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Question for KGMU Technician Radiotherapy - Quiz / Questions / MCQ in English

Last Update on : October 13, 2026

Duration: 120 Β· Questions: 100 Β· Max Marks: 100

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Latest KGMU Technician Radiotherapy Exam Question (Objective Questions), MCQ in English

Subjects : Radiotherapy, Mathematical Aptitude, English, General Knowledge, Reasoning

Question Bank KGMU Technician Radiotherapy Exam - English

Radiotherapy

Q 1 :
What is the typical energy range for orthovoltage X-rays?
  1. A.10-50 kVp
  2. B.50-150 kVp
  3. C.200-500 kVp
  4. D.1-2 MV
Q 2 :
What is the primary application of orthovoltage therapy?
  1. A.Treating deep-seated tumors
  2. B.Treating superficial lesions like skin cancers
  3. C.Whole-body irradiation
  4. D.Cranial stereotactic radiotherapy
Q 3 :
What is the penetration depth of orthovoltage radiation in tissue?
  1. A.1-2 mm
  2. B.3-5 cm
  3. C.1-2 cm
  4. D.5-10 cm
Q 4 :
What type of filter is commonly used in orthovoltage therapy to harden the beam?
  1. A.Copper
  2. B.Aluminum
  3. C.Lead
  4. D.Tungsten
Q 5 :
What is a disadvantage of orthovoltage radiotherapy?
  1. A.High penetration depth
  2. B.Increased skin dose due to low energy
  3. C.Cannot treat surface lesions
  4. D.High cost of operation
Q 6 :
What is the energy range for megavoltage X-rays produced by linear accelerators?
  1. A.1-30 kVp
  2. B.50-150 kVp
  3. C.1-25 MV
  4. D.30-50 MeV
Q 7 :
What advantage does megavoltage therapy provide compared to orthovoltage therapy?
  1. A.Greater skin sparing effect
  2. B.Higher dose deposition at the surface
  3. C.Reduced machine cost
  4. D.No shielding requirement
Q 8 :
is a common source in supervoltage therapy. What is its average photon energy?
  1. A.1.17 and 1.33 MeV
  2. B.6-8 MV
  3. C.500 keV
  4. D.25 MeV
Q 9 :
What is the primary mechanism of dose delivery in megavoltage therapy?
  1. A.Photoelectric effect
  2. B.Compton scattering
  3. C.Pair production
  4. D.Auger effect
Q 10 :
What type of shielding is used in megavoltage therapy rooms?
  1. A.Lead
  2. B.Concrete
  3. C.Steel
  4. D.Aluminum
Q 11 :
What is the most commonly used radioisotope in low-dose-rate brachytherapy for cervical cancer?
  1. A.Iodine-125
  2. B.Cobalt-60
  3. C.Cesium-137
  4. D.Iridium-192
Q 12 :
High-dose-rate (HDR) brachytherapy involves which of the following sources?
  1. A.Gold-198
  2. B.Iridium-192
  3. C.Phosphorus-32
  4. D.Strontium-89
Q 13 :
What is the main advantage of brachytherapy?
  1. A.Uniform dose to large areas
  2. B.Sparing of surrounding healthy tissues
  3. C.High cost of treatment
  4. D.No need for imaging
Q 14 :
What is the dose rate typically used in low-dose-rate (LDR) brachytherapy?
  1. A.Less than 2 Gy/h
  2. B.10-20 Gy/h
  3. C.More than 50 Gy/h
  4. D.No specific range
Q 15 :
Which applicator is used for brachytherapy in prostate cancer?
  1. A.Tandem and ovoid
  2. B.HDR catheter
  3. C.Seed implants
  4. D.Vaginal cylinder
Q 16 :
What is the primary distinction between stereotactic radiosurgery (SRS) and stereotactic radiotherapy (SRT)?
  1. A.Number of treatment sessions
  2. B.Use of linear accelerators
  3. C.Type of imaging
  4. D.Target size
Q 17 :
Which technique is commonly used for cranial stereotactic radiosurgery?
  1. A.Gamma Knife
  2. B.HDR brachytherapy
