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Latest KLEE LLB Exam Question (Objective Questions), MCQ in English
Subjects : General English, General Knowledge, Arithmetic and Mental Ability, Aptitude for Legal Studies
Question Bank KLEE LLB (3 years) Exam - English
General English
Q 1 :
I go to Madurai by —– Vaigai Express
A.a
B.an
C.some
D.the
Q 2 :
Have the car stolen!
A.Steal the car
B.You should have the stolen car
C.Get someone to steal the car
D.They have stolen the car
Q 3 :
The payment was collected by the hardworking salesman.
A.The hardworking salesman collected the payment.
B.the salesman who worked heard was able to collect the payment.
C.to collect the payment the salesman had to work hard.
D.The hardworking salesman was able to collect the payment.
Q 4 :
I had to stop all my work to complete this project.
A.All other work had to be stopped to complete this project by me
B.For completing this project all other work must be stopped
C.For completing this project I had to stop all my work
D.To complete this project all other work had been stopped by me
Q 5 :
They have published the names of all the successful candidates.
A.The candidates who have succeeded their names they had published.
B.The names of all the successful candidates have been published by them
C.The candidates who have succeeded their names have been published by them.
D.The names of all the successful candidate were published by them.
Q 6 :
The online shopping site lowered the prices.
A.Lowering of the prices was done by the online shopping site
B.The prices were lowered by the online shopping site
C.The prices had been lowered by the online shopping site
D.The prices have been lowered by the online shopping site
Q 7 :
Who taught you to drive a truck ?
A.To drive a truck by whom were you taught?
B.Driving a truck by who were you taught?
C.Driving a truck by who were you being taught?
D.By whom were you taught to drive a truck?
Q 8 :
We shall invite Suresh.
A.Suresh would be invited by us
B.Suresh would have been invited by us
C.Suresh will be invited by us
D.Suresh will have been invited by us
Q 9 :
Dark clouds have overcast the evening sky.
A.By the dark clouds the evening sky was overcast.
B.The evening sky has been overcast by the dark clouds.
C.Dark clouds overcastted the evening sky.
D.The sky of the evening was overcasted by dark clouds.
Q 10 :
The partners will celebrate their triumph tomorrow.
A.The triumph would be celebrated by the partners a day before
B.The triumph would be celebrated by the partners a day after
C.The triumph would have been celebrated by the partners a day after
D.The triumph will have been celebrated by the partners tomorrow
Q 11 :
Why did break the vase?
A.why is the vase broken by him
B.why was the vase broken by him
C.why had been the vase broken by him
D.why has been the vase broken by him
Q 12 :
Mariam was writing a note to her boss.
A.A note was written to her boss by Mariam
B.A note was wrote by Mariam to her boss
C.A note was being written by Mariam to her boss
D.A note was written by Mariam to her boss
Q 13 :
The baby really enjoys that music.
A.That music was really enjoyed by the baby.
B.That music was really being enjoyed by the baby.
C.That music is really enjoyed by the baby.
D.This music was really enjoyed by the baby.
Q 14 :
The weather disrupted the final match.
A.The final match has been disrupted by the weather.
B.The final match had been disrupted by the weather.
C.The final match was disrupted by the weather.
D.The final match was being disrupted by the weather.
Q 15 :
The management committee is required to publish a report every year.
A.report would be published by the management committee every year.
B.A report would have been published by the management committee every year.
C.A report requires to be published by the management committee every year.
D.Every year the report would be published by the management committee.
Q 16 :
The Finance Department has ……………a centralized online databank system for all statutory government bodies to …………an eye on their assets and liabilities.
A. presented , stay
B.introduced , keep
C.announce , make
D.created , let
E.proclaimed , hold
Q 17 :
Assets
A.liabilities
B.responsibilities
C.estates
D.profits
Q 18 :
Affidavit
A. Affirmation
B.Slander
C.Oath
D.Testimony
Q 19 :
Hollow
A.Alveolate
B.Cleft
C. Cavernous
D.Solid
Q 20 :
Cosset
A.Ignoreb
B.Close
C.Caress
D.Fondle
Q 21 :
Ogle
A.Leer
B.Gaze
C.Ignore
D.Gawk
Q 22 :
Intrinsic
A.Elemental
B.Innate
C.Connate
D.Acquired
Q 23 :
Coalesce
A.Separate
B.Adhere
C.Cleave
D.Amalgamate
Q 24 :
Loiter
A.lag
B.Hasten
C.Amble
D.Loii
Q 25 :
The protests were......... at ......... awareness among the elite and the educated.
