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Latest KLEE LLB Exam Exam Question (Objective Questions), MCQ in English
Subjects : General English, General Knowledge, Arithmetic and Mental Ability, Aptitude for Legal Studies
Question Bank KLEE LLB (5 years) Exam - English
General English
Q 1 :
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A.He was in the temper
B.and refused
C.discuss the matter again
D.No error
Q 2 :
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A.A flower makes no garland
B.so we must do a thing together
C.in a unit for a good result
D.No error
Q 3 :
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A.My friend is a software engineer
B.and his wife is doctor
C.so they don’t have enough time for each other
D.No error
Q 4 :
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A.I don’t have much time that
B.I hear you in detail with verbosity
C.tell everything in nutshell
D.No error
Q 5 :
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A.The atmosphere is changing
B.so I have severe pain in my body
C.if you have any painkiller, please give it to me
D.No error
Q 6 :
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A.No one is without fault
B.because no one is God
C.and only God is fault free
D.No error
Q 7 :
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A.Your
B.clock is
C.one hour fast
D.No error
Q 8 :
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A.The lose of jobs
B.is regarded by some as an necessary evil
C.in the fight against infliation
D.No error
Q 9 :
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A.In science, the credit goes to a man
B.who convinces the world
C.not to the man to whom the idea first occurs
D.No error
Q 10 :
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A.It is only after
B.the match is over
C.that people realize how exciting it is
D.No error
Q 11 :
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A.Off the two
B.sisters, she
C.is better
D.No error
Q 12 :
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A.A interesting book
B.‘A Tale of two cities’
C.was written by Alexander Dumas
D.No error
Q 13 :
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A.I shall never
B.forget a good
C.deed you did to me, when I was in crisis
D.No error
Q 14 :
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A.Wisdom of Vikramaditya
B.solved many riddles
C.that people brought to him for solution
D.No error
Q 15 :
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A.News you broke to his wife
B.made her nervous
C.and she broke down
D.No error
Q 16 :
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A.I have a work
B.to do and
C.so I will reach late
D.No error
Q 17 :
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A.I saw portion
B.of the manuscript
C.on birds
D.No error
Q 18 :
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A.Talent without experience is waste
B.so one must attain some practical knowledge and
C.it is only practical knowledge through which one can be an expert
D.No error
Q 19 :
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A.The Geeta, the Bible and the Quran all show us
B.the true path of humanity
C.Ramayana also can be included in this group
D.No error
Q 20 :
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A.Gandhiji was born on 2nd October 1869
B.He devoted two thirds of his life
C.for Indian freedom movement
D.No error
Q 21 :
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A.The students who want to speak in English
B.must read Hindu newspaper
C.in their initial stage
D.No error
Q 22 :
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A.Garib rath is a facility by railway ministry
B.for the poor to enjoy express train and facilities
C.but is mostly utilized by the upper class
D.No error
Q 23 :
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A.It is
B.a quarter to ten
C.by my watch
D.No error
Q 24 :
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A.Mr. Thakur lived
B.in the three-hundred year
C.old house
D.in Patna
Q 25 :
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A.The uncle of mine who is farmer
B.gave me a piece of useful advice
C.when I went to see him three weeks ago
D.No error
Q 26 :
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A.My neighbor along with his children
B.is going tonight to see a Taj Mahal
C.At Agra
D.No error
Q 27 :
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A.Kabir an Rahim are great poets
B.but the former is
C.greater than latter
D.No error
Q 28 :
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A.He has abandoned
B.the criminal activities
C.after returning from jail
D.No error
Q 29 :
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A.We must have
B.sympathy for
C.needy and the poor
D.No error
Q 30 :
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A.The Chinese is a very
B.difficult language to understand for those
C.who have never been to China
D.No error
Q 31 :
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A.The old women placed
B.kettle on fire
C.come back to the bedroom
D.No error
Q 32 :
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A.The singing is both
B.my vocation and avocation because it is a
C.source of joy and bread to me
D.No error
Q 33 :
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A.Snake we saw was
B.very deadly thought
C.it left the kitchen quietly
D.No error
Q 34 :
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A.Being M.A. only he
B.could not be appointed
C.to the post of a lecturer
D.No error
Q 35 :
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A.Our first trip was the most interesting one
B.but our second one
C.was even more interesting
