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Latest KNSB Assistant Grade 2 Exam Question (Objective Questions), MCQ in English
Subjects : Reasoning, English Language, General Awareness, Computer Knowledge, Quantitative Aptitude
Question Bank KNSB Assistant Grade 2 (Clerk/Cashier) Exam - English
Reasoning
Q 1 :
How many such pairs of letters are there in the word ‘CLEANLINESS’ each of the which has as many letters between them in the word as they have in the English alphabet, in the same sequence?
A.Two
B.Three
C.Five
D.Four
E.None of these
Q 2 :
Team A has scored more goals than Team B
Team C has scored fewer goals than Team B
Team A has scored fewer goals than Team C .
If the first two statements are true, the third statement is
A.True
B.False
C.Uncertain
D.None
Q 3 :
If it is possible to make only one meaningful word with the second, the third, the sixth and the eight letters of the word FRAGMENT using each only once, which of the following will be the third letter of that word ? If no such word can be formed, give ‘X’ as the answer and if more than one such word can be formed, give ‘Y’ as the answer.
A.A
B.E
C.T
D.X
E.Y
Q 4 :
How many such letters are there in the word ORIENTAL each of which is as far away from the beginning of the word as when they are arranged alphabetically?
A.None
B.One
C.Two
D.Three
E.More than three
Q 5 :
How many such pairs of letters in the word CREDIT each of which has as many letters between them in the word as in the English alphabet?
A.None
B.One
C.Two
D.Three
E.More than three
Q 6 :
How many meaningful words can be made from the letters ‘LMEA’ using each letter only once in each word?
A.None
B.One
C.Two
D.Three
E.More than three
Q 7 :
If it is possible to make only one meaningful word with the first, the second, the seventh and the eighth letters of the word TEMPORAL, which of the following will be the first letter of that word? If more than one such word can be made, give ‘Y’ as the answer and if no such word can be made, give ‘X’ as the answer.
A.T
B.L
C.E
D.Y
E.X
Q 8 :
If the letters of the word HANDOVER are arranged alphabetically from left to right how many letters will remain at the same position?
A.None
B.One
C.Two
D.Three
E.More than three
Q 9 :
How many such pairs of letters are there in the word EXCURSION, each of which has as many letters between them in the word as they have in the English alphabet?
A.None
B.One
C.Two
D.Three
E.More than three
Q 10 :
If it is possible to make only one meaningful word with the first, the second, the third, the sixth and the eighth letters of the word DEVIATION first letter of that word is your answer? If more than one such word can be made formed your answer is ‘A’ and if no such word can be formed your answer is ‘B’.
A.V
B.T
C.E
D.A
E.B
Q 11 :
If each alternate letter beginning with the first in the word WORKING is replaced by the next letter in the English alphabet and each of the remaining letters is replaced by the previous letter in the English alphabet, which of the following will be the fourth from the right and after the replacement ?
A.N
B.Q
C.J
D.M
E.None of these
Q 12 :
How many pairs of letters are there in the word ‘SHIFTED’ each of which has as many letters between its two letters as there are between in the English alphabet?
A.None
B.One
C.Two
D.Three
E.None of these
Q 13 :
Statement: Is common currency a necessary ingredient for Europe’s growth ?
Arguments :
I. Yes, A common currency will enable entire Europe to market itself as one .
II. No, Similar experiments by Latin America countries have not affected their economies .
A.The only argument I is strong
B.Only argument II is strong
C.Either I or II is strong
D.Neither I nor II is strong
Q 14 :
If it is possible to make only one meaningful word with the first, the fifth, the sixth, the tenth and the eleventh letters of the word EXCEPTIONAL using each letter only once, first letter of that word is your answer. If no such word can be made formed your answer is ‘X’ and if more than one such word can be formed your answer is ‘Y’.
A.P
B.L
C.T
D.X
E.Y
Q 15 :
How many meaningful English words can be formed with the letters RAE using each letter only once in each word?
A.None
B.One
C.Two
D.Three
E.More than three
Q 16 :
How many such pairs of letters are there in the word WONDERS, each of which has as many letters between its two letters as there are between them in the English alphabet?
A.One
B.Two
C.Three
D.Four
E.More than four
Q 17 :
If it is possible to make only one meaningful English word from the second, the fifth, the seventh and the eighth letters of the word PHYSICAL, using each letter only once, second letter of that word is your answer. If more than one such word can be formed your answer is M. if no such word can be formed your answer is N.
A.I
B.A
C.L
D.M
E.N
Q 18 :
How many such pairs of letters are there in the word JUSTIFY, each of which have as many letters between them in the word as they have between them in the English alphabet?
A.None
B.One
C.Two
D.Three
E.More than three
Q 19 :
If the alphabets are assigned values as A=3, D=6, G=8, I=2, L=4 and T=5 then what is the sum of values of all the alphabets in the word DIGITAL?
A.26
B.28
C.30
D.32
E.None of these
Q 20 :
How many such pairs of letters are there in the word EDUCATION, each of which has as many letters between them in the word as they have in the English alphabet?
A.None
B.One
C.Two
D.Three
E.More than three
Q 21 :
Which letter in this alphabet is the eighth letter to the right of the letter and which is tenth letter to the left of the last but one letter of the alphabet ?
A.X
B.W
C.I
D.H
Q 22 :
If the third alphabet of each of the words is changed to the next alphabet in the English alphabetical series, which of the following will form a meaningful English word?