A.held, generating
B.aimed, creating
C.targeted, awakening
D.focused, building
E.concentrated, producing
Q 26 :
Deep-seated
A.Chronic
B.Temporary
C.inbred
D.Subconscious
Q 27 :
Vibrant
A.Drab
B.Gaudy
C.Jazzy
D.Vivid
Q 28 :
To scowl
A.To glower
B.To smirk
C.To Grimace
D.To grin
Q 29 :
I used (A)/ a pair of black trousers (B) / for a week (C)/ No error (D)
A.A
B.B
C.C
D.D
Q 30 :
Atheist
A.Skeptic
B.Pagan
C.Disciple
D.Agnostic
Q 31 :
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A.He was in the temper
B.and refused
C.discuss the matter again
D.No error
Q 32 :
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A.A flower makes no garland
B.so we must do a thing together
C.in a unit for a good result
D.No error
Q 33 :
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A.My friend is a software engineer
B.and his wife is doctor
C.so they don’t have enough time for each other
D.No error
Q 34 :
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A.I don’t have much time that
B.I hear you in detail with verbosity
C.tell everything in nutshell
D.No error
Q 35 :
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A.The atmosphere is changing
B.so I have severe pain in my body
C.if you have any painkiller, please give it to me
D.No error
Q 36 :
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A.No one is without fault
B.because no one is God
C.and only God is fault free
D.No error
Q 37 :
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A.Your
B.clock is
C.one hour fast
D.No error
Q 38 :
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A.The lose of jobs
B.is regarded by some as an necessary evil
C.in the fight against infliation
D.No error
Q 39 :
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A.In science, the credit goes to a man
B.who convinces the world
C.not to the man to whom the idea first occurs
D.No error
Q 40 :
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A.It is only after
B.the match is over
C.that people realize how exciting it is
D.No error
Q 41 :
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A.Off the two
B.sisters, she
C.is better
D.No error
Q 42 :
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A.A interesting book
B.‘A Tale of two cities’
C.was written by Alexander Dumas
D.No error
Q 43 :
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A.I shall never
B.forget a good
C.deed you did to me, when I was in crisis
D.No error
Q 44 :
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A.Wisdom of Vikramaditya
B.solved many riddles
C.that people brought to him for solution
D.No error
Q 45 :
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A.News you broke to his wife
B.made her nervous
C.and she broke down
D.No error
Q 46 :
To sleep with the fishes
A.Always be in a dream world
B.To make absurd excuses
C.To sleep peacefully
D.To be dead
Q 47 :
To free someone or something form a constraint or difficulty.
A.To exterminate
B.To expurgate
C.To intricate
D.To extricate
Q 48 :
Liquids forming a homogeneous mixture when added together
A.Irascible
B.Crucible
C.Miscible
D.Risible
Q 49 :
Shooting fish in a barrel
A.To do random acts of stupidity
B.To behave in a cruel manner
C.Ridiculously easy
D.To escape through a narrow opening
Q 50 :
What does the phrase ‘knew no bounds’ mean ?
A.was bounded by
B.was limitless
C.was limited
D.was bound to
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KLEE LLB (3 years) Exam Question Bank Book - English
“There are more cyclists than pedestrians on the streets of Amsterdam”.
Choose the sentence which means the same as the above statement.
A.Pedestrians outnumber cyclists on the streets of Amsterdam
B.Cyclists are not as many is number as pedestrians
C.Walking is not as common as cycling is on the streets of Amsterdam
D.Cycling is not as common as walking is on the streets of Amsterdam
Q 52 :
Use the appropriate idiom to complete the expression. You may go home early if you are
A.Feeling a bit under the weather
B.Hitting the nail on the head
C.Sitting on the fence
D.Adding insult to the injury
Q 53 :
To bend over backwards
A.To accommodate every unreasonable request usually without getting anything back
B.Stepping away from an unpleasant situation
C.To make every effort to achieve something, especially to be fair or helpful
D.Submitting oneself completely to a higher authority
Q 54 :
To declare invalid an official agreement, decision, or result.
A.To annul
B.To negate
C.To efface
D.To undo
Q 55 :
Feeling or showing deep and solemn respect.
A.Pious
B.Reverent
C.Humble
D.Devout
Q 56 :
The teacher was taken aback by the student’s remark.
A.Annoyed
B.Surprised
C.Hurt
D.Pleased
Q 57 :
The lawyer insisted on having the contract in black and white.
A.In writing
B.Orally
C.Figuratively
D.Obliquely
Q 58 :
Our parents allowed us to watch films once in a blue moon.
A.Everywhere
B.Rarely
C.Secretly
D.Forever
Q 59 :
Hold your tongue, my lad ! I’ll deal with you later.
A.Stick out the tongue
B.Be silent
C.Cool the tongue
D.Gargle
Q 60 :
If you read his letter between the lines, you will find that he has no faith in his colleague’s honesty.