D.No error
Q 36 :
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A.Mahatma Gandhi did not solve
B.all the problems of future
C.but he did solve problems of
D.No error
Q 37 :
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A.Having finished his breakfast
B.he started working on the problem
C.that had been awaiting disposal for the long time
D.No error
Q 38 :
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A.The new railway line will
B.greatly improve transport and communication
C.in eastern part of the country
D.No error
Q 39 :
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A.It being rainy day most of
B.the people out on the street
C.were carrying umbrellas
D.No error
Q 40 :
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A.More you
B.think of it
C.the worse it becomes
D.No error
Q 41 :
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A.I like to travel
B.by the air as
C.I am a very busy person
D.No error
Q 42 :
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A.This is
B.most important
C.lesson which we will have to study very carefully
D.No error
Q 43 :
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A.Hasan plays
B.both cricket and billiards
C.at the national level
D.No error
Q 44 :
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A.The USA has a strong army
B.that is capable of fighting
C.against any army of the world
D.No error
Q 45 :
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A.A man cannot be judged
B.by his external appearance
C.but by internal beauty
D.No error
Q 46 :
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A.I met the gentleman
B.today morning on my way
C.to the market
D.No error
Q 47 :
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A.It seems as the Sun
B.is coming much closer because
C.earth is greeting hotter
D.No error
Q 48 :
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A.I know student
B.who has stolen my book
C.the boy replied to his mother on her asking about the book
D.No error
Q 49 :
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A.Equator
B.divides the Earth
C.into two hemispheres
D.No error
Q 50 :
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A.In world of ours
B.one has to compete
C.for almost everything
D.No error
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General English
Q 51 :
Spot the error part of the following sentences.
A.She
B.went
C.straightly
D.home
E.No error
Q 52 :
Spot the error part of the following sentences.
A.She does not hardly
B.know what
C.happened yesterday
D.No error
Q 53 :
Spot the error part of the following sentences.
A.It was most
B.unfortunate that he
C.died at the
D.early age of 41
E.No error
Q 54 :
Spot the error part of the following sentences.
A.In the last week
B.I told him to come
C.in time but he still comes late everyday
D.No error
Q 55 :
Spot the error part of the following sentences.
A.The real important thing
B.of our life is our livelihood
C.which discriminates us from animals
D.No error
Q 56 :
Spot the error part of the following sentences.
A.She is too much beautiful
B.so most of the boys run after her and
C.want to influence her
D.No error
Q 57 :
Spot the error part of the following sentences.
A.This hardly won freedom
B.should not be lost
C.so soon
D.No error
Q 58 :
Spot the error part of the following sentences.
A.He will be
B.quite sorry
C.to know that
D.No error
Q 59 :
Spot the error part of the following sentences.
A.The water of
B.this tank
C.is too cold
D.No error
Q 60 :
Spot the error part of the following sentences.
A.He
B.ran
C.very fastly
D.No error
General Knowledge
Q 61 :
Yojna a weekly journal
A.Ministry of Finance
B.Ministry of Information and Broadcastin
C.Ministry of Rural Development
D.Planning Commission
Q 62 :
Kurukshetra a journal on rural development is published by
A.Ministry of Finance
B.Ministry of Information and Broadcastin
C.Ministry of Rural Development
D.Planning Commission
Q 63 :
Devaluation of a currency means
A.Fixing the value of the currency in conjuction with the movement in the value of a basket of predetermined currencies
B.Reduction in the value of a currency vis-à-vis major internationally traded currencies
C.Fixing the value of currency in multilateral consultaion with the IMF the World Bank and major trading partners
D.Permitting the currency to seek its worth in the international market
Q 64 :
In India rural incomes are generally lower than the urban incomes, which of the following reasons account for this
1. a large number of farmers are illiterate and know little about scientific agriculture
2. prices of primary products are lower than those of manufactured products
3. Investments in agriculture has been low when compared to investment in industry
A.1 and 3
B.2 and 3
C.1 and 2
D.1,2 and 3
Q 65 :
Which of the following programmes aims at the promotion of savings among rural women
A.Rashtriya Mahila Kosh
B.Indira Mahila Yojna
C.Jawahar Rozgar Yojna
D.Mahila Samridhi Yojna
Q 66 :
What is Net National Product
A.the money value of final goods and services produced annually in the economy
B.the money value of annual service generation in the economy
C.the money value of tangible goods produced annually in the economy
D.The money value of tangible goods available in the economy
Q 67 :
National income is the
A.net national product at market price
B.net national product at factor cost
C.net domestic product at market price
D.net domestic product at factor cost
Q 68 :
Chelliah Committee of 1992 deals with the overhauling of our
A.financial system
B.tax system
C.patents and copyrights
D.Public sector undertakings
Q 69 :
Early inhabitants of Kerala belonged to the last phase of .......