A.SUM
B.BIG
C.Both BIG and THE
D.FOR
E.Both FOR and BIG
Q 23 :
If the given words are arranged in the order as they would appear in a dictionary from left to right, which of the following will be second from the right ?
A.AND
B.FOR
C.THE
D.BIG
E.SUM
Q 24 :
If second alphabet in each of the words is changed to next alphabet in the English alphabetical order, how many words having two vowels (same or different vowels) will be formed ?
A.None
B.One
C.Two
D.Three
E.Four
Q 25 :
How many letters are there in the English alphabetical series between the second letter of the word which is second from the right and the second letter of the word which is second from the left of the given words?
A.Two
B.Five
C.Six
D.Nine
E.Three
Q 26 :
If in each of the given words, each of the consonant is changed to previous letter and each vowel is changed to next letter in the English alphabetical series, in how many words thus formed will no vowels appear?
A.None
B.One
C.Two
D.Three
E.More than three
Q 27 :
If the third alphabet in each of the words is changed to the next alphabet in the English alphabetical order, how many words having two vowels (same or different vowels) will be formed?
A.None
B.One
C.Two
D.Three
E.Four
Q 28 :
If the position of the first and the second alphabets of each of the words are interchanged, which of the following will form a meaningful English word?
A.Both CAT and OWN
B.Both BRU and INK
C.Only CAT
D.Only INK
E.Only LEG
Q 29 :
If the given words are arranged in the order as they would appear in a dictionary from left to right, which of the following will be exactly in the middle of the five words?
A.OWN
B.LEG
C.BRU
D.CAT
E.INK
Q 30 :
If in each of the given words, each of the consonants is changed to previous letter and each vowel is changed to next letter in the English alphabetical series, in how many words thus formed will the same alphabet appear twice?
A.None
B.One
C.Two
D.Three
E.More than three
Q 31 :
3, 5, 5, 19, 7, 41, 9, ?
A.71
B.61
C.79
D.69
Q 32 :
If the positions of the first and the third alphabets of each of the words are interchanged, which of the following would form meaningful words with the new arrangement?
A.HID
B.SON
C.Both LAP and BUT
D.CAR
E.Both CAR and LAP
Q 33 :
If the given words are arranged in the order as they would appear in a dictionary from left to right, which of the following will be fourth from the left?
A.LAP
B.BUT
C.CAR
D.SON
E.HID
Q 34 :
If in each of given words, each of the consonants is changed to previous letter and each vowel is changed to next letter in the English alphabetical series, in how many words thus formed will at least one vowel appear?
A.None
B.One
C.Two
D.Three
E.More than three
Q 35 :
How many letters are there in the English alphabetical series between the third letter of the word which is third from the right and the first letter of the word which is first from the left of the given word?
A.Two
B.Five
C.Six
D.Nine
E.Three
Q 36 :
If second alphabet in each of the words is changed to next alphabet in the English alphabetical order, how many words having no vowels will be formed?
A.None
B.One
C.Two
D.Three
E.More than three
Q 37 :
If all the letters in each of the words are arranged alphabetically (within the word), how many words will remain unchanged?
A.One
B.Two
C.Three
D.More than three
E.None
Q 38 :
According to the English alphabetical series how many letters are there between the first letter of the third word and the first letter of the fifth word?
A.Two
B.One
C.None
D.Three
E.More than three
Q 39 :
If the first letter of all the words is changed to the previous letter of the English alphabetical series, how many words will have more than one vowel?
A.One
B.Two
C.Three
D.More than three
E.None
Q 40 :
If all the vowels (in all the words) are changed to the next letter of the English alphabetical series, how many words will form meaningful English words?
A.One
B.Two
C.Three
D.More than three
E.None
English Language
Q 41 :
I go to Madurai by —– Vaigai Express
A.a
B.an
C.some
D.the
Q 42 :
Have the car stolen!
A.Steal the car
B.You should have the stolen car
C.Get someone to steal the car
D.They have stolen the car
Q 43 :
The payment was collected by the hardworking salesman.
A.The hardworking salesman collected the payment.
B.the salesman who worked heard was able to collect the payment.
C.to collect the payment the salesman had to work hard.
D.The hardworking salesman was able to collect the payment.
Q 44 :
I had to stop all my work to complete this project.
A.All other work had to be stopped to complete this project by me
B.For completing this project all other work must be stopped
C.For completing this project I had to stop all my work
D.To complete this project all other work had been stopped by me
Q 45 :
They have published the names of all the successful candidates.
A.The candidates who have succeeded their names they had published.
B.The names of all the successful candidates have been published by them
C.The candidates who have succeeded their names have been published by them.
D.The names of all the successful candidate were published by them.
Q 46 :
The online shopping site lowered the prices.
A.Lowering of the prices was done by the online shopping site
B.The prices were lowered by the online shopping site
C.The prices had been lowered by the online shopping site
D.The prices have been lowered by the online shopping site
Q 47 :
Who taught you to drive a truck ?
A.To drive a truck by whom were you taught?
B.Driving a truck by who were you taught?
C.Driving a truck by who were you being taught?
D.By whom were you taught to drive a truck?
Q 48 :
We shall invite Suresh.
A.Suresh would be invited by us
B.Suresh would have been invited by us
C.Suresh will be invited by us
D.Suresh will have been invited by us
Q 49 :
Dark clouds have overcast the evening sky.
A.By the dark clouds the evening sky was overcast.