A.Strain your eyes
B.Read in secret
C.Find out the inner meaning
D.Read an untidy letter
General Knowledge
Q 61 :
Yojna a weekly journal
A.Ministry of Finance
B.Ministry of Information and Broadcastin
C.Ministry of Rural Development
D.Planning Commission
Q 62 :
Kurukshetra a journal on rural development is published by
A.Ministry of Finance
B.Ministry of Information and Broadcastin
C.Ministry of Rural Development
D.Planning Commission
Q 63 :
Devaluation of a currency means
A.Fixing the value of the currency in conjuction with the movement in the value of a basket of predetermined currencies
B.Reduction in the value of a currency vis-à-vis major internationally traded currencies
C.Fixing the value of currency in multilateral consultaion with the IMF the World Bank and major trading partners
D.Permitting the currency to seek its worth in the international market
Q 64 :
In India rural incomes are generally lower than the urban incomes, which of the following reasons account for this
1. a large number of farmers are illiterate and know little about scientific agriculture
2. prices of primary products are lower than those of manufactured products
3. Investments in agriculture has been low when compared to investment in industry
A.1 and 3
B.2 and 3
C.1 and 2
D.1,2 and 3
Q 65 :
Which of the following programmes aims at the promotion of savings among rural women
A.Rashtriya Mahila Kosh
B.Indira Mahila Yojna
C.Jawahar Rozgar Yojna
D.Mahila Samridhi Yojna
Q 66 :
What is Net National Product
A.the money value of final goods and services produced annually in the economy
B.the money value of annual service generation in the economy
C.the money value of tangible goods produced annually in the economy
D.The money value of tangible goods available in the economy
Q 67 :
National income is the
A.net national product at market price
B.net national product at factor cost
C.net domestic product at market price
D.net domestic product at factor cost
Q 68 :
Chelliah Committee of 1992 deals with the overhauling of our
A.financial system
B.tax system
C.patents and copyrights
D.Public sector undertakings
Q 69 :
During which Five Year Plan was the annual growth rate of National Income the lowest
A.2nd plan
B.3rd plan
C.5th plan
D.6th plan
Q 70 :
Which of the following taxes is a progressive tax
A.sales tax
B.custom tax
C.excise tax
D.income tax
Q 71 :
Sattriya dance form is famous in which of these states ?
A.Assam
B.Himachal Pradesh
C.Punjab
D.Tamil Nadu
Q 72 :
Which of the following statements is true ?
Statement I: Indian techniques such as Rasa and Bhawa in classical dances have their origins in Bharatmuni's Natyashastra.
Statement II: Bharatanatyam has its origin in Odisha.
A.Only Statement II is true
B.Both Statement I and Statement II are true
C.Neither Statement I nor Statement II is true
D.Only Statement I is true
Q 73 :
Padma Bhushan, Guru Vempati Chinna Satyam is renowned for having trained hundreds of students in which of the following dance forms ?
A.Kuchipudi
B.Odissi
C.Bharatnatyam
D.Kathak
Q 74 :
"Who said, 'India was a parrot unto itself'?
A.Malik Muhammad Joyce
B.Raskhan
C.Rich Khusrow
D.Rich Hasan
Q 75 :
What was the real name of Amir Khusro?
A.Muhammad Hasan
B.Muhammad Hussain
C.Muhammad Khusrow
D.Muhammad Mine
Q 76 :
Who is considered the founder of the Sufi movement in India?
A.Qutubuddin Bakhtiar Aunty
B.Nizamuddin Awliya
C.muinuddin Chishti
D.Naseeruddin Mahmud
Q 77 :
Which is the national game of Bhutan ?
A.badminton
B.basketball
C.football
D.archery
Q 78 :
What is the national game of the United States of America ?
A.water polo
B.Rugby
C.Polo
D.baseball
Q 79 :
What is considered the national game of India ?
A.Field hockey
B.cricket
C.Chess
D.Kabaddi
Q 80 :
When was the Constituent Assembly of India formed?
A.1946
B.1947
C.1948
D.1950
Q 81 :
Who was the Chairman of the Drafting Committee of the Indian Constitution?
A.Dr. Rajendra Prasad
B.Dr. B.R. Ambedkar
C.Jawaharlal Nehru
D.Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel
Q 82 :
The idea of the Constituent Assembly was first put forward by:
A.Mahatma Gandhi
B.M.N. Roy
C.Jawaharlal Nehru
D.Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel
Q 83 :
Who is known as the "Father of the Indian Renaissance" ?
A.Raja Ram Mohan Roy
B.Swami Vivekananda
C.Rabindranath Tagore
D.Mahatma Gandhi
Q 84 :
Which classical dance form is associated with Tamil Nadu ?
A.Kathak
B.Kuchipudi
C.Bharatanatyam
D.Odissi
Q 85 :
Which of the following is a famous festival of Kerala ?
A.Pongal
B.Onam
C.Baisakhi
D.Makar Sankranti
Q 86 :
What is the study of ethics primarily concerned with ?