A.Middle Stone Age
B.Early Stone Age
C.Iron Age
D.Copper Age
Q 70 :
The first recorded history of Kerala seems inside the inscriptions of ....
A.Bindusara
B.Ashoka
C.Pulkesin
D.Copper Age
Q 71 :
Which among the following is correct ?
A.Ays --- North Kerela
B.Cheras ---- central Kerela
C.Ezhimalas ----South Kerela
D.All of these
Q 72 :
Kannur and wayanad districts were ruled by .......
A.Ezhimalas
B.B. Ays
C.Cheras
D.None of these
Q 73 :
Kannanar was a poet laureate of .....
A.utiyamcheralatam
B.NedumCheralatam
C.Kuttuvam
D.None of these
Q 74 :
Which among the following was a famous harbour town of Cheras ?
A.Vanchi
B.Tyndis
C.Muziris
D.Both B and C
Q 75 :
Who Founded the 'Kollam Era' of Kerala ?
A.Rajasekhara Varman
B.Sthanu RaviVarman
C.Aditya-I
D.KulasekharaAlvar
Q 76 :
Vasco-da-Gama arrived Calicut in.........
A.1502
B.1498
C.1458
D.1707
Q 77 :
In which year Mahatma Gandhi Visited Vaikom ?
A.1928
B.1932
C.1924
D.1918
Q 78 :
Attingal Rebellion was broke out in ..........
A.1721
B.1728
C.1815
D.1803
Q 79 :
When did Vaikom Satyagraha took place in Kerela?
A.1923
B.1924
C.1925
D.1926
Q 80 :
Who among the following is the only person from Kerela to become President of Indian National Congress?
A.C. Sankaran Nair
B.G.P.Pillao
C.K. Madhavan Nair
D.Gopala
Q 81 :
During which year princely states of Travancore and Cochin merged?
A.1951
B.1950
C.1949
D.1960
Q 82 :
Which was the main centre of Salt Satyagraha in Kerala?
A.Malabar
B.Cochin
C.Travancore
D.None of these
Q 83 :
When the State of Kerala came into existence?
A.1 November
B.1 November
C.11 November
D.1 December
Q 84 :
When did Malabar Mutiny took place in Kerala?
A.1921
B.1922
C.1931
D.1932
Q 85 :
In which year the First All Kerala Political Conference Was held?
A.1920
B.1921
C.1922
D.1923
Q 86 :
Who was the editor of ‘Madras Standard ‘ duringunindependent India inKerala?
A.G.P. Pillai
B.C. SankaranNir
C.K. Madhvan
D.GopalaMenon
Q 87 :
Name the leader from Kerala who became the General Secretary of Indian National Congress twice .
A.C. Sankaran Nair
B.K. Madhavan Nair
C.VeluthampyDalava
D.G. P. Pillai
Q 88 :
MoppilasRevolt took place in which state during British Period?
A.Kerala
B.Tamil Nadu
C.Karnataka
D.Andhra Pradesh
Q 89 :
"Who said, 'India was a parrot unto itself'?
A.Malik Muhammad Joyce
B.Raskhan
C.Rich Khusrow
D.Rich Hasan
Q 90 :
What was the real name of Amir Khusro?
A.Muhammad Hasan
B.Muhammad Hussain
C.Muhammad Khusrow
D.Muhammad Mine
Q 91 :
When was the Constituent Assembly of India formed?
A.1946
B.1947
C.1948
D.1950
Q 92 :
Who was the Chairman of the Drafting Committee of the Indian Constitution?