B.The evening sky has been overcast by the dark clouds.
C.Dark clouds overcastted the evening sky.
D.The sky of the evening was overcasted by dark clouds.
Q 50 :
The partners will celebrate their triumph tomorrow.
A.The triumph would be celebrated by the partners a day before
B.The triumph would be celebrated by the partners a day after
C.The triumph would have been celebrated by the partners a day after
D.The triumph will have been celebrated by the partners tomorrow
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B.That music was really being enjoyed by the baby.
C.That music is really enjoyed by the baby.
D.This music was really enjoyed by the baby.
Q 54 :
The weather disrupted the final match.
A.The final match has been disrupted by the weather.
B.The final match had been disrupted by the weather.
C.The final match was disrupted by the weather.
D.The final match was being disrupted by the weather.
Q 55 :
The management committee is required to publish a report every year.
A.report would be published by the management committee every year.
B.A report would have been published by the management committee every year.
C.A report requires to be published by the management committee every year.
D.Every year the report would be published by the management committee.
Q 56 :
Preeti ran the race in record time.
A.In record time Preeti ran the race.
B. The race was run by Preeti in record time
C.The race was being run by Preeti in record time
D.The race had been run by Preeti in record time
Q 57 :
I shall have written the full thesis by December
A.By December I shall have wrote the full thesis.
B.The full thesis will have been written by me by December.
C.The full Thesis will be wrote by me by December
D.By December the full thesis must have been wrote by me.
Q 58 :
One must keep one’s promises.
A.One’s promises must be kept by one.
B.One’s promises had to be kept.
C.Promises must be kept.
D.Promises have to be kept by one.
Q 59 :
I read the story in one night.
A.The story had been read by me in one night.
B.The story has been read by me in one night
C.n one night the story has been read by me.
D.the story was read by me in one night
Q 60 :
We must take care of the old.
A.Those who are old need to be taken care of by us.
B.The old must be taken care of by us.
C.Those who are old need care by us
D.The old should be taken care of by us.
Q 61 :
The Finance Department has ……………a centralized online databank system for all statutory government bodies to …………an eye on their assets and liabilities.
A. presented , stay
B.introduced , keep
C.announce , make
D.created , let
E.proclaimed , hold
Q 62 :
Assets
A.liabilities
B.responsibilities
C.estates
D.profits
Q 63 :
Affidavit
A. Affirmation
B.Slander
C.Oath
D.Testimony
Q 64 :
Hollow
A.Alveolate
B.Cleft
C. Cavernous
D.Solid
Q 65 :
Cosset
A.Ignoreb
B.Close
C.Caress
D.Fondle
Q 66 :
Ogle
A.Leer
B.Gaze
C.Ignore
D.Gawk
Q 67 :
Intrinsic
A.Elemental
B.Innate
C.Connate
D.Acquired
Q 68 :
Coalesce
A.Separate
B.Adhere
C.Cleave
D.Amalgamate
Q 69 :
Loiter
A.lag
B.Hasten
C.Amble
D.Loii
Q 70 :
The protests were......... at ......... awareness among the elite and the educated.
A.held, generating
B.aimed, creating
C.targeted, awakening
D.focused, building
E.concentrated, producing
Q 71 :
Deep-seated
A.Chronic
B.Temporary
C.inbred
D.Subconscious
Q 72 :
Vibrant
A.Drab
B.Gaudy
C.Jazzy
D.Vivid
Q 73 :
To scowl
A.To glower
B.To smirk
C.To Grimace
D.To grin
Q 74 :
I used (A)/ a pair of black trousers (B) / for a week (C)/ No error (D)
A.A
B.B
C.C
D.D
Q 75 :
Atheist
A.Skeptic
B.Pagan
C.Disciple
D.Agnostic
Q 76 :
Abdicate
A.Forgo
B.Usurp
C.Waive
D.Cede
Q 77 :
Mandarin Chinese is spoken by people.
A.Little
B.Few
C.Many
D.Big
Q 78 :
A person who is good at foreign languages is known as-
A.Virtuoso
B.Linguist
C.Ventriloquist
D.Scholar
Q 79 :
Astringe
A. Liberate
B.Constringe
C.Circumscribe
D.Tauten
Q 80 :
The ………..of gurudakshina is very ancient.
A.habit
B.approach
C.perception
D.concept
General Awareness
Q 81 :
What was India's real GDP growth rate for FY 2024-25, as per the National Statistics Office (NSO) provisional estimates released in May 2025?
A.6.2%
B.6.5%
C.6.8%
D.7.0%
Q 82 :
According to the Deloitte India Economic Outlook (August 2025), what is the baseline GDP growth forecast for FY 2025-26?
A.6.4%-6.7%
B.6.0%-6.3%
C.6.8%-7.1%
D.7.2%-7.5%
Q 83 :
In Q1 FY 2025-26 (April-June 2025), India's real GDP growth was estimated at 7.8% YoY. What was the corresponding nominal GDP growth rate?
A.7.5%
B.9.5%
C.8.8%
D.10.2%
Q 84 :
The NSO's provisional estimates for FY 2024-25 indicate Real GDP at constant prices reached Rs 187.97 lakh crore. What was the growth rate in Gross Fixed Capital Formation (GFCF)?
A.5.8%
B.6.5%
C.7.1%
D.7.8%
Q 85 :
Deloitte's August 2025 outlook identifies a 'virtuous trifecta' driving India's GDP growth. Which is NOT part of this trifecta?