A.Economic behavior
B.Human values and moral principles
C.Physical health
D.Political systems
Q 87 :
Which of the following is a branch of ethics that deals with the philosophical study of morality ?
A.Metaphysics
B.Aesthetics
C.Normative ethics
D.Epistemology
Q 88 :
Which ethical theory focuses on the consequences of actions to determine right from wrong ?
A.Deontology
B.Virtue ethics
C.Utilitarianism
D.Ethical egoism
Q 89 :
Who is the philosopher known for the development of deontological ethics ?
A.Aristotle
B.John Stuart Mill
C.Immanuel Kant
D.Jeremy Bentham
Q 90 :
Which ethical principle emphasizes treating others as you would like to be treated ?
A.The Golden Rule
B.The Silver Rule
C.The Platinum Rule
D.The Iron Rule
Q 91 :
Which is the longest river in India?
A.Yamuna
B.Ganges
C.Brahmaputra
D.Godavari
Q 92 :
The Western Ghats are also known as:
A.Sahyadris
B.Vindhyas
C.Satpuras
D.Aravallis
Q 93 :
Which river is known as the βSorrow of Biharβ?
A.Ganges
B.Kosi
C.Son
D.Gandak
Q 94 :
Which mountain range separates Northern India from Southern India?
A.Aravallis
B.Vindhyas
C.Eastern Ghats
D.Himalayas
Q 95 :
The Deccan Plateau is bordered by which two mountain ranges?
A.Himalayas and Western Ghats
B.Western Ghats and Eastern Ghats
C.Vindhyas and Satpuras
D.Aravallis and Satpuras
Q 96 :
What astronomical discovery was announced by astronomers in March 2026?
A.New planet in solar system
B.Discovery related to 1,900 light-years away (specific object)
C.Black hole merger
D.Exoplanet with life signs
Q 97 :
On what date in March 2026 did Prime Minister Narendra Modi become Indiaβs longest-serving head of government?
A.15 March
B.20 March
C.22 March
D.25 March
Q 98 :
What major infrastructure project was inaugurated by PM Narendra Modi on 28 March 2026?
A.Mumbai Trans Harbour Link
B.Atal Tunnel
C.Noida International Airport
D.Chenab Bridge
Q 99 :
What was the status of India-US trade relations highlighted in early 2026 leading into March developments?
A.Increased tariffs
B.Breakthrough deal reducing US tariffs on Indian goods to 18%
C.Complete trade halt
D.New sanctions
Q 100 :
What was the fiscal deficit target set for FY 2026-27 in the Union Budget 2026-27 presented by FM Nirmala Sitharaman?
A.4.0% of GDP
B.5.0% of GDP
C.4.5% of GDP
D.4.3% of GDP
Q 101 :
What was the total expenditure estimated in the Union Budget 2026-27?
A.βΉ49.6 lakh crore
B.βΉ53.5 lakh crore
C.βΉ55 lakh crore
D.βΉ60 lakh crore
Q 102 :
What defence-related development was noted in the context of Indiaβs preparedness amid global tensions in March 2026?
A.Reduction in capex
B.Withdrawal from international exercises
C.Complete self-reliance achieved
D.Surge in defence budget and modernisation push
Q 103 :
What significant diplomatic agreement was announced between India and Canada in early March 2026?
A.Defence pact
B.Free Trade Agreement
C.Strengthened economic partnership
D.Climate alliance
Q 104 :
Which airport or port received a critical LPG shipment (Pyxis Pioneer) in March 2026 amid West Asia tensions?
A.Mundra Port
B.Paradip Port
C.New Mangalore Port
D.Kandla Port
Q 105 :
What major international sporting hosting rights did India receive in March 2026?
A.2028 World Athletics Indoor Championships
B.2028 Olympics
C.2030 Asian Games
D.2027 Cricket World Cup
Arithmetic and Mental Ability
Q 106 :
How many such pairs of letters are there in the word ‘CLEANLINESS’ each of the which has as many letters between them in the word as they have in the English alphabet, in the same sequence?
A.Two
B.Three
C.Five
D.Four
E.None of these
Q 107 :
Team A has scored more goals than Team B
Team C has scored fewer goals than Team B
Team A has scored fewer goals than Team C .
If the first two statements are true, the third statement is
A.True
B.False
C.Uncertain
D.None
Q 108 :
If it is possible to make only one meaningful word with the second, the third, the sixth and the eight letters of the word FRAGMENT using each only once, which of the following will be the third letter of that word ? If no such word can be formed, give ‘X’ as the answer and if more than one such word can be formed, give ‘Y’ as the answer.
A.A
B.E
C.T
D.X
E.Y
Q 109 :
How many such letters are there in the word ORIENTAL each of which is as far away from the beginning of the word as when they are arranged alphabetically?