A.Dr. Rajendra Prasad
B.Dr. B.R. Ambedkar
C.Jawaharlal Nehru
D.Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel
Q 93 :
The idea of the Constituent Assembly was first put forward by:
A.Mahatma Gandhi
B.M.N. Roy
C.Jawaharlal Nehru
D.Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel
Q 94 :
Who is known as the "Father of the Indian Renaissance" ?
A.Raja Ram Mohan Roy
B.Swami Vivekananda
C.Rabindranath Tagore
D.Mahatma Gandhi
Q 95 :
Which classical dance form is associated with Tamil Nadu ?
A.Kathak
B.Kuchipudi
C.Bharatanatyam
D.Odissi
Q 96 :
What is the lithosphere composed of ?
A.Water and gases
B.Rocks and minerals
C.Living organisms
D.Air and gases
Q 97 :
The lithosphere includes :
A.Only the Earth's crust
B.The Earth's crust and upper mantle
C.Only the Earth's mantle
D.The Earth's crust, mantle, and core
Q 98 :
The process of soil formation is called :
A.Erosion
B.Weathering
C.Deposition
D.Lithification
Q 99 :
Which is the thinnest layer of the Earth ?
A.Crust
B.Mantle
C.Outer Core
D.Inner Core
Q 100 :
Which type of rocks are formed from magma ?
A.Sedimentary rocks
B.Metamorphic rocks
C.Igneous rocks
D.Fossil rocks
Q 101 :
What astronomical discovery was announced by astronomers in March 2026?
A.New planet in solar system
B.Discovery related to 1,900 light-years away (specific object)
C.Black hole merger
D.Exoplanet with life signs
Q 102 :
On what date in March 2026 did Prime Minister Narendra Modi become India’s longest-serving head of government?
A.15 March
B.20 March
C.22 March
D.25 March
Q 103 :
What major infrastructure project was inaugurated by PM Narendra Modi on 28 March 2026?
A.Mumbai Trans Harbour Link
B.Atal Tunnel
C.Noida International Airport
D.Chenab Bridge
Q 104 :
What was the status of India-US trade relations highlighted in early 2026 leading into March developments?
A.Increased tariffs
B.Breakthrough deal reducing US tariffs on Indian goods to 18%
C.Complete trade halt
D.New sanctions
Q 105 :
What was the fiscal deficit target set for FY 2026-27 in the Union Budget 2026-27 presented by FM Nirmala Sitharaman?
A.4.0% of GDP
B.5.0% of GDP
C.4.5% of GDP
D.4.3% of GDP
Arithmetic and Mental Ability
Q 106 :
How many such pairs of letters are there in the word ‘CLEANLINESS’ each of the which has as many letters between them in the word as they have in the English alphabet, in the same sequence?
A.Two
B.Three
C.Five
D.Four
E.None of these
Q 107 :
Team A has scored more goals than Team B
Team C has scored fewer goals than Team B
Team A has scored fewer goals than Team C .
If the first two statements are true, the third statement is
A.True
B.False
C.Uncertain
D.None
Q 108 :
If it is possible to make only one meaningful word with the second, the third, the sixth and the eight letters of the word FRAGMENT using each only once, which of the following will be the third letter of that word ? If no such word can be formed, give ‘X’ as the answer and if more than one such word can be formed, give ‘Y’ as the answer.
A.A
B.E
C.T
D.X
E.Y
Q 109 :
How many such letters are there in the word ORIENTAL each of which is as far away from the beginning of the word as when they are arranged alphabetically?
A.None
B.One
C.Two
D.Three
E.More than three
Q 110 :
How many such pairs of letters in the word CREDIT each of which has as many letters between them in the word as in the English alphabet?
A.None
B.One
C.Two
D.Three
E.More than three
Q 111 :
How many meaningful words can be made from the letters ‘LMEA’ using each letter only once in each word?
A.None
B.One
C.Two
D.Three
E.More than three
Q 112 :
If it is possible to make only one meaningful word with the first, the second, the seventh and the eighth letters of the word TEMPORAL, which of the following will be the first letter of that word? If more than one such word can be made, give ‘Y’ as the answer and if no such word can be made, give ‘X’ as the answer.
