiation
B.It has a limited penetration depth in tissues
C.It delivers highly focused radiation with minimal damage to surrounding tissues
D.It only treats superficial tumors
Q 54 :
Which of the following is commonly treated with proton therapy?
A.Skin cancer
B.Bone metastasis
C.Pediatric cancers
D.Leukemia
Q 55 :
What is the term used to describe the sharp dose drop-off of proton therapy?
A.Bragg Peak
B.Radiation Halo
C.Dose Plateau
D.Dose Spread
Q 56 :
What is the role of quality assurance (QA) in radiotherapy?
A.To monitor patient progress during treatment
B.To ensure the accuracy and safety of the radiation dose delivered
C.To ensure the treatment room is clean
D.To improve the comfort of patients during treatment
Q 57 :
Which of the following is a key component of a radiation safety program in radiotherapy?
A.Patient feedback surveys
B.Continuous monitoring of radiation exposure to staff
C.Use of manual treatment techniques
D.Minimizing patient imaging
Q 58 :
Which device is used to measure the radiation dose delivered to the patient during treatment?
A.Dosimeter
B.Thermoluminescent dosimeter (TLD)
C.Geiger counter
D.All of the above
Q 59 :
frequently should machine calibration and quality assurance tests be performed on radiotherapy equipment?
A.Weekly
B.Monthly
C.Quarterly
D.Annually
Q 60 :
Which of the following is a concern regarding radiation safety in radiotherapy?
A.Reducing the number of treatment machines
B.Proper shielding to protect staff and patients
C.Limiting the types of cancers treated
D.Increased patient waiting times
Mathematical Aptitude
Q 61 :
The elements of the set {x : x is an integer, x2 : 4} can be represent as .....Z..... . Here, Z refers to
A.{–2, 2}
B.{–1, 0, 1}
C.{–2, –1, 0, 1, 2}
D.{0, 1, 2}
Q 62 :
D.None of these
Q 63 :
If Y = {x : x is a positive factor of the number 2p – 1(2p – 1), where 2p – 1 is a prime number}, then Y can be represent in roster form as
A.{2}
B.{1, 2}
C.{1, 2, 22, ....., 2p – 1}
D.{1, 2, 22, 23,.... 2p – 1, (2p – 1)}
Q 64 :
The set {x : x is a positive integer less than 6 and 3x – 1 is an even number} in roster form is
A.{1, 2, 3, 4, 5}
B.{1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6}
C.{2, 4, 6}
D.{1, 3, 5}
Q 65 :
If A B and A B, then
A.A is called a proper subset of B
B.A is called a super set of B
C.A is not a subset of B
D.B is a subset of A
Q 66 :
The number of non-empty subsets of the set{1, 2, 3, 4} is
A.15
B.14
C.16
D.17
Q 67 :
The number of elements of the power set of a set containing m elements is
A.2m – 1
B.m
C.m2
D.2m
Q 68 :
If A = {x : x = n2, n = 1, 2, 3}, then number of proper subsets is
A.3
B.8
C.7
D.None of these
Q 69 :
If A = {x : x = 4n + 1, 2 £ n £ 5},then number of subsets of A is
A.16
B.15
C.4
D.None of these
Q 70 :
Let A and B be two non-empty subsets of a set X such that A is not a subset of B, then
A.A is always a subset of the complement of B
B.B is always a subset of A
C.A and B are always disjoint
D.A and the complement of B are always non-disjoint
English
Q 71 :
I go to Madurai by —– Vaigai Express
A.a
B.an
C.some
D.the
Q 72 :
Have the car stolen!
A.Steal the car
B.You should have the stolen car
C.Get someone to steal the car
D.They have stolen the car
Q 73 :
The payment was collected by the hardworking salesman.
A.The hardworking salesman collected the payment.
B.the salesman who worked heard was able to collect the payment.
C.to collect the payment the salesman had to work hard.
D.The hardworking salesman was able to collect the payment.
Q 74 :
I had to stop all my work to complete this project.
A.All other work had to be stopped to complete this project by me
B.For completing this project all other work must be stopped
C.For completing this project I had to stop all my work
D.To complete this project all other work had been stopped by me
Q 75 :
They have published the names of all the successful candidates.
A.The candidates who have succeeded their names they had published.
B.The names of all the successful candidates have been published by them
C.The candidates who have succeeded their names have been published by them.
D.The names of all the successful candidate were published by them.
Q 76 :
The online shopping site lowered the prices.
A.Lowering of the prices was done by the online shopping site
B.The prices were lowered by the online shopping site
C.The prices had been lowered by the online shopping site
D.The prices have been lowered by the online shopping site
Q 77 :
Who taught you to drive a truck ?
A.To drive a truck by whom were you taught?
B.Driving a truck by who were you taught?
C.Driving a truck by who were you being taught?