A.Resilient capital markets
B.Dynamic consumer base
C.Globally competitive workforce
D.High global oil prices
Q 86 :
India’s GDP growth moderated to 6.5% in FY 2024-25 from 8.2% in FY 2023?
A.Moderate progress
B.Significant
C.Stagnant
D.Declining
Q 87 :
What was the primary drag?
A.Agricultural slowdown
B.Lower government capex
C.Reduced private consumption
D.Weaker manufacturing and mining
Q 88 :
What was India’s GDP at current prices (nominal GDP) for FY 2024-25, as per NSO estimates?
A.Rs 301.67 lakh crore
B.Rs 340.15 lakh crore
C.Rs 323.29 lakh crore
D.Rs 355.82 lakh crore
Q 89 :
Which sector recorded the highest growth rate in FY 2024-25, as per NSO data?
A.Agriculture
B.Manufacturing
C.Construction
D.Services
Q 90 :
What was the contribution of private final consumption expenditure to India’s GDP in FY 2024-25?
A.55.4%
B.61.4%
C.58.7%
D.64.2%
Q 91 :
The NSO’s advance estimates for FY 2025-26 project real GDP growth at what rate?
A.6.3%
B.6.6%
C.6.9%
D.7.2%
Q 92 :
Which component of GDP showed the slowest growth in FY 2024-25?
A.Private consumption
B.Government expenditure
C.Gross fixed capital formation
D.Exports
Q 93 :
What was the GDP deflator growth rate for FY 2024-25, indicating inflation’s impact on nominal GDP?
A.2.1%
B.2.5%
C.2.3%
D.2.7%
Q 94 :
Which international organization projected India’s GDP growth at 7.0% for 2025 in its July 2025 report?
A.World Bank
B.Asian Development Bank
C.IMF
D.OECD
Q 95 :
What was the growth rate of India’s manufacturing sector in Q1 FY 2025-26?
A.4.8%
B.5.3%
C.7.0%
D.6.1%
Q 96 :
India’s GDP per capita at constant prices for FY 2024-25 was approximately:
A.Rs 1,15,000
B.Rs 1,35,000
C.Rs 1,25,000
D.Rs 1,45,000
Q 97 :
Which factor contributed most to GDP growth in Q1 FY 2025-26?
A.Agricultural output
B.Private consumption
C.Government capex
D.Net exports
Q 98 :
What was the share of the services sector in India’s GDP for FY 2024-25?
A.50.2%
B.55.3%
C.52.8%
D.57.9%
Q 99 :
The NSO’s data for FY 2024-25 showed a decline in which GDP component’s growth rate compared to FY 2023-24?
A.Private consumption
B.Gross fixed capital formation
C.Government expenditure
D.Exports
Q 100 :
What was India’s ranking in global GDP (nominal terms) in 2025, as per IMF estimates?
A.3rd
B.5th
C.4th
D.6th
Q 101 :
Which policy measure supported GDP growth in FY 2024-25, as per the Economic Survey?
A.Higher RBI repo rates
B.Increased import tariffs
C.Reduced corporate tax rates
D.Lower agricultural subsidies
Q 102 :
What was the growth rate of India’s agricultural sector in FY 2024-25?
A.3.2%
B.4.1%
C.3.8%
D.3.5%
Q 103 :
The NSO reported a slowdown in which sector’s GVA growth in FY 2024-25?
A.Agriculture
B.Financial services
C.Mining and quarrying
D.Public administration
Q 104 :
What was the estimated size of India’s economy in USD terms for 2025, as per IMF projections?
A.$3.94 trillion
B.$4.11 trillion
C.$4.28 trillion
D.$4.45 trillion
Q 105 :
Which component of GDP showed a negative growth rate in Q1 FY 2025-26?
A.Private consumption
B.Government expenditure
C.Net exports
D.Gross fixed capital formation
Q 106 :
The Economic Survey 2024-25 highlighted which factor as critical for sustaining GDP growth?
A.Rising global commodity prices
B.Digital economy expansion
C.Declining FDI inflows
D.Higher fiscal deficits
Q 107 :
What was India’s average CPI inflation rate for FY 2024-25, as reported by the RBI?
A.4.5%
B.4.9%
C.4.7%
D.5.1%
Q 108 :
Which factor contributed most to inflationary pressures in Q1 FY 2025-26?
A.Fuel prices
B.Food prices
C.Core inflation
D.Housing costs
Q 109 :
The RBI’s inflation target range for FY 2025-26 is:
A.2%-4%
B.3%-5%
C.4%-6%
D.5%-7%
Q 110 :
What was the WPI inflation rate for August 2025, as per the Ministry of Commerce?
A.1.8%
B.2.2%
C.2.0%
D.2.4%
Q 111 :
Which category had the highest weight in the CPI basket for FY 2024-25?
A.Food and beverages
B.Housing
C.Transport and communication
D.Education
Q 112 :
Core inflation (excluding food and fuel) in July 2025 was:
A.3.1%
B.3.3%
C.3.5%
D.3.7%
Q 113 :
What measure did the RBI take in June 2025 to control inflation?
A.Raised repo rate by 25 bps
B.Lowered CRR by 50 bps
C.Increased MSF rate by 50 bps
D.Kept policy rates unchanged
Q 114 :
Which global factor moderated India’s inflation in FY 2024-25?