A.T
B.L
C.E
D.Y
E.X
Q 113 :
If the letters of the word HANDOVER are arranged alphabetically from left to right how many letters will remain at the same position?
A.None
B.One
C.Two
D.Three
E.More than three
Q 114 :
How many such pairs of letters are there in the word EXCURSION, each of which has as many letters between them in the word as they have in the English alphabet?
A.None
B.One
C.Two
D.Three
E.More than three
Q 115 :
If it is possible to make only one meaningful word with the first, the second, the third, the sixth and the eighth letters of the word DEVIATION first letter of that word is your answer? If more than one such word can be made formed your answer is ‘A’ and if no such word can be formed your answer is ‘B’.
A.V
B.T
C.E
D.A
E.B
Q 116 :
If each alternate letter beginning with the first in the word WORKING is replaced by the next letter in the English alphabet and each of the remaining letters is replaced by the previous letter in the English alphabet, which of the following will be the fourth from the right and after the replacement ?
A.N
B.Q
C.J
D.M
E.None of these
Q 117 :
How many pairs of letters are there in the word ‘SHIFTED’ each of which has as many letters between its two letters as there are between in the English alphabet?
A.None
B.One
C.Two
D.Three
E.None of these
Q 118 :
Statement: Is common currency a necessary ingredient for Europe’s growth ?
Arguments :
I. Yes, A common currency will enable entire Europe to market itself as one .
II. No, Similar experiments by Latin America countries have not affected their economies .
A.The only argument I is strong
B.Only argument II is strong
C.Either I or II is strong
D.Neither I nor II is strong
Q 119 :
The cash difference between the selling prices of an article at a profit of 4% and 6% is Rs. 3. The ratio of the two selling prices is:__________ ?
A.51:52
B.52:53
C.51:53
D.52:55
Q 120 :
Which of the following numbers is irrational ?
A.√49
B.0.125
C.√2
D.22/7
Q 121 :
356 x 936 – 356 x 836 = ?
A.35600
B.34500
C.9630
D.93600
Q 122 :
Arrange in descending order: 5/8, 7/10, 3/4
A.3/4 > 7/10 > 5/8
B.7/10 > 3/4 > 5/8
C.3/4 > 5/8 > 7/10
D.5/8 > 7/10 > 3/4
Q 123 :
What is (3^{4} times 9^{2}) ?
A.36
B.38
C.310
D.96
Q 124 :
If 34X-2 = 729, then find the value of X.
A.4
B.3
C.2
D.5
Q 125 :
Convert 0.6 into fraction ?
A.3/5
B.2/3
C.4/5
Q 126 :
The no. plate of a bus had peculiarity. The bus number was a perfect square. It was also a perfect square when the plate numbers were reversed. The bus company had only five hundred buses numbered from 1 to 500. What was the number ?
A.169
B.36
C.196
D.Can not say
Q 127 :
If a and b are positive integers, such that ab = 125, then (a-b)a+b-4 = ?
A.16
B.25
C.28
D.30
Q 128 :
If x*y = x2 + y2 – xy, then value of 9*11 is
A.93
B.103
C.60.5
D.121
Q 129 :
Which is greater ?
A.15/16
B.17/18
C.Equal
D.Cannot compare
Q 130 :
If sum of two numbers is 42 and their product is 437, then find their difference.
A.3
B.4
C.5
D.7
Aptitude for Legal Studies
Q 131 :
Which section of the Criminal Procedure Code (CrPC) deals with the definition of arrest?
A.Section 41
B.Section 46
C.Section 49
D.Section 51
Q 132 :
In CrPC, what does FIR stand for?
A.First Information Report
B.Final Investigation Record
C.Forensic Information Registry
D.Formal Inquiry Request
Q 133 :
The word 'Tort' has been derived and has its origin in :
A.Freanc Language
B.Latin Language
C.Romon Language
D.None of the above
Q 134 :
The concept of 'trusts' originated in"
A.France
B.Germany
C.England
D.Rome
Q 135 :
Who gave the following comment? "Trust is the very centre and kernel of equity"
A.Bacon
B.Story
C.Snell
D.Hanbury
Q 136 :
A contract is defined as:
A.An agreement enforceable by law
B.A mutual understanding between parties
C.A promise without consideration
D.A legal obligation without agreement
Q 137 :
Which of the following is NOT an essential element of a valid contract?