  3. C.Cobalt-60 therapy
  4. D.Proton therapy
Q 18 :
What is a primary application of stereotactic body radiotherapy (SBRT)?
  1. A.Treating large tumors
  2. B.Treating lung and liver cancers
  3. C.Whole-body irradiation
  4. D.Palliative care only
Q 19 :
Total Body Irradiation (TBI) is primarily used in the treatment of:
  1. A.Skin cancers
  2. B.Leukemia and lymphoma
  3. C.Brain tumors
  4. D.Breast cancer
Q 20 :
Which particle is used in heavy ion therapy?
  1. A.Protons
  2. B.Carbon ions
  3. C.Neutrons
  4. D.Alpha particles
Q 21 :
What is a major operational challenge in radiotherapy?
  1. A.Regular maintenance of equipment
  2. B.Use of unskilled technicians
  3. C.Excessive shielding requirements
  4. D.Limited patient cases
Q 22 :
What does a linear accelerator (LINAC) require for consistent performance?
  1. A.Weekly quality assurance (QA) checks
  2. B.Monthly replacement of components
  3. C.Annual recalibration
  4. D.Regular operator changes
Q 23 :
Which agency provides guidelines for radiotherapy equipment maintenance?
  1. A.International Atomic Energy Agency (IAEA)
  2. B.World Health Organization (WHO)
  3. C.International Radiotherapy Federation (IRF)
  4. D.Radiology Society of North America (RSNA)
Q 24 :
What is the significance of patient immobilization in radiotherapy?
  1. A.Ensures machine safety
  2. B.Prevents overdose
  3. C.Reduces movement for precise dose delivery
  4. D.Protects the operator from radiation
Q 25 :
What software is most commonly used in treatment planning systems (TPS) for radiotherapy?
  1. A.MATLAB
  2. B.Eclipse
  3. C.AutoCAD
  4. D.SPSS
Q 26 :
Which imaging modality is critical for accurate stereotactic radiosurgery planning?
  1. A.X-ray
  2. B.MRI
  3. C.Ultrasound
  4. D.CT Scan
Q 27 :
What dose rate is commonly delivered during Total Skin Electron Irradiation (TSEI)?
  1. A.Low dose over several weeks
  2. B.High dose in a single session
  3. C.Moderate dose for daily fractions
  4. D.Variable dose based on patient weight
Q 28 :
What is the typical beam energy used in Total Body Irradiation (TBI)?
  1. A.1-2 MV
  2. B.4-6 MV
  3. C.10-12 MV
  4. D.15-18 MV
Q 29 :
What is a key benefit of stereotactic body radiotherapy (SBRT) over conventional radiotherapy?
  1. A.Less precision needed
  2. B.Fewer treatment sessions
  3. C.Larger treatment areas
  4. D.No imaging required
Q 30 :
Which condition is TBI most commonly used as a preparative regimen for?
  1. A.Brain metastases
  2. B.Bone marrow transplantation
  3. C.Liver failure
  4. D.Prostate cancer
Q 31 :
What is the primary purpose of a radiation dosimeter?
  1. A.Measuring patient blood pressure
  2. B.Monitoring radiation exposure levels
  3. C.Controlling machine voltage
  4. D.Aligning the linear accelerator
Q 32 :
What type of shielding is used to protect radiotherapy staff from radiation exposure?
  1. A.Polyethylene
  2. B.Lead aprons and screens
  3. C.Aluminum sheets
  4. D.Plastic shields
Q 33 :
Which parameter is critical for patient positioning accuracy during radiotherapy?
  1. A.Time of day
  2. B.Use of immobilization devices
  3. C.Operator's physical strength
  4. D.Machine cooling system
Q 34 :
Which test is performed daily to check the linear accelerator's functionality?
  1. A.Quality Assurance (QA) test
  2. B.CT scan test
  3. C.MRI calibration
  4. D.Beam hardening test
Q 35 :
What is the main goal of treatment planning in radiotherapy?