A.Rising crude oil prices
B.Stronger US dollar
C.Declining global commodity prices
D.Increased import tariffs
Q 115 :
The CPI inflation rate for rural areas in July 2025 was:
A.4.8%
B.4.6%
C.4.4%
D.5.0%
Q 116 :
What was the primary driver of food inflation in Q1 FY 2025-26?
A.Cereal prices
B.Meat prices
C.Dairy prices
D.Vegetable prices
Q 117 :
The RBI’s August 2025 Monetary Policy Report projected CPI inflation for Q2 FY 2025-26 at:
A.4.3%
B.4.9%
C.4.7%
D.4.5%
Q 118 :
Which measure helped stabilize inflation in FY 2024-25?
A.Higher import duties
B.Supply chain interventions
C.Increased MSP for crops
D.Reduced fuel subsidies
Q 119 :
What was the inflation rate for manufactured products in the WPI basket for July 2025?
A.1.1%
B.1.5%
C.1.3%
D.1.7%
Q 120 :
The RBI’s inflation targeting framework, adopted in 2016, aims for a CPI inflation rate of:
A.2%
B.3%
C.4%
D.5%
Computer Knowledge
Q 121 :
Which Windows interface element typically appears to display information, a warning, an error message, or a request for confirmation?
A.Window
B.Pop-up menu
C.Message box
D.Taskbar
Q 122 :
What is active desktop ?
A.a term that is synonymous with viewing your desktop as web page
B.a feature to customize your desktop to display informating you can update from the internet
C.both a and b above mentioned
D.A software
E.None of these
Q 123 :
What is meant by an active window?
A.A window that is minimized
B.The window currently receiving user input
C.Any window currently open
D.The window opened first
Q 124 :
What was America Online (AOL) primarily known for during the early popularization of consumer Internet access?
A.An online service providing Internet access and proprietary online content
B.A computer operating system
C.A spreadsheet application
D.A database management system
Q 125 :
An application is
A.word processing, accounting and engineering programs are example of application programs
B.computer program designed to enable users to perform specific job functions
C.Both a and b above mentioned
D.a document
E.None of these
Q 126 :
Which of the following programs enables you to calculate numbers related to rows and columns?
A.Window program
B.Spreadsheet program
C.Graphics program
D.Word program
E.None of these
Q 127 :
The term Briefcase is used for
A.a special folder on the windows desktop used to keep documents up to date when shared between computers
B.a window that us currently open
C.A folder which keeps deleted, files for a while and can be retrieved from it
D.All of the above
E.None of these
Q 128 :
In a graphical user interface, what is a button primarily used for?
A.Executing a command or initiating an action
B.Permanently storing data
C.Displaying the computer's IP address
D.Formatting a disk automatically
Q 129 :
A channel (in windows terminology) is
A.a widely used online service that offers access to the internet
B.a specialized web site designed to work with the windows 98 subscribing feature to automatically download information from the internet and store it on your computer for later viewing
C.an area on the computer memory where text or graphics can be temporarily stored
D.All of the above
E.None of these
Q 130 :
What does a checked checkbox generally indicate in a graphical user interface?
A.The associated option is enabled or selected
B.The application has closed
C.The file has been deleted
D.The computer is offline
Q 131 :
The term classic style implies
A.you can click on an item to select it and double click on an item to open it
B.a folder options setting that tells double click on an item to open it
C.both a and b
D.font style
E.None of these
Q 132 :
The term click implies
A.to quickly push and release the main mouse button when onscreen mouse pointer is positioned over the desired item
B.a button in a dialog box
C.to shut down or exit a dialog box
D.All of the above
E.None of these
Q 133 :
What is the primary function of the Close button marked with an X on a window?
A.Minimize the window
B.Close the associated window or application
C.Maximize the window
D.Move the window
Q 134 :
A command button
A.is a one in a dialog box such as open, close, exit OK or cancel that carries out a command
B.is a symbol that designates the position on the screen where text or codes will be inserted or deleted
C.is a sort on screen from where you can open and manages files and programs
D.is a small button with an X on it
E.None of these
Q 135 :
What is smallest unit of the information?
A.A bit
B.A byte
C.A block
D.A nibble
Q 136 :
A cursor is
A.to make a selection from the document from the document and duplicate it on the clipboard
B.a symbol that designated the position on the screen where text or codes will be inserted or deleted
C.pressing and holding the main mouse button
D.A button in a dialog box
E.None of these
Q 137 :
What is a Database Management System (DBMS)?
A.A structured collection of data only
B.Software used to create, manage, retrieve, and update data in databases
C.A physical device for storing database backups
D.A programming language used only for calculations
Q 138 :
The meaning of cut is
A.to take a selection from the document and move it to the clipboard
B.to cut a document in two unequal parts
C.to cut a document in two equal parts
D.Only b and c are correct
Q 139 :
A setting or action predetermined by the program unless changed by the user is called as
A.pre - determined setting
B.user - setting
C.default
D.setting
E.None of these
Q 140 :
The search back ground and main area of windows where you can open and manage files and programs is
A.wall paper
B.desktop
C.background
D.All of the above
E.None of these
Q 141 :
What is a dialog box in a graphical user interface?