A.Offer and acceptance
B.Free consent
C.Registration
D.Lawful consideration
Q 138 :
The Indian Contract Act, 1872 became operative from the date of
A.25th April 1872
B.25th May 1872
C.1st September, 1872
D.18th September, 1872
Q 139 :
Which of the following is a source of International Law?
A.Customary Law
B.Judicial decisions
C.Treaties and conventions
D.All of the above
Q 140 :
The principle of ‘Pacta Sunt Servanda’ refers to:
A.Treaties must be signed in good faith
B.Treaties must be respected and performed by parties in good faith
C.Treaties must be publicized
D.Treaties are subject to national laws
Q 141 :
Which international body has the primary responsibility for promoting international peace and security?
A.The United Nations
B.The World Trade Organization
C.The International Court of Justice
D.The European Union
Q 142 :
Which article of the United Nations Charter deals with the prohibition of the use of force in international relations?
A.Article 1
B.Article 2(4)
C.Article 12
D.Article 51
Q 143 :
The International Court of Justice (ICJ) is primarily concerned with:
A.Disputes between states
B.International criminal offenses
C.Human rights violations
D.Trade disputes between countries
Q 144 :
What does the principle of "Non-Intervention" in International Law imply?
A.States have a right to intervene in another state’s domestic affairs
B.States cannot interfere in the internal matters of other sovereign states
C.States can intervene in cases of human rights abuses
D.States can intervene in cases of natural disasters
Q 145 :
What is the primary function of International Humanitarian Law (IHL)?
A.To regulate the relationship between states
B.To establish the legal framework for peacekeeping operations
C.To protect persons who are not taking part in hostilities during armed conflicts
D.To regulate international trade and commerce
Q 146 :
What does the term "jus cogens" in international law refer to?
A.Non-binding agreements between states
B.Legal principles that are universally accepted and cannot be violated
C.Laws that are specific to each state
D.Treaties that are enforceable in all jurisdictions
Q 147 :
The International Criminal Court (ICC) has jurisdiction over:
A.States involved in economic crimes
B.Individuals accused of committing international crimes like genocide, war crimes, and crimes against humanity
C.Countries accused of violating trade laws
D.None of the above
Q 148 :
The Vienna Convention on the Law of Treaties (1969) primarily governs:
A.The establishment of international courts
B.The drafting and enforcement of treaties between states
C.Human rights violations
D.The prohibition of nuclear weapons
Q 149 :
Which international document was adopted to protect the rights of refugees?
A.Universal Declaration of Human Rights
B.Geneva Conventions
C.Refugee Convention (1951)
D.International Covenant on Civil and Political Rights
Q 150 :
The concept of "territorial integrity" is most closely associated with which area of international law?
A.Human rights law
B.International environmental law
C.International conflict and war law
D.International law concerning state sovereignty
Q 151 :
The principle of "Uti Possidetis" refers to:
A.The right of states to change borders through treaties
B.The doctrine that boundaries of newly formed states follow the administrative boundaries of prior colonies
C.The prohibition of changing borders through military force
D.The right of states to intervene in neighboring countries' internal affairs
Q 152 :
Which of the following is a key feature of customary international law?
A.It is codified in written treaties
B.It is based on consistent practice by states, accepted as law
C.It is only applicable to developed countries
D.It is enforced only by the International Court of Justice
Q 153 :
Which principle is central to the concept of "Sovereign Equality" in international law?
A.All states have equal rights and duties under international law
B.Larger states have more rights than smaller ones
C.States can intervene in each other's internal affairs for peacekeeping
D.Only democratic states have equal rights in international law
Q 154 :
The International Labour Organization (ILO) is responsible for:
A.Regulating international trade agreements
B.Ensuring the protection of workers' rights globally
C.Providing humanitarian aid to conflict zones
D.Enforcing environmental protection laws
Q 155 :
The United Nations Security Council (UNSC) is primarily responsible for:
A.Overseeing international trade agreements
B.Promoting environmental sustainability
C.Maintaining international peace and security
D.Protecting human rights worldwide
Q 156 :
What does the term "Diplomatic Immunity" mean in international law?