A.None
B.One
C.Two
D.Three
E.More than three
Q 110 :
How many such pairs of letters in the word CREDIT each of which has as many letters between them in the word as in the English alphabet?
A.None
B.One
C.Two
D.Three
E.More than three
Q 111 :
How many meaningful words can be made from the letters ‘LMEA’ using each letter only once in each word?
A.None
B.One
C.Two
D.Three
E.More than three
Q 112 :
If it is possible to make only one meaningful word with the first, the second, the seventh and the eighth letters of the word TEMPORAL, which of the following will be the first letter of that word? If more than one such word can be made, give ‘Y’ as the answer and if no such word can be made, give ‘X’ as the answer.
A.T
B.L
C.E
D.Y
E.X
Q 113 :
If the letters of the word HANDOVER are arranged alphabetically from left to right how many letters will remain at the same position?
A.None
B.One
C.Two
D.Three
E.More than three
Q 114 :
Which letter in this alphabet is the eighth letter to the right of the letter and which is tenth letter to the left of the last but one letter of the alphabet ?
A.X
B.W
C.I
D.H
Q 115 :
If the third alphabet of each of the words is changed to the next alphabet in the English alphabetical series, which of the following will form a meaningful English word?
A.SUM
B.BIG
C.Both BIG and THE
D.FOR
E.Both FOR and BIG
Q 116 :
If the given words are arranged in the order as they would appear in a dictionary from left to right, which of the following will be second from the right ?
A.AND
B.FOR
C.THE
D.BIG
E.SUM
Q 117 :
If second alphabet in each of the words is changed to next alphabet in the English alphabetical order, how many words having two vowels (same or different vowels) will be formed ?
A.None
B.One
C.Two
D.Three
E.Four
Q 118 :
How many letters are there in the English alphabetical series between the second letter of the word which is second from the right and the second letter of the word which is second from the left of the given words?
A.Two
B.Five
C.Six
D.Nine
E.Three
Q 119 :
The cash difference between the selling prices of an article at a profit of 4% and 6% is Rs. 3. The ratio of the two selling prices is:__________ ?
A.51:52
B.52:53
C.51:53
D.52:55
Q 120 :
Which of the following numbers is irrational ?
A.√49
B.0.125
C.√2
D.22/7
Q 121 :
356 x 936 – 356 x 836 = ?
A.35600
B.34500
C.9630
D.93600
Q 122 :
Arrange in descending order: 5/8, 7/10, 3/4
A.3/4 > 7/10 > 5/8
B.7/10 > 3/4 > 5/8
C.3/4 > 5/8 > 7/10
D.5/8 > 7/10 > 3/4
Q 123 :
What is (3^{4} times 9^{2}) ?
A.36
B.38
C.310
D.96
Q 124 :
If 34X-2 = 729, then find the value of X.
A.4
B.3
C.2
D.5
Q 125 :
Convert 0.6 into fraction ?
A.3/5
B.2/3
C.4/5
Q 126 :
Chemistry but not in Physics.
A.318
B.198
C.213
D.206
Q 127 :
Physics or Maths but not in Chemistry.
A.558
B.718
C.628
D.None of these
Q 128 :
What is the percentage of persons who read all the three papers ?
A.20%
B.25%
C.30%
D.40%
Q 129 :
What is the percentage of persons who read only two papers?
A.19%
B.31%
C.44%
D.None of these
Q 130 :
What is the percentage of persons who read only one paper ?
A.38%
B.48%
C.51%
D.None of these
Aptitude for Legal Studies
Q 131 :
Which section of the Criminal Procedure Code (CrPC) deals with the definition of arrest?
A.Section 41
B.Section 46
C.Section 49
D.Section 51
Q 132 :
In CrPC, what does FIR stand for?
A.First Information Report
B.Final Investigation Record
C.Forensic Information Registry
D.Formal Inquiry Request
Q 133 :
What is the maximum period a person can be detained in police custody without being produced before a magistrate, as per CrPC?
A.12 hours
B.24 hours
C.48 hours
D.72 hours
Q 134 :
Under CrPC, which section deals with the conditions for the grant of bail?
A.Section 41
B.Section 437
C.Section 173
D.Section 306
Q 135 :
What is the primary purpose of a charge sheet in criminal proceedings?
A.To arrest the accused
B.To initiate investigation
C.To record the evidence
D.To accuse the person of an offense
Q 136 :
In CrPC, what is the term for the examination of a witness by the party producing him?
A.Cross-examination
B.Re-examination
C.Direct examination
D.Preliminary examination
Q 137 :
What is the maximum duration allowed for the investigation of an offense under Section 173 of CrPC?
A.30 days
B.45 days
C.60 days
D.90 days
Q 138 :
In CrPC, what is the term for the formal commencement of a trial in a court?