A.An on-screen window used to display information or obtain user input and selections
B.A tool used exclusively for audio and video calls
C.A hardware device used for voice commands
D.A program used exclusively to browse websites
Q 142 :
A letter, memo, proposal, or other that is created using Microsoft word is called as
A.Master
B.slide
C.document
D.worksheet
E.None of these
Q 143 :
The meaning of double click is
A.pushing and releasing the main mouse button twice in rapid succession when the on - tree mouse pointer is positioned over the desired item
B.appearance of an icon
C.to take a selection from the document and move it to the clipboard
D.All of the above
E.None of these
Q 144 :
The term drag and drop means
A.appearance of an icon
B.used for selecting text
C.to move text or an object by positioning the mouse pointer on the item you want to move, pressing and holding the mouse button to drop the object into its new location
D.to take a selection from the document and move it to the clipboard
E.None of these
Q 145 :
What does dragging with a mouse mean?
A.Holding down a mouse button while moving the mouse pointer
B.Closing an application
C.Double-clicking an icon without moving the mouse
D.Restarting the computer
Q 146 :
What is the purpose of a drop-down list in a graphical user interface?
A.To display a list of selectable choices when expanded
B.To permanently delete selected files
C.To close all running applications
D.To display only error messages
Q 147 :
The default name for a desktop icon that opens an explore window displaying information about your system’s disk drives and also special system folders like printers and control panel
A.my computer
B.news groups
C.message box
D.network neighbourhood
E.None of these
Q 148 :
________________ means to enlarge window to its maximum area so that it will full entire desktop
A.maximize
B.zoom
C.enlarge
D.extend
E.None of these
Q 149 :
What is HTML primarily used for?
A.Defining the structure and meaning of content on web pages
B.Managing computer hardware drivers
C.Encrypting all Internet traffic
D.Controlling the computer's BIOS
Q 150 :
What is the process of visually emphasizing selected text or an object on a computer screen commonly called?
A.Shading
B.Hyperlinking
C.Highlighting
D.Compiling
Q 151 :
What is an icon in a graphical user interface?
A.An action performed when a button is clicked
B.A small graphical representation of an application, command, file, folder, or function
C.A type of computer memory
D.A text-only command prompt
Q 152 :
In graphical user interfaces, what does an ellipsis (...) following a menu command commonly indicate?
A.The command will open a dialog box or require additional input
B.The command will immediately shut down the computer
C.The command has already been executed
D.The command cannot be selected
Q 153 :
_____________ is an area of memory assigned to store any e-mail message for the user
A.Outlook express
B.yahoo.com
C.post- box
D.mail box
E.None of these
Q 154 :
Group of letters, numbers, and symbols with a common typerface is called as
A.file
B.font
C.style
D.GUI
E.None of these
Q 155 :
A___ is an electronic device that process data converting into information.
A.processor
B.computer
C.menu
D.mouse
E.None of these
Q 156 :
This is the process of getting access to the computer
A.sign in
B.log in
C.log off
D.enter
E.None of these
Q 157 :
The full step wise process of closing a computer is called
A.shutting
B.closing
C.log off
D.shut down
E.None of these
Q 158 :
What is a clickable connection from one web document or resource to another called?
A.Hyperlink
B.Compiler
C.Cursor
D.Clipboard
Q 159 :
This device is used to connect your computer with a telephone line, so that can access information form other servers and ordinary users too, said device is called
A.modem
B.set top box
C.LAN card
D.UPS
E.None of these
Q 160 :
What is an Internet discussion area where users exchange messages about a particular subject traditionally called?
A.Newsgroup
B.Spreadsheet
C.Search engine
D.Device driver
Quantitative Aptitude
Q 161 :
The cash difference between the selling prices of an article at a profit of 4% and 6% is Rs. 3. The ratio of the two selling prices is:__________ ?
A.51:52
B.52:53
C.51:53
D.52:55
Q 162 :
Which of the following numbers is irrational ?
A.√49
B.0.125
C.√2
D.22/7
Q 163 :
356 x 936 – 356 x 836 = ?
A.35600
B.34500
C.9630
D.93600
Q 164 :
Arrange in descending order: 5/8, 7/10, 3/4
A.3/4 > 7/10 > 5/8
B.7/10 > 3/4 > 5/8
C.3/4 > 5/8 > 7/10
D.5/8 > 7/10 > 3/4
Q 165 :
What is (3^{4} times 9^{2}) ?
A.36
B.38
C.310
D.96
Q 166 :
If 34X-2 = 729, then find the value of X.
A.4
B.3
C.2
D.5
Q 167 :
Convert 0.6 into fraction ?
A.3/5
B.2/3
C.4/5
Q 168 :
The no. plate of a bus had peculiarity. The bus number was a perfect square. It was also a perfect square when the plate numbers were reversed. The bus company had only five hundred buses numbered from 1 to 500. What was the number ?
A.169
B.36
C.196
D.Can not say
Q 169 :
If a and b are positive integers, such that ab = 125, then (a-b)a+b-4 = ?
A.16
B.25
C.28
D.30
Q 170 :
If x*y = x2 + y2 – xy, then value of 9*11 is
A.93
B.103
C.60.5
D.121
Q 171 :
Which is greater ?
A.15/16
B.17/18
C.Equal
D.Cannot compare
Q 172 :
If sum of two numbers is 42 and their product is 437, then find their difference.
A.3
B.4
C.5
D.7
Q 173 :
Write the 44000 in Roman numerals
A.XLI
B.XLVI
C.XLIV
D.XLVIC
Q 174 :
Convert 0.0909… into fraction ?
A.1/11
B.9/11
C.1/9
D.9/10
Q 175 :
What is (98 times 102) ?
A.9996
B.10000
C.10096
D.10196
Q 176 :
Which is smaller ?