A.Diplomats are free from the jurisdiction of the host country’s laws in certain matters
B.Diplomats are immune from prosecution for war crimes
C.Diplomats are not allowed to engage in trade activities
D.Diplomats cannot be removed from office by the sending country
Q 157 :
Which international convention primarily governs the law of the sea?
A.The Geneva Conventions
B.The Hague Convention
C.The United Nations Convention on the Law of the Sea (UNCLOS)
D.The Paris Agreement
Q 158 :
The principle of "Aut Dedere Aut Judicare" refers to:
A.States must either extradite or prosecute individuals accused of serious international crimes
B.States must provide asylum to refugees
C.States must recognize foreign judgments in civil matters
D.States must respect foreign investments
Q 159 :
What is the "doctrine of precedent" in international law?
A.States must follow treaties as binding obligations
B.Judicial decisions must be followed by courts in similar future cases
C.States must give legal opinions on treaties to other states
D.States must not create any new laws outside treaties
Q 160 :
Which of the following is NOT a function of international law?
A.Regulating the conduct of states in international relations
B.Protecting human rights at the global level
C.Creating a system of justice for citizens of all states
D.Regulating environmental protection globally
Q 161 :
What is the purpose of the United Nations High Commissioner for Refugees (UNHCR)?
A.To maintain international peace and security
B.To provide humanitarian aid in conflict zones
C.To protect and assist refugees and internally displaced persons
D.To oversee international trade agreements
Q 162 :
Which international principle restricts the use of force in international relations, except for self-defense or UN authorization?
A.The principle of non-intervention
B.The principle of territorial integrity
C.The prohibition of the use of force
D.The principle of peaceful settlement of disputes
Q 163 :
The "Right of Self-Determination" allows peoples to:
A.Form their own political status and freely pursue economic, social, and cultural development
B.Establish international treaties without any restrictions
C.Control their foreign policy and military matters
D.Maintain territorial integrity within their state
Q 164 :
Which of the following is the key document that provides for the protection of the rights of all people?
A.The Universal Declaration of Human Rights (UDHR)
B.The Vienna Convention
C.The European Convention on Human Rights
D.The Geneva Conventions
Q 165 :
The principle of "Universal Jurisdiction" allows:
A.States to prosecute individuals for crimes committed in their own territories only
B.States to claim jurisdiction over crimes regardless of where they were committed
C.States to impose their laws on foreign nationals
D.States to claim jurisdiction over crimes that involve their nationals only
Q 166 :
Which of the following is the primary function of the World Trade Organization (WTO)?
A.To regulate international investment law
B.To promote human rights globally
C.To oversee international trade rules and resolve trade disputes
D.To provide humanitarian aid to developing countries
Q 167 :
What is the "Responsibility to Protect" (R2P) doctrine?
A.It mandates that states protect foreign nationals within their borders
B.It allows foreign intervention to protect citizens from mass atrocities like genocide, war crimes, and ethnic cleansing
C.It grants immunity to states that commit crimes against their own citizens
D.It limits the actions of the United Nations in human rights cases
Q 168 :
Which of the following is protected under Intellectual Property Rights (IPR)?
A.Copyright
B.Patent
C.Trademark
D.All of the above
Q 169 :
A patent is granted for:
A.Original designs
B.Literary works
C.Inventions
D.Artistic expressions
Q 170 :
The primary purpose of a copyright is to:
A.Protect inventions
B.Protect artistic and literary works
C.Protect designs
D.Protect trade secrets
Q 171 :
Which of the following can be patented?
A.Mathematical theories
B.A new method of manufacturing
C.Literary works
D.A novel character from a book
Q 172 :
The exclusive right to use a trademark is granted by:
A.The Copyright Act
B.The Patent Act
C.The Trademark Act
D.The Design Act
Q 173 :
The duration of copyright protection for an author is generally:
A.10 years
B.20 years
C.50 years
D.70 years
Q 174 :
Which of the following is NOT protected under Trade Secrets Law?