A.Summons
B.Warrant
C.Charge
D.Complaint
Q 139 :
Under CrPC, which section deals with the procedure for the examination of an accused by a medical practitioner?
A.Section 160
B.Section 164
C.Section 174
D.Section 175
Q 140 :
What is the term for the written statement of the substance of the evidence given by a witness in a judicial proceeding?
A.Affidavit
B.Deposition
C.Statement
D.Report
Q 141 :
Which Act gave separate electorate rights to Muslims in India ?
A.The Indian Councils Act, 1909
B.The Government of India Act, 1915
C.The Government of India Act, 1919
D.The Government of India Act, 1935
Q 142 :
Which one of the following made the Indian Legislature bicameral ?
A.The Indian Councils Act, 1909
B.Government of India Act, 1919
C.Government of India Act, 1935
D.Indian Independence Act, 1947
Q 143 :
'Diarchy' was established in India by which of the following ?
A.The Indian Councils Act, 1909
B.The Government of India Act, 1935
C.The Government of India Act, 1919
D.None of the above
Q 144 :
Which one of the following aimed at providing a federal structure for India ?
A.Indian Councils Act, 1909
B.Government of India Act, 1919
C.Government of India Act, 1935
D.Indian Independence Act, 1947
Q 145 :
As a guardian of the government of India Act, 1935 a Court was constituted which was called.
A.Privy Council
B.Supreme Court
C.High Court
D.Federal Court
Q 146 :
Under the Government of India Act 1935, the Federal court had -
A.Original jurisdiction only
B.Appellate jurisdiction only
C.Advisory jurisdiction only
D.Original, appellate and advisory jurisdiction
Q 147 :
Under the Government of India's Act 1935, how many Governors and Chief Commissioners provinces constituted in British India ?
A.14 and 7
B.11 and 7
C.15 and 9
D.None of the above
Q 148 :
The Mountbaten plan led to the enactment of :
A.Government of India Act, 1919
B.Government of India Act, 1935
C.The Indian Independence Act, 1947
D.None of the above
Q 149 :
The plan of Lord Mountbatten was excepted by the congress and the muslim league. The British Parliament enacted the Indian Independence act, 1947 which got Royal assistant on -
A.3 June, 1947
B.4 July, 1947
C.15 July, 1947
D.18 July, 1947
Q 150 :
Which one of the following relates to transfer of power to the Indians and partition of the country ?
A.Simon Commission
B.Cripps Mission
C.Cabinet Mission Plan
D.The Mountbatten plan
Q 151 :
The concept of 'trusts' originated in"
A.France
B.Germany
C.England
D.Rome
Q 152 :
Who gave the following comment? "Trust is the very centre and kernel of equity"
A.Bacon
B.Story
C.Snell
D.Hanbury
Q 153 :
The term ces-tui que trust was sued by -
A.Queen's Court
B.High Court
C.Court of Equity
D.None of the above
Q 154 :
'Breach of Trust' has been defined under which Section of the Indian Trust act, 1882 ?
A.Section 2
B.Section 3
C.Section 6
D.Section 10
Q 155 :
Under which section of the Trust Act, 1882 the definition of the breach of trust is provided ?
A.1(d)
B.2
C.3
D.5
Q 156 :
'A' bequests certain property to 'B' having the fullest confidence that he will dispose of it for the benefit of 'C'. this creates :
A.Partnership
B.Company
C.Trust
D.None of the above
Q 157 :
A trust created by the will of the testator may be revoked by him pleasure
A.by express words
B.by acts which lead to the inference that be intended to revoke it
C.by subsequent will
D.in case of person governed by the Hindu Marriage Act by the marriage of the testator
Q 158 :
Which one of the following is not necessary for the creation of trust ?
A.Author of trust
B.Trustee
C.Legal representative
D.Beneficiary
Q 159 :
The person not necessary for the creation of trust is
A.the author of the trust
B.trustee
C.legal representative
D.beneficiary
Q 160 :
Which of the following persons is not necessary for creation of trust ?
A.Beneficiary
B.Trustee
C.Author of trust
D.Legal representative
Q 161 :
The Indian Contract Act, 1872 became operative from the date of
A.25th April 1872
B.25th May 1872
C.1st September, 1872
D.18th September, 1872
Q 162 :
The India Contract Act, 1872 extends to
A.The whole of India
B.The whole of India except the state of Jammu & Kashmir
C.The whole of India except the state of Jammu & Kashmir, Nagaland and Sikkim
D.None of the above
Q 163 :
The Interpretation clause of the Indian Contract Act, 1872 has been provided in
A.Section 1
B.Section 2
C.Section 3
D.Under none of the above
Q 164 :
'Offer' or 'Proposal' is defined in Indian Contract Act in -
A.Section 2(a)
B.Section 2(b)
C.Section 2(d)
D.Section 2(e)
Q 165 :
A and B are friends. A told to B to show him a new movie in a posh theature, upon which A promised to offer him lunch in a 5 star hotel. But A gave lunch to B in a road side dhaba, Decide A's liability using codes given below -
A.A is liable because there was intention to create legal relation between A and B
B.A is not liable because there was no intention to create legal relation between A and B
C.B was mistaken
D.A was mistaken
Q 166 :
X invites his friend Y on dinner but later on declined to arrange it on specified day .
