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Question Bank

Question for KPSC AE - Quiz / Questions / MCQ in English

Last Update on : October 10, 2026

Duration: 75 · Questions: 100 · Max Marks: 100

View Kerala PSC Assistant Engineer 2026 Exam Page

To boost your performance in KPSC AE exam, practice each question regularly and with focus. Every question tests your subject understanding, so solve them one at a time. Taking a quiz improves your speed and accuracy. Practicing topic-wise MCQs. Students benefit greatly from reviewing questions with answer keys, which help clarify concepts and strengthen Questions knowledge for success in KPSC AE exams.

Latest KPSC AE Exam Question (Objective Questions), MCQ in English

Subjects : Civil

Question Bank KPSC Assistant Engineer Exam (Civil) - English.

Civil

Q 1 :
A water supply distribution system for an averagely-populated township is to be designed for
  1. A.Maximum daily demand 
  2. B.Maximum hourly demand and fire demand 
  3. C.Average demand 
  4. D.Maximum daily demand and fire demand or maximum hourly demand, whichever is higher
Q 2 :
 A combined sewerage system is more appropriate for developed areas where
  1. A.Rainfall occurs for a very few days in a year 
  2. B.Rainfall occurs almost uniformly throughout the year 
  3. C.Air temperatures are nearly uniform throughout the year 
  4. D.Air temperatures through the year include extremes during certain runs of days 
Q 3 :
100 m3 of sludge holds a moisture content of 95%. If its moisture content chagnes to 90%, the volume of this sludge will then be
  1. A.40.5m3
  2. B.50m3
  3. C.75m3
  4. D.94.7m3
Q 4 :
The design overflow rate of a sedimentation tank is chosen considering
  1. A.Flow rate through the tank 
  2. B.Diameter of the particle intended to be removed 
  3. C.Volume of the sedimentation tank 
  4. D.Detention time in the tank
Q 5 :
Consider the following statements in respect of flow equalization in a waste water treatment plant : 
1. Biological treatment is enhanced because shock loadings are eliminated or minimized
2. Flow equalizations is an attractive option for upgrading the performance of overloaded treatment plants.
3. Inhibiting substances can be diluted and pH can be stabilized
4. Thickening performance of primary sedimentation tanks following grit removal is improved.
 Which of the above statements are correct? 
  1. A.1, 2, 3 and 4 
  2. B.1, 2 and 3 only 
  3. C.1, 2 and 4 only 
  4. D.3 and 4 only   
Q 6 :
A drain carrying 5m3/s of wastewater with its BOD of 100mg/l joins a stream carrying 50 m3/ s flow with its BOD of 5mg/l. What will be the value of the BOD of the combined flow after complete mixing?
  1. A.3.6 mg/l
  2. B.13.6 mg/l
  3. C.33.6 mg/l
  4. D.53.6 mg/l
Q 7 :
Consider the following statements in respect of aerated grit chamber:
1. The grit accumulates at the bottom in advancing spiral-flow aeration tanks, location ally preceded by grit chambers, led to the eventual development of aerated grit chambers.
2. The excessive wear on grit handling equipment is a major factor for the popularity of aerated grit chambers.
3. Aerated grit chambers are designed to provide detention period of 1 minute at maximum rate of flow.  
4. Diffusers are located at 0.45 m to 0.6 m above the bottom of teh chamber.
Which of the above statements are correct? 
  1. A.1, 2 and 3 only 
  2. B.3 and 4 only 
  3. C.1, 2 and 4 only 
  4. D.1, 2, 3 and 4
Q 8 :
Quick sand condition occurs when 
  1. A.the void ratio of the soil becomes 1.0  
  2. B.the upward seepage pressure in soil becomes zero 
  3. C.the upward seepage pressure in soil becones equal to the saturated unit weight of he soil 
  4. D.the upward seepage pressure in soil becomes equal to he submerged unit weight of the soil 
Q 9 :
The side of a square land was measured as 150 m and is in error by 0.05 m. What is the corresponding error in the computed area of the land.
  1. A.5 m2
  2. B.25 m2
  3. C.10 m2
  4. D.20 m2 
Q 10 :
Consider the following statements in respect of anaerobic sludge digester:
1. It is less expensive compared to several other methods available.
2. Processing of separable solids impacts the environment to a minimum
3. Quantity of separated solids requiring disposal is minimal
4. Digested sludge is very readily dewaterable.
