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Question Bank

KPSC Assistant Surgeon Exam - English

Duration: 75 · Questions: 100 · Max Marks: 100 · Language: 1

View Kerala PSC Assistant Surgeon 2026 Exam Page

Professional Knowledge (Surgeon)

1
Community medicine primarily focuses on :
  1. A.Individual patient care
  2. B.Preventive healthcare
  3. C.Specialized surgeries
  4. D.Emergency medicine
2
Which of the following is a core principle of community medicine ?
  1. A.Curative care
  2. B.Early diagnosis
  3. C.Health promotion and disease prevention
  4. D.Surgery and interventions
3
What is the main goal of primary healthcare ?
  1. A.Treating complex diseases
  2. B.Providing specialized surgeries
  3. C.Delivering essential healthcare to all individuals and families
  4. D.Managing chronic illnesses
4
Which level of healthcare focuses on specialized medical and surgical services ?
  1. A.Primary healthcare
  2. B.Secondary healthcare
  3. C.Tertiary healthcare
  4. D.Quaternary healthcare
5
The "Five A's" of healthcare delivery include all of the following except :
  1. A.Accessibility
  2. B.Affordability
  3. C.Accountability
  4. D.Acceptability
6
What is the normal duration of human pregnancy, commonly referred to as gestation ?
  1. A.6 months
  2. B.7 months
  3. C.9 months
  4. D.12 months
7
Which hormone is responsible for maintaining the uterine lining during pregnancy and preventing uterine contractions until labor begins ?
  1. A.Estrogen
  2. B.Progesterone
  3. C.Human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG)
  4. D.Follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH)
8
What is the term for the delivery of a baby through an incision made in the abdominal and uterine walls ?
  1. A.Vaginal delivery
  2. B.Breech delivery
  3. C.Cesarean section
  4. D.Vacuum extraction
9
Which presentation occurs when the baby's buttocks or feet are positioned to be delivered first instead of the head ?
  1. A.Vertex presentation
  2. B.Frank breech presentation
  3. C.Complete breech presentation
  4. D.Footling breech presentation
10
What is the term for the process of the fetus moving from the uterus into the birth canal prior to labor and delivery ?
  1. A.Effacement
  2. B.Engagement
  3. C.Flexion
  4. D.Descent
11
What is the primary goal of forensic science?
  1. A. Solve crimes
  2. B.Conduct medical research
  3. C.Predict future criminal behavior
  4. D.Conduct psychological assessments
12
Who is often considered the "Father of Modern Forensic Science"?
  1. A. Sir Arthur Conan Doyle
  2. B.Sir Francis Galton
  3. C. Sir William Herschel
  4. D.Edmond Locard
13
When was the first recorded use of fingerprints for identification purposes?
  1. A.18th century
  2. B.19th century
  3. C.20th century
  4. D.21st century
14
In the context of forensic science, what does CODIS stand for?
  1. A. Central Organization for Digital Investigation and Surveillance
  2. B.Combined DNA Index System
  3. C.Center for Onsite Drug Identification and Surveillance
  4. D.Chain of Digital Investigation and Surveillance
15
Which ancient civilization is credited with the earliest recorded use of forensic science?
  1. A.Egyptian
  2. B.Roman
  3. C.Greek
  4. D.Chinese
16
What is the first-line treatment for a child experiencing an acute asthma attack ?
  1. A.Antibiotics
  2. B.Bronchodilators (e.g., albuterol)
  3. C.Antipyretics
  4. D.Intravenous fluids
17
What is the most common cause of seizures in children aged 6 months to 5 years ?
  1. A.Meningitis
  2. B.Febrile illness
  3. C.Hypoglycaemia
  4. D.Head injury
18
What is the recommended initial management for a child with a suspected foreign body aspiration ?
  1. A.Administering antibiotics
  2. B.Inducing vomiting
  3. C.Performing chest compressions
  4. D.Immediate bronchoscopy
19
Which of the following is a characteristic feature of Kawasaki disease ?
  1. A.Persistent cough
  2. B.Strawberry tongue
  3. C.Jaundice
  4. D.Cyanosis
20
In a child with a suspected appendicitis, which imaging modality is often preferred for diagnosis ?