A.Formulas
B.Customer lists
C.Business methods
D.Public domain information
Q 175 :
The Paris Convention for the Protection of Industrial Property provides:
A.Protection for patents, trademarks, and designs internationally
B.Protection for literary works
C.Protection against piracy of intellectual works
D.Protection for geographical indications
Q 176 :
A design can be registered under:
A.The Copyright Act
B.The Trade Marks Act
C.The Designs Act
D.The Patents Act
Q 177 :
Which of the following is a requirement for obtaining a patent?
A.Novelty
B.Originality
C.Non-obviousness
D.All of the above
Q 178 :
The term 'intellectual property' refers to:
A.Ideas and concepts of the mind
B.Products of the human intellect
C.Natural resources
D.None of the above
Q 179 :
A patent expires after a maximum of:
A.10 years
B.20 years
C.50 years
D.100 years
Q 180 :
Trademarks are primarily used to:
A.Protect the rights of authors
B.Identify goods or services of one business from another
C.Protect inventions
D.Regulate the use of geographic names
Q 181 :
The term 'Fair Use' is most commonly associated with:
A.Copyright law
B.Patent law
C.Trademark law
D.Trade secret law
Q 182 :
Which of the following is protected by copyright?
A.Trademarks
B.Architectural works
C.Inventions
D.Scientific discoveries
Q 183 :
The owner of a trademark has the exclusive right to:
A.Use the trademark on all goods and services
B.Stop others from using the trademark without permission
C.Create new trademarks
D.All of the above
Q 184 :
Which of the following is an example of a trade secret?
A.The recipe for Coca-Cola
B.A patent for a new medicine
C.A song composition
D.A branded logo
Q 185 :
The copyright holder's right to control reproduction of their work is an example of:
A.Economic rights
B.Moral rights
C.Both a and b
D.None of the above
Q 186 :
The concept of 'First-to-File' is most commonly associated with:
A.Copyright
B.Trademark
C.Patent
D.Trade secrets
Q 187 :
In India, the first filing for a patent is done with:
A.The Intellectual Property Office
B.The Supreme Court
C.The Ministry of Law
D.The Indian Copyright Office
Q 188 :
What is a 'generic trademark'?
A.A trademark that has become commonly used for a product or service
B.A newly created trademark
C.A trademark that represents a geographical location
D.A trademark that is difficult to distinguish
Q 189 :
The 'Doctrine of Equivalent' in patent law refers to:
A.The similarity of two inventions
B.The original inventor’s exclusive right to the invention
C.The newness of an invention in the market
D.The duration of a patent
Q 190 :
In trademark law, the term 'distinctiveness' refers to:
A.The uniqueness of a trademark in relation to similar trademarks
B.The age of a trademark
C.The geographical location of the trademark
D.The popularity of the trademark
Q 191 :
The Berne Convention primarily deals with:
A.Patent rights
B.Copyright protection
C.Trademark protection
D.Protection of trade secrets
Q 192 :
The registration of a design in India is valid for a period of:
A.5 years
B.10 years
C.15 years
D.20 years
Q 193 :
Which of the following is an example of a literary work that can be protected under copyright?
A.A painting
B.A musical composition
C.A novel
D.A movie
Q 194 :
The TRIPS Agreement stands for:
A.Trade-related Intellectual Property Standards
B.Treaty on Regional Intellectual Property Standards
C.Trade-related International Property Standards
D.Treaty on Regional Industrial Property Standards
Q 195 :
The term 'industrial design' refers to:
A.A technical solution to a problem
B.A decorative or aesthetic aspect of a product
C.A method of manufacturing
D.A process of invention
Q 196 :
A collective trademark is used to distinguish the goods or services of:
A.An individual owner
B.A group of producers or traders
C.Government-owned enterprises
D.None of the above
Q 197 :
Which of the following is NOT a requirement for a valid trademark?
A.It must be capable of distinguishing goods or services
B.It must be identical to another registered trademark
C.It must not be deceptive
D.It must not be similar to an existing trademark
Q 198 :
The WIPO stands for:
A.World Intellectual Property Organization
B.World International Property Organization
C.World Indian Property Organization
D.Worldwide Intellectual Protection Office
Q 199 :
What is the primary purpose of intellectual property rights (IPRs)?