Which of the above statements are correct? 
  1. A.1, 2, 3 and 4 
  2. B.1, 2 and 3 only 
  3. C.3 and 4 only 
  4. D.1, 2 and 4 only
Q 11 :
Consider the following statements as regards a Septic Tank 
1. The size required is large and uneconomical when serving more than roughly 100 persons.
2. It can remove around 90% of BOD and 80% of suspended solids.
3. As compared to the sludge holdings of a plain sedimentation tank, a septic tank can hold about 90% less of sludge volume.
4. Frequent removal of sludge is not required Which of the above statements are correct? 
  1. A.1 and 2
  2. B.1 and 3
  3. C.3 and 4
  4. D.1 and 4
Q 12 :
Sewage sickness relates to 
  1. A.Toxicity of sewage interfering with ‘response’ to treatment 
  2. B.Destruction of aquatic flora and fauna due to gross pollution of receiving bodies of water by the sewage 
  3. C.reduction in the waste purifying capacity of the soil 
  4. D.Clogging of pores in soil due to excessive application of sewage leading to obstruction of land aeration thereby leading to septic conditions in the land
Q 13 :
The waste water of a certain large colony contains 10–5.6 mmol of OH– ions at 25ºC. The pH of this sample is
  1. A.8.6 
  2. B.7.9 
  3. C.5.4 
  4. D.4.5 
Q 14 :
Consider the relevance of the following features for causing photochemical smog:
1. Air stagnation
2. Abundant sunlight
3. High concentration of NOx in atmosphere.
4. High concentration of SO2 in atmosphere. Which of the above features are correct? 
  1. A.1, 2 and 4 only 
  2. B.3 and 4 only 
  3. C.1, 2 and 3 only 
  4. D.1, 2, 3 and 4
Q 15 :
Consider the following statements related to ecology:
1. All the physical, chemical and biological factors that a species needs in order to live and reproduce is called ecological niche.
2. The boundary zone between two ecosystems is known as ecotone.
3. The forests in the Arctics are known as tundra.
4. A biome usually has a distinct climate and life forms adapted to that climate. Biome is more extensive and complex than an ecosystem Which of the above statements are correct? 
  1. A.1, 2 and 3 only 
  2. B.1, 2 and 4 only 
  3. C.3 and 4 only 
  4. D.1, 2, 3 and 4
Q 16 :
Consider the following laws of ecology suggested by Barry Commoner:
1. Everything is connected to everything else.
2. Everything must go somewhere.
3. Nature knows best.
4. There is no such thing as a free lunch.
Which of the above statements are correct? 
  1. A.1, 2 and 3 only 
  2. B.1, 2 and 4 only 
  3. C.3 and 4 only
  4. D.1, 2, 3 and 4 
Q 17 :
For a hydraulically efficient rectangular channel of bed width 5m, the hydraulic radius is
  1. A.0.5m
  2. B.1.25m
  3. C.2.75m
  4. D.4.25m
Q 18 :
A soil sample has shrinkage limit of 6%, and the specific gravity of the soil grains is 2.6. The porosity of soil at shrinkage limit is
  1. A.7.5% 
  2. B.9.5% 
  3. C.13.5% 
  4. D.16.5% 
Q 19 :
Local mean time of a place of longitude of 42036’ W is 8h 42m 15s AM. The corresponding Green which Mean Time is
  1. A.10 h 32 m 40 s AM
  2. B.11h 32 m 39s PM
  3. C.0 h 32 m 39s PM 
  4. D.11 h 32 m 39s AM
Q 20 :
A vertical photograph of a flat area having an average elevation of 250m above mean sea level was taken with a camera of focal length 25 cm. A section line AB 300 m long in the area measures 15cm on the photograph; a tower BP in the area also appears on the photograph. The distance between images of top and bottom of the tower measures 0.5 cm on the photograph. The distance of the image of the top of the tower is 10 cm. The actual height of the tower is
  1. A.10 m
  2. B.15 m
  3. C.20 m
  4. D.25 m
Q 21 :
A transportation trip survey was undertaken between private car, and public car transportation. The proportion of those using private cars is 0.45. While using the public transport, the further choices available are Metro Rail and Mono Rail, out of which commuting by a Mono Rail has a proportion of 0.55. In such a situation, the choice of interest in using a Metro Rail, Mono Rail and private car would be respectively.
  1. A.0.25, 0.3 and 0.45 
  2. B.0.45, 0.25 and 0.3
  3. C.0.25, 0.45 and 0.3 
  4. D.0.3, 0.25 and 0.45
Q 22 :