A.X is liable for breach of contract
B.X is liable, it Y goes to the house of X and returns without dinner
C.X is liable for breach of contract, if Y gets dinner in hotel
D.X is not liable for breach of contract
Q 167 :
A sent his servant B to trace his lost newphew. When the servant had left 'A' announced a reward of Rs. 501/- to any one who traces the boy. B found the boy and brought him home. Then he came to know about the reward. Under Indian Contract Act, can be claim the reward ?
A.Yes, because offer is open for all
B.Yes, after knowing the offer he could accept it
C.No, because he did not know about the offer when he found the missing boy
D.No, because he is the servant of A
Q 168 :
A gives an offer to give Rs. 1,000 to whoever finds his lost dog. This is -
A.a specific offer
B.a general offer
C.not certain
D.an amount to acceptance
Q 169 :
Under Indian Contract Act, goods displayed in a shop window with a prize label will amount to -
A.An offer
B.An acceptance
C.An invitation in offer
D.Counter offer
Q 170 :
Who said "An offer need not be made to an ascertained person, but no contract can arise until it has been accepted by an ascertained person" ?
A.Lord Atkin
B.Lord Goddard
C.Chashre and Fitfoot
D.Anson
Q 171 :
"An offer need not be made to all the world which is to ripen into a contract with anybody who comes forward and performs the condition. It is an offer to become liable to anyone who, before it is retracted, performs the conditions, and although the offer is made to the world, the contract is made with that limited portion of the public who come forward and perform the condition on the faith of the advertisement".
Above statement is attributed to -
A.Bowen L.J. in Weeks v. Tybald
B.Bowen L.J. in Carlill v. Carbolic Smoke Ball Co
C.Bowen L.J. in Lalman Shukla v. Gauri Dutt
D.Bowen L.J. in Malraju Lakshmi Venhayamma v. Venkata Narasimha Appa Rao
Q 172 :
In case of general offer, there is no need to communicate the acceptance if not required by the proposer. This has been held in
A.Carlill v. Carbolic Smoke Ball Co.
B.Bhagwandas v. Girdharilal
C.Lalman Shukla v. Gauri Dutt
D.Ramji Dayawala and Sons v. Investment Import
Q 173 :
Which one of the following falls into the category of offer ?
A.Announcement of reward to the public
B.An advertisement for a concert
C.Display of goods by a shopkeeper in his window with prices marked on them
D.Advertisement in newspaper regarding as sale
Q 174 :
A counter offer is :
A.an invitation to offer
B.an acceptance to offer
C.an rejection of the offer
D.an conditional acceptance
Q 175 :
Which of the following statements is correct ?
A.Third party can always sue for breach of contract
B.Wegering agreements are illegal
C.When consent in not free, agreement will alwsys be voidable
D.Catalogue is an invitation to offer
Q 176 :
Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the code given below :
List - I List - II
a. A Railways Time Table 1. Is invitation to offer
b. Public Notification of tender 2. Is a general offer
c. Picking up an article from shelves and putting it in his basket in a ‘Self-service Mall’ 3. Is acceptance of an offer
d. 'A' says to 'B' that if 'A's offer is not accepted, 'B' should say 'No' immediately 'B' keeps silent 4. It is not acceptance of the offer
Code
A. A B C D
2 1 4 3
B.1 2 3 4
C.4 2 1 3
D.3 4 2 1
Q 177 :
The legal principle, which was laid down in the case of Harvey vs. Facey, was firstly followed by the Supreme Court of India in which of the following cases ?
A.Badri Prasad vs. State of M.P
B.Byomkesh Banerjee vs. Nani Gopal Banik
C.D.I. McPherson vs. M.N. Appanna
D.Carlill vs. Carbolic Smoke Ball Co.
Q 178 :
The principle of privity of contract was held to be not applicable to an action for tort in :
A.Winterbottom v. Wright
B.Donoghue v. Stevenson
C.Grant v. Australian Kniting Mills Ltd.
D.Ashby v. White
Q 179 :
Which one is the famous case related with the general offer ?
A.Lalman Shukla v. Gauri Dutt
B.Mohori Bibee v. Dharmodas Ghose
C.Carlill v. Carbolic Smoke Ball Co.