  1. A.Minimize radiation dose to the tumor
  2. B.Maximize patient exposure
  3. C.Deliver precise dose to the tumor while sparing healthy tissues
  4. D.Avoid the use of imaging technologies
Q 36 :
What is a key advantage of proton therapy?
  1. A.Low cost of treatment
  2. B.Uniform dose delivery throughout the tumor
  3. C.Bragg peak allows precise dose deposition
  4. D.No requirement for imaging
Q 37 :
Which type of cancer is commonly treated using proton therapy?
  1. A.Skin cancer
  2. B.Prostate cancer
  3. C.Lymphoma
  4. D.Colon cancer
Q 38 :
What is a characteristic feature of neutron therapy?
  1. A.High linear energy transfer (LET)
  2. B.Low tissue penetration
  3. C.Uniform distribution of dose
  4. D.Exclusive use for pediatric cases
Q 39 :
What is the primary particle used in heavy ion therapy?
  1. A.Carbon ions
  2. B.Helium ions
  3. C.Electrons
  4. D.Neutrons
Q 40 :
What is the main operational challenge in proton and heavy ion therapy?
  1. A.Excessive patient dose
  2. B.High cost and complexity of equipment
  3. C.Lack of trained professionals
  4. D.Limited energy range
Q 41 :
Why is beam calibration critical in radiotherapy?
  1. A.To reduce treatment costs
  2. B.To ensure the correct dose is delivered
  3. C.To eliminate the need for imaging
  4. D.To improve patient comfort
Q 42 :
What type of imaging is typically used to verify tumor position before treatment?
  1. A.Ultrasound
  2. B.CT imaging
  3. C.Plain X-ray
  4. D.PET scan
Q 43 :
What is the role of a treatment planning system (TPS) in radiotherapy?
  1. A.To monitor radiation workers’ exposure
  2. B.To simulate and calculate the radiation dose for the patient
  3. C.To manufacture radioisotopes
  4. D.To enhance the energy of the beam
Q 44 :
Which modality is used in image-guided radiotherapy (IGRT)?
  1. A.Optical imaging
  2. B.CT, MRI, or ultrasound
  3. C.Infrared imaging
  4. D.Nuclear medicine scans
Q 45 :
What ensures patient safety during radiation treatment delivery?
  1. A.Continuous monitoring and quality assurance
  2. B.Using higher energy levels
  3. C.Skipping imaging to save time
  4. D.Decreasing the treatment area
Q 46 :
Which type of radiotherapy minimizes dose to surrounding healthy tissues?
  1. A.3D conformal radiotherapy (3D-CRT)
  2. B.Intensity-modulated radiotherapy (IMRT)
  3. C.External beam radiotherapy (EBRT)
  4. D.Superficial radiotherapy
Q 47 :
What is a significant feature of volumetric modulated arc therapy (VMAT)?
  1. A.Dose is delivered while the machine rotates around the patient
  2. B.Requires no imaging for planning
  3. C.Used exclusively for pediatric cases
  4. D.Limited to treating skin lesions
Q 48 :
Which organization provides guidelines on radiotherapy safety standards?
  1. A.International Commission on Radiological Protection (ICRP)
  2. B.World Health Organization (WHO)
  3. C.National Cancer Institute (NCI)
  4. D.American Medical Association (AMA)
Q 49 :
What is a major consideration in treating pediatric patients with radiotherapy?
  1. A.High dose per session
  2. B.Avoiding exposure to critical growth tissues
  3. C.Lack of imaging requirements
  4. D.Use of orthovoltage only
Q 50 :
Which technique is used to track tumor movement during treatment?
  1. A.4D radiotherapy
  2. B.VMAT
  3. C.IGRT
  4. D.3D-CRT

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