An airfoil of surface area 0.1 m2 is tested for lift L in a wind tunnel. (Conditions can be considered as incompressible flow.) At an angle of attack of 5°, with standard air density 1.22 kg/m3, at a speed of 30m/sec, the lift is measured to be 3.2 kgf. What is the lift coefficient? For a prototype wing of area 10 m2, what is the approximate lift at an air speed of 160 kmph at the same angle of attack of 5°?
  1. A.0.572 and 700 kgf
  2. B.0.603 and 700 kfg
  3. C.0.572 and 570 kgf 
  4. D.0.603 and 570 kgf 
Q 23 :
Two tanks A and B, of constant cross-sectional areas of 10 m2 and 2.5 m2, respectively, are connected by a 5cm pipe, 100 m long, with f = 0.03. If the initial difference of water levels is 3m, how long will it take for 2.5 m3 of water to flow from A to B? Considering entry and exit losses, it can be grossly assumed that the flow velocity, in m/s, through the pipe is 1.75 h, where h is in m, taking g = 10 m/sec2; also, may take area of pipe as 2 × 10–3 m2.
  1. A.535 seconds
  2. B.516 seconds
  3. C.485 seconds
  4. D.467 seconds
Q 24 :
The consistency and flow resistance of a sample of bitumen can be determined through which of the following tests?
  1. A.Viscosity test
  2. B.Penetration test
  3. C.Ductility test
  4. D.Softening point test
Q 25 :
A pipe of 324 mm diameter, having friction coefficient as 0.04, connects two reservoirs with 15 m difference in their water levels through a 1500 m long pipe. What will be the discharge through the pipe?
  1. A.104 lps
  2. B.134 lps
  3. C.165 lps
  4. D.196 lps
Q 26 :
Flexible concrete is a mix comprising of
  1. A.Gravel, filler and 30/40 bitumen
  2. B.Sand, filler and 30/40 bitumen only
  3. C.Gravel, sand, filler and 60/70 bitumen
  4. D.Sand, filler and 60/70 bitumen only
Q 27 :
Consider a soil sample, for which tests yield the following results:
Passing 75 micron sieve            62%
Liquid limit                                35%
Plasticity Index                          14%
As per the group index classification of soil, what is the soil condition of the above soil sample?
  1. A.Poor 
  2. B.Fair
  3. C.Good
  4. D.Excellent
Q 28 :
Consider the following statements regarding ductility of bitumen:
1. Ductility is the property which does not permit bitumen to undergo large deformation without breaking.
2. Bitumens with high ductility are generally adhesive but do not have good cementing properties.
3. Ductility must be ascertained at two different temperatures in order to pronounce on the suitability of the material.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
  1. A.3 only
  2. B.2 only
  3. C.1 only
  4. D.1, 2 and 3
Q 29 :
What is the critical thickness of a prestressed concrete pavement (using Westergaard’s Corner Load Formula) to support a maximum wheel load of 4200 kg? Allow 10% for impact. Tyre pressure may be taken as 7 kg/cm2. Assume flexural strength of concrete as 50 kg/cm2, factor of safety as 2, subgrade reaction for plastic mix road as 6 kg/cm3, and modulus of elasticity as 3 × 105 kg/cm2.
  1. A.19.6 cm
  2. B.21.6 cm
  3. C.23.6 cm
  4. D.25.6 cm
Q 30 :
At a hydraulic jump, the flow depths are 0.4 m and 5 m at the upstream and downstream, respectively. The channel is wide rectangular. The discharge per unit width is nearly
  1. A.5.8 m2/s
  2. B.6.4 m2/s
  3. C. 7.3 m2/s
  4. D.8.3 m2/s
Q 31 :
Overspeed and delay studies on a preselected section of a Highway are conducted by
  1. A.Fast moving car method
  2. B.Enoscope
  3. C.Radar 
  4. D.Traffic contours
Q 32 :
The surface tension of water at 20°C is 75 × 10–3 N/m. The difference in water surface within and outside an open-ended capillary tube of 1mm internal bore, inserted at the water surface, would nearly, be
  1. A.7 mm
  2. B.11 mm
  3. C.15 mm
  4. D.19 mm
Q 33 :
Survey of India was publishing toposheets using a scale of
  1. A.1 :  1000
  2. B.1 : 5000
  3. C.1 :  10000
  4. D.1 : 50000
Q 34 :
The maximum speed of a train on B.G. track having a curvature of 3° and cant of 10 cm with allowable cant deficiency of 76 mm, for conditions obtaining in India, is
  1. A.87.6 km/h
  2. B.99.6 km/h
  3. C.76.6 km/h
  4. D.65.6 km/h
Q 35 :
The gradient for a B.G railway line such that the grade resistance together with curve resistance due a 4° curve which will be equivalent to a simple ruling gradient of 1 in 150 is
  1. A.1 :  180
  2. B.1 : 200
  3. C.1 : 300
  4. D.1 : 400
Q 36 :
A pelton wheel works under a head of 400m. Friction loss through the pipe flow is limited to 10%. The coefficient of velocity for the jet is 0.98. What is the velocity of the jet?