D.MacPherson v. Appanna
Q 180 :
Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the code given below the lists :
List - I List - II
a. Carlill vs. Carbolic Smoke Ball Co. 1. Offers at large
b. Fisher vs. Bell 2. Invitation to treat
c. Tinn vs. Hoffman & Co. 3. Quotation of price
d. Harvey vs. Facey 4. Cross offers
Code
A.A B C D
1 2 4 3
B.1 2 3 4
C.2 1 4 3
D.4 3 2 1
Q 181 :
Which of the following is a source of International Law?
A.Customary Law
B.Judicial decisions
C.Treaties and conventions
D.All of the above
Q 182 :
The principle of βPacta Sunt Servandaβ refers to:
A.Treaties must be signed in good faith
B.Treaties must be respected and performed by parties in good faith
C.Treaties must be publicized
D.Treaties are subject to national laws
Q 183 :
Which international body has the primary responsibility for promoting international peace and security?
A.The United Nations
B.The World Trade Organization
C.The International Court of Justice
D.The European Union
Q 184 :
Which article of the United Nations Charter deals with the prohibition of the use of force in international relations?
A.Article 1
B.Article 2(4)
C.Article 12
D.Article 51
Q 185 :
The International Court of Justice (ICJ) is primarily concerned with:
A.Disputes between states
B.International criminal offenses
C.Human rights violations
D.Trade disputes between countries
Q 186 :
What does the principle of "Non-Intervention" in International Law imply?
A.States have a right to intervene in another stateβs domestic affairs
B.States cannot interfere in the internal matters of other sovereign states
C.States can intervene in cases of human rights abuses
D.States can intervene in cases of natural disasters
Q 187 :
What is the primary function of International Humanitarian Law (IHL)?
A.To regulate the relationship between states
B.To establish the legal framework for peacekeeping operations
C.To protect persons who are not taking part in hostilities during armed conflicts
D.To regulate international trade and commerce
Q 188 :
What does the term "jus cogens" in international law refer to?
A.Non-binding agreements between states
B.Legal principles that are universally accepted and cannot be violated
C.Laws that are specific to each state
D.Treaties that are enforceable in all jurisdictions
Q 189 :
The International Criminal Court (ICC) has jurisdiction over:
A.States involved in economic crimes
B.Individuals accused of committing international crimes like genocide, war crimes, and crimes against humanity
C.Countries accused of violating trade laws
D.None of the above
Q 190 :
The Vienna Convention on the Law of Treaties (1969) primarily governs:
A.The establishment of international courts
B.The drafting and enforcement of treaties between states
C.Human rights violations
D.The prohibition of nuclear weapons
Q 191 :
Which international document was adopted to protect the rights of refugees?
A.Universal Declaration of Human Rights
B.Geneva Conventions
C.Refugee Convention (1951)
D.International Covenant on Civil and Political Rights
Q 192 :
The concept of "territorial integrity" is most closely associated with which area of international law?
A.Human rights law
B.International environmental law
C.International conflict and war law
D.International law concerning state sovereignty
Q 193 :
The principle of "Uti Possidetis" refers to:
A.The right of states to change borders through treaties
B.The doctrine that boundaries of newly formed states follow the administrative boundaries of prior colonies
C.The prohibition of changing borders through military force
D.The right of states to intervene in neighboring countries' internal affairs
Q 194 :
Which of the following is a key feature of customary international law?
A.It is codified in written treaties
B.It is based on consistent practice by states, accepted as law
C.It is only applicable to developed countries
D.It is enforced only by the International Court of Justice
Q 195 :
Which principle is central to the concept of "Sovereign Equality" in international law?
A.All states have equal rights and duties under international law
B.Larger states have more rights than smaller ones
C.States can intervene in each other's internal affairs for peacekeeping
D.Only democratic states have equal rights in international law
Q 196 :
The International Labour Organization (ILO) is responsible for:
A.Regulating international trade agreements
B.Ensuring the protection of workers' rights globally
C.Providing humanitarian aid to conflict zones
D.Enforcing environmental protection laws
Q 197 :
The United Nations Security Council (UNSC) is primarily responsible for:
A.Overseeing international trade agreements
B.Promoting environmental sustainability
C.Maintaining international peace and security
D.Protecting human rights worldwide
Q 198 :
What does the term "Diplomatic Immunity" mean in international law?
A.Diplomats are free from the jurisdiction of the host countryβs laws in certain matters
B.Diplomats are immune from prosecution for war crimes
C.Diplomats are not allowed to engage in trade activities
D.Diplomats cannot be removed from office by the sending country
Q 199 :
Which international convention primarily governs the law of the sea?
A.The Geneva Conventions
B.The Hague Convention
C.The United Nations Convention on the Law of the Sea (UNCLOS)
D.The Paris Agreement
Q 200 :
The principle of "Aut Dedere Aut Judicare" refers to:
A.States must either extradite or prosecute individuals accused of serious international crimes
B.States must provide asylum to refugees
C.States must recognize foreign judgments in civil matters