A.9/11
B.7/9
C.Equal
D.Cannot compare
Q 177 :
Convert 0.5777… into fraction ?
A.26/45
B.52/90
C.13/22
D.5/9
Q 178 :
Convert 0.81 into fraction ?
A.81/100
B.9/10
C.8/9
D.9/11
Q 179 :
(63)2 – (12)2 =?
A.3528
B.3852
C.3582
D.3825
Q 180 :
Which is greater ?
A.13/17
B.11/14
C.Equal
D.Cannot compare
Q 181 :
How many employees of bank ‘X’ opted for VRS ?
(I) 18% of the 950 officer cadre employees and 6% of the 1100 of all other cadre employees opted for VRS.
(II) 28% of the employees in the age group of 51 to 56 and 17% of the employees in all other age groups opted for VRS.
A.Statement (I) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (II) alone is not sufficient
B.Statement (II) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (I) alone is not sufficient
C.BOTH statements TOGETHER are sufficient, but NEITHER statement alone is sufficient
D.EACH statement ALONE is sufficient
Q 182 :
The area of a playground is 1600 square meters. What is its perimeter ?
(I) It is a perfect square playground
(II) It costs Rs.3200 to put a fence around the playground at the rate of Rs.20 per meter.
A.Statement (I) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (II) alone is not sufficient
B.Statement (II) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (I) alone is not sufficient
C.BOTH statements TOGETHER are sufficient, but NEITHER statement alone is sufficient
D.EACH statement ALONE is sufficient
Q 183 :
What is the value of m – n ÷ 37 ?
(I) m is the largest possible six-digit number and n is the smallest possible six-digit number.
(II) The difference between m and n is known.
A.Statement (I) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (II) alone is not sufficient
B.Statement (II) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (I) alone is not sufficient
C.BOTH statements TOGETHER are sufficient, but NEITHER statement alone is sufficient
D.EACH statement ALONE is sufficient
Q 184 :
What is the value of x ?
(I) If 10 is added to x, the result is 34.
(II) If x is multiplied by y, the result is 38.
A.Statement (I) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (II) alone is not sufficient
B.Statement (II) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (I) alone is not sufficient
C.BOTH statements TOGETHER are sufficient, but NEITHER statement alone is sufficient
D.EACH statement ALONE is sufficient
Q 185 :
What was the total compound interest on a sum after three years ?
(I) The interest after one year was Rs. 100 and the sum after was Rs.1000.
(II) The difference between simple and compound interest on a sum of Rs.1000 at the end of two years was Rs.10.
A.Statement (I) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (II) alone is not sufficient
B.Statement (II) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (I) alone is not sufficient
C.BOTH statements TOGETHER are sufficient, but NEITHER statement alone is sufficient
D.EACH statement ALONE is sufficient
Q 186 :
Among Japanese Yen, Australian Dollar, Hong Kong Dollar and Singapore Dollar, which currency has the lowest value in terms of Indian rupees ?
(1) One rupee is equal to 2.56 Japanese Yen, 0.338 Australian Dollar, and 0.465 Hong Kong Dollar.
(2) Value of Australian Dollar is equal to Singapore Dollar.
A.Statement (1) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (2) alone is not sufficient
B.Statement (2) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (I) alone is not sufficient
C.BOTH statements TOGETHER are sufficient, but NEITHER statement alone is sufficient
D.Statements (1) and (2) TOGETHER are NOT sufficient
Q 187 :
What is the value of a two-digit number ?
(1) The sum of the two digits is 4.
(2) The difference between the two digits is 2.
A.Statement (1) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (2) alone is not sufficient
B.Statement (2) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (I) alone is not sufficient
C.BOTH statements TOGETHER are sufficient, but NEITHER statement alone is sufficient
D.Statements (1) and (2) TOGETHER are NOT sufficient
Q 188 :
What was the population of State ‘A’ in 1999 ?
(1) Population of the State increases every year by 20% and its population in 1997 was 1,20,000.
(2) Population of State A in 1997 was twice that of State B in the same year.
A.Statement (1) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (2) alone is not sufficient
B.Statement (2) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (I) alone is not sufficient
C.BOTH statements TOGETHER are sufficient, but NEITHER statement alone is sufficient
D.Statements (1) and (2) TOGETHER are NOT sufficient
Q 189 :
What is the speed of the boat in still water ?
(1) It takes 2 hours to cover the distance between A and B downstream.
(2) It takes 4 hours to cover the distance between A and B upstream.
A.Statement (1) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (2) alone is not sufficient
B.Statement (2) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (I) alone is not sufficient
C.BOTH statements TOGETHER are sufficient, but NEITHER statement alone is sufficient
D.Statements (1) and (2) TOGETHER are NOT sufficient
Q 190 :
How many vinyl squares with sides 5 inches long will be needed to cover the rectangular floor of a room ?
(1) The floor is 5ft long.
(2) The floor is 3 ft wide.
A.Statement (1) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (2) alone is not sufficient
B.Statement (2) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (I) alone is not sufficient
C.BOTH statements TOGETHER are sufficient, but NEITHER statement alone is sufficient
D.Statements (1) and (2) TOGETHER are NOT sufficient
Q 191 :
Quantity I: On selling 17 balls at Rs720, there is a loss equal to the cost price of 5 balls. The cost price of a ball is :
Quantity II: A man buys a cycle for Rs 1400 and sells it at a loss of 15%. The selling price is :
A.Quantity I > Quantity II
B.Quantity I Quantity II
C.Quantity II Quantity I
D.Quantity I = Quantity II or Relation cannot be established
Q 192 :
Quantity I : A and B together can do a piece of work in 4 days. If A alone can do the same work in 6 days, then B alone can do the same work in ?