D.By whom were you taught to drive a truck?
Q 78 :
We shall invite Suresh.
A.Suresh would be invited by us
B.Suresh would have been invited by us
C.Suresh will be invited by us
D.Suresh will have been invited by us
Q 79 :
Dark clouds have overcast the evening sky.
A.By the dark clouds the evening sky was overcast.
B.The evening sky has been overcast by the dark clouds.
C.Dark clouds overcastted the evening sky.
D.The sky of the evening was overcasted by dark clouds.
Q 80 :
The partners will celebrate their triumph tomorrow.
A.The triumph would be celebrated by the partners a day before
B.The triumph would be celebrated by the partners a day after
C.The triumph would have been celebrated by the partners a day after
D.The triumph will have been celebrated by the partners tomorrow
General Knowledge
Q 81 :
When Uttar Pradesh got it officially as statehood ?
A.24 January, 1950
B.26 January, 1952
C.1 January, 1956
D.18 February, 1957
Q 82 :
How many districts are there in Uttar Pradesh
A.60
B.57
C.75
D.87
Q 83 :
What are the official languages of Uttar Pradesh ?
A.Hindi & Urdu
B.Only Hindi
C.Only Urdu
D.Kumaoni
Q 84 :
How many members of Lok Sabha from Uttar Pradesh ?
A.56
B.78
C.80
D.51
Q 85 :
How many members of Rajya Sabha from Uttar Pradesh ?
A.45
B.51
C.31
D.77
Q 86 :
Which country's Supreme Leader, Ali Khamenei, was assassinated in a joint US-Israel strike in late February 2026?
A.Syria
B.Iraq
C.Lebanon
D.Iran
Q 87 :
What was the primary goal stated for the 2026 IsraeliβUnited States strikes on Iran?
A.Nuclear disarmament only
B.Border security
C.Economic sanctions enforcement
D.Regime change in Tehran
Q 88 :
Which Indian state won its maiden Ranji Trophy title recently (reported in early March 2026)?
A.Mumbai
B.Tamil Nadu
C.Jammu & Kashmir
D.Karnataka
Q 89 :
What funding amount did Germany announce for a new climate resilience initiative with India in February 2026?
A.EUR 10 million
B.EUR 100 million
C.EUR 50 million
D.EUR 20 million
Q 90 :
Which Indian state launched its first Dark Sky Park in Kolli Hills in February 2026?
A.Kerala
B.Tamil Nadu
C.Uttarakhand
D.Himachal Pradesh
Reasoning
Q 91 :
How many such pairs of letters are there in the word ‘CLEANLINESS’ each of the which has as many letters between them in the word as they have in the English alphabet, in the same sequence?
A.Two
B.Three
C.Five
D.Four
E.None of these
Q 92 :
Team A has scored more goals than Team B
Team C has scored fewer goals than Team B
Team A has scored fewer goals than Team C .
If the first two statements are true, the third statement is
A.True
B.False
C.Uncertain
D.None
Q 93 :
If it is possible to make only one meaningful word with the second, the third, the sixth and the eight letters of the word FRAGMENT using each only once, which of the following will be the third letter of that word ? If no such word can be formed, give ‘X’ as the answer and if more than one such word can be formed, give ‘Y’ as the answer.
A.A
B.E
C.T
D.X
E.Y
Q 94 :
How many such letters are there in the word ORIENTAL each of which is as far away from the beginning of the word as when they are arranged alphabetically?
A.None
B.One
C.Two
D.Three
E.More than three
Q 95 :
How many such pairs of letters in the word CREDIT each of which has as many letters between them in the word as in the English alphabet?
A.None
B.One
C.Two
D.Three
E.More than three
Q 96 :
How many meaningful words can be made from the letters ‘LMEA’ using each letter only once in each word?
A.None
B.One
C.Two
D.Three
E.More than three
Q 97 :
If it is possible to make only one meaningful word with the first, the second, the seventh and the eighth letters of the word TEMPORAL, which of the following will be the first letter of that word? If more than one such word can be made, give ‘Y’ as the answer and if no such word can be made, give ‘X’ as the answer.
A.T
B.L
C.E
D.Y
E.X
Q 98 :
If the letters of the word HANDOVER are arranged alphabetically from left to right how many letters will remain at the same position?
A.None
B.One
C.Two
D.Three
E.More than three
Q 99 :
How many such pairs of letters are there in the word EXCURSION, each of which has as many letters between them in the word as they have in the English alphabet?
A.None
B.One
C.Two
D.Three
E.More than three
Q 100 :
If it is possible to make only one meaningful word with the first, the second, the third, the sixth and the eighth letters of the word DEVIATION first letter of that word is your answer? If more than one such word can be made formed your answer is ‘A’ and if no such word can be formed your answer is ‘B’.