Take g = 10 m/s2.
  1. A.83 m/s
  2. B.71 m/s
  3. C.65 m/s
  4. D.56 m/s
Q 37 :
The value of porosity of a soil sample in which the total volume of soil grains is equal to twice the total volume of voids would be
  1. A.30%
  2. B.40%
  3. C.50%
  4. D.60%
Q 38 :
A solid cylinder of length H, diameter D and of relative density S floats in neutral equilibrium in water with its axis vertical. What is the ratio of H to D if S = 0.6?
  1. A.0.86
  2. B.0.72
  3. C.0.52
  4. D.0.46
Q 39 :
In a two-dimensional flow, with its stream function  = 2xy, the velocity at a point (3,4) is
  1. A.12.0 units
  2. B.10.0 units
  3. C.8.0 units
  4. D.6.0 units
Q 40 :
An open rectangular tank of dimensions 4m×3m×2m contains water to a height of 1.6m. It is then accelerated along the longer side. What is the maximum acceleration possible without spilling the water? If this acceleration is then increased by 10%, what amount of water will be spilt off?
  1. A.1.472 m/s2 and 0.48 m3
  2. B.1.962 m/s2 and 0.48 m3
  3. C.1.472 m/s2 and 0.52 m3
  4. D.1.962 m/s2 and 0.52 m3
Q 41 :
While conducting the flow measurement using a triangular notch, an error of +2% in head over the notch is observed. The percentage error in the computed discharge would be
  1. A.+7%
  2. B.–3%
  3. C.+5%
  4. D.–4%
Q 42 :
An orifice is located in the side of a tank with its centre 10 cm above the base of the tank. The constant water level is 1.0 m above the centre of orifice. The coefficient of velocity is 0.98. On the issuing jet, the horizontal distance from the vena-contracta to where the jet is 10 cm below vena-contracta is
  1. A.1.62m
  2. B.1.00m
  3. C.0.62m
  4. D.0.32m
Q 43 :
The velocity of water at the outer edge of a 60cm diameter whirlpool, where the water level is horizontal is 2.5 m/s. The velocity of water at a level where the diameter of the whirlpool is 15 cm, is
  1. A.1 m/s
  2. B.5 m/s
  3. C.8 m/s
  4. D.10 m/s
Q 44 :
In a trapezoidal channel with bed width of 2m, and side slopes of 2V on 1H, critical flow occurs at a depth of 1m. What will be the quantity of flow and the flow velocity?
Take g as 10m/s2.
  1. A.7.22 m3/s and 3.10 m/s
  2. B.6.82 m3/s and 2.89 m/s
  3. C.7.22 m3/s and 2.89 m/s
  4. D.6.82 m3/s and 3.10 m/s
Q 45 :
A 7.5 m wide rectangular channel conveys 12 m3/s of water with a velocity of 1.5 m/s. The specific energy head of the flow is
  1. A.1.18m
  2. B.1.78m
  3. C.2.18m
  4. D.2.78m 
Q 46 :
The sequent depth ratio in a hydraulic jump formed in a rectangular horizontal channel is 10. The Froude number of the supercritical flow is
  1. A.12.2
  2. B.10.4
  3. C.7.42
  4. D.4.21
Q 47 :
A partially open sluice gate discharges water at 6 m/s with a depth of 40 cm in a rectangular horizontal channel of width 5 m. What would be the post-jump depth of flow on the downstream of the gate by taking g as 10 m/s2?
  1. A.1.51 m
  2. B.1.70 m
  3. C.1.85 m
  4. D.1.95 m
Q 48 :
What is the maximum power available at the downstream end of a pipeline 3 km long, 20 cm in diameter, if water enters at the upstream end at a pressure of 720 m of water, with the taking pipe friction coefficient as 0.03 and g as 10m/s2?
  1. A.770 mhp
  2. B.740 mhp
  3. C.700 mhp
  4. D.660 mhp
Q 49 :
In the design of pipeline the usual practice is to assume that due to aging of pipelines:
1. The effective roughness increases linearly with time
2. The friction factor increases linearly with time 3. The flow through the pipe becomes linearly lesser with time.
Which of the above statements is/are correct? 
  1. A.1,2  and 3
  2. B.3 only
  3. C.2 only
  4. D.1 only
Q 50 :
Consider the following statements:
1. In flow through hydro-dynamically smooth pipes, the friction factor f is always a constant. In flow through hydro-dynamically smooth pipes, the friction factor f is always a function of the flow Reynolds number.
3. In a fully developed rough turbulent pipe flow, the friction factor f is a function of relative roughness only.
4. In a fully developed rough turbulent pipe flow, the friction factor f is a function of the flow Reynolds number and relative roughness.
Which of the above statements are correct? 
  1. A.1 and 3
  2. B.2 and 3
  3. C.2 and 4
  4. D.1 and 4

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