Quantity II : A can do a piece of work in 4 hours; B and C together can do it in 3 hours, while A and C together can do it in 2 hours. How long will B alone take to do it ?
A.Quantity I > Quantity II
B.Quantity I ​ Quantity II
C.Quantity II Quantity I
D.Quantity I = Quantity II or Relation cannot be established
Q 193 :
Quantity I : ‘x’ : Train ‘A’ running at a speed of 25 m/sec crosses Train ‘Z’ coming from opposite direction running at a speed of 15 m/sec in 12 seonds. Length of Train ‘A’ is twice of train ‘B’. Length of train ‘A’ is ‘x’
Quantity II : 160 meters.
(a) Quantity I > Quantity II (b) Quantity I < Quantity II
(c) Quantity I ≥ Quantity II (d) Quantity I ≤ Quantity II
(e) Quantity I = Quantity II or No Relation
A.Quantity I > Quantity II
B.Quantity I ≥ Quantity II
C.Quantity II > Quantity I
D.Quantity I = Quantity II or Relation cannot be established
Q 194 :
Quantity I : ‘x’ : A pipe alone can fill a cistern in 60 minutes. But due to leakage pipe filled only 80% of the cistern in 1 hour. ‘x’ is the capacity of cistern in liters if due to leakage 60 liter can be leaked out in 1 hour.
Quantity II : 250 liters
(a) Quantity I > Quantity II (b) Quantity I < Quantity II
(c) Quantity I ≥ Quantity II (d) Quantity I ≤ Quantity II
(e) Quantity I = Quantity II or No Relation
A.Quantity I > Quantity II
B.Quantity I ≥ Quantity II
C.Quantity II > Quantity I
D.Quantity I = Quantity II or Relation cannot be established
Q 195 :
Average weight of four persons is 67 kg.These persons are A, B, C and D. When E is included in the group, average weight decreases by 2 kg. What is the weight of A? A’s weight is 4 kg more than B’s weight.
(I) When B is displaced by another person F, whose weight is 4 kg more than E, average weight becomes 64 kg.
(II) When D is displaced by another person G, whose weight is 4 kg more than E, average weight becomes 65 kg.
A.Statement(I) ALONE is sufficient , but statement (II) alone is not sufficient
B.Statement (II) ALONE is sufficient , but statement (I) alone is not sufficient
C.BOTH Statement TOGETHER are sufficient , but NEITHER statement alone is sufficient
D.EACH statement ALONE is sufficient
Q 196 :
Is x an integer ?
A.Statement (I) ALONE is sufficient , but statement (II) alone is not sufficient
B.Statement (II) ALONE is sufficient , but statement (I) alone is not sufficient
C.BOTH Statement TOGETHER are sufficient , but NEITHER statement alone is sufficient
D.EACH statement ALONE is sufficient
Q 197 :
Out of the four teams A, B, C and D which team is not likely to win as per the opinion poll ?
(I) As per the opinion poll, chances of team C’s winning are more than that of team A.
​(II) As per the opinion poll team C’s chances of winning are less than that of team B but not less than that of team D, whose chances of winning are more than that of team A.
A.Statement (I) ALONE is sufficient , but statement (II) alone is not sufficient
B.Statement (II) ALONE is sufficient , but statement (I) alone is not sufficient
C.BOTH Statement TOGETHER are sufficient , but NEITHER statement alone is sufficient
D.EACH statement ALONE is sufficient
Q 198 :
A, B and C are positive integers. Is their product an even number ?
(I) A is an even number.
(II) The product of A and B is an even number and that of A and C is also an even number.
A.Statement (I) ALONE is sufficient , but statement (II) alone is not sufficient
B.Statement (II) ALONE is sufficient , but statement (I) alone is not sufficient
C.BOTH Statement TOGETHER are sufficient , but NEITHER statement alone is sufficient
D.EACH statement ALONE is sufficient
Q 199 :
What was Mr. Srinivasula’s combined income for the year 1994-1999 ? In 1994, he made Rs.10,00,000.
(I) His average yearly income for the years 1994-1999 was Rs.12,00,000.
​(II) In 1999, his income was Rs.20,00,000.
A.Statement (I) ALONE is sufficient , but statement (II) alone is not sufficient
B.Statement (II) ALONE is sufficient , but statement(I) alone is not sufficient
C.BOTH Statement TOGETHER are sufficient , but NEITHER statement alone is sufficient
D.EACH statement ALONE is sufficient
Q 200 :
A, B, C and D made their project presentation, one on each day, on four consecutive days but not necessarily in that order. On which day did ‘C’ make his presentation ?
(1) The first presentation was made on 23rd, Tuesday and was followed by ‘D’s presentation.
​(2) ‘A’ did not make his presentation on 25th and one of them made his presentation, between A’s and B’s.
A.Statement (2) ALONE is sufficient , but statement (1) alone is not sufficient
B.statement (1) and (2) TOGETHER are NOT sufficient
C.BOTH Statement TOGETHER are sufficient , but NEITHER statement alone is sufficient
D.Statement (1) and (2) TOGETHER are NOT sufficient
Quantity II
​ Quantity II