  1. A.Chest X-ray
  2. B.Abdominal ultrasound
  3. C.Magnetic resonance imaging (MRI)
  4. D.Electrocardiogram (ECG)
21
Which organ is primarily affected by hepatitis?
  1. A.Kidney
  2. B.Liver
  3. C.Heart
  4. D.Lungs
22
Which hormone is responsible for regulating blood sugar levels?
  1. A.Thyroxine
  2. B.Insulin
  3. C.Cortisol
  4. D.Estrogen
23
Which hormone is responsible for the regulation of water and electrolyte balance in the body?
  1. A.Insulin
  2. B.Antidiuretic hormone (ADH)
  3. C.Thyroxine
  4. D.Cortisol
24
What is the hallmark symptom of asthma?
  1. A.Chest pain
  2. B.Shortness of breath
  3. C.Chronic cough
  4. D.Fatigue
25
What is the primary function of the spleen?
  1. A.Blood filtration and storage of platelets
  2. B.Production of red blood cells
  3. C.Storage of bile
  4. D.Regulation of blood sugar levels
26
What is the primary purpose of a cholecystectomy?
  1. A.Appendicitis
  2. B.Gallstone removal
  3. C.Hernia repair
  4. D.Kidney transplant
27
Which organ is primarily involved in a Whipple procedure?
  1. A.Stomach
  2. B.Pancreas
  3. C.Liver
  4. D.Small intestine
28
In a laparoscopic surgery, what type of instrument is used for cutting tissues?
  1. A.Grasper
  2. B.Scissors
  3. C.Trocar
  4. D.Suture needle
29
What is the primary indication for a splenectomy?
  1. A.Appendicitis
  2. B.Splenic rupture
  3. C.Gastric ulcer
  4. D.Colorectal cancer
30
squamous cell carcinoma. The most appropriate next step is:
  1. A.Esophagectomy with gastric pull-up
  2. B.Chemoradiation therapy
  3. C.Chemotherapy alone
  4. D.Endoscopic stent placement
  5. E.Observation with palliative care
31
What is the primary purpose of oral medicine?
  1. A.Surgical interventions
  2. B.Diagnosis and non-surgical management of oral diseases
  3. C.Radiographic imaging
  4. D.Orthodontic treatments
32
In oral radiology, which imaging technique is commonly used to visualize the temporomandibular joint (TMJ)?
  1. A.Panoramic radiography
  2. B.Cone-beam computed tomography (CBCT)
  3. C.Magnetic resonance imaging (MRI)
  4. D.Ultrasound imaging
33
What is the term for a localized collection of pus within the tissues of the oral cavity?
  1. A.Cyst
  2. B.Abscess
  3. C.Fistula
  4. D.Granuloma
34
Which condition is characterized by the abnormal presence of lactobacilli on the tooth surface?
  1. A.Dental caries
  2. B.Periodontitis
  3. C.Oral candidiasis
  4. D.Leukoplakia
35
In oral radiology, what does the term "bitewing" refer to?
  1. A.A type of panoramic radiograph
  2. B.Radiographic assessment of the TMJ
  3. C.X-ray examination of the maxillary sinuses
  4. D.Radiographs where the patient bites on a tab to show the crowns of the upper and lower teeth
36
Which type of light is used to detect bodily fluids at a crime scene?
  1. A.Infrared
  2. B.Ultraviolet
  3. C.Visible light
  4. D.X-ray
37
What is the purpose of a forensic entomologist at a crime scene?
  1. A.Identify cause of death
  2. B.Determine time of death
  3. C.Detect poison in blood
  4. D.Measure body temperature
38
The term "chain of custody" refers to:
  1. A.The sequence of steps in autopsy
  2. B.The protocol for evidence handling
  3. C.The list of witnesses
  4. D.The order of police rank
39
Which of the following is a tool used for measuring distances at a crime scene?
  1. A.Calipers
  2. B.Surveyor’s tape
  3. C.Protractor
  4. D.Microscope
40
Luminol is a chemical used in forensic investigations to detect:
  1. A.Narcotics
  2. B.Explosives
  3. C.Blood traces
  4. D.DNA
41
What is the primary cause of the characteristic pigmentation loss in vitiligo?
  1. A.Melanocyte destruction
  2. B.Excessive melanin production
  3. C.Bacterial infection
  4. D.Fungal overgrowth
42
The “itch-scratch” cycle is most commonly associated with which skin condition?
  1. A.Vitiligo
  2. B.Eczema
  3. C.Psoriasis
  4. D.Lichen Planus
43
Which skin condition is known for its "target lesions," typically seen in severe drug reactions?
  1. A.Eczema
  2. B.Psoriasis
  3. C.Stevens-Johnson Syndrome
  4. D.Scabies
44
A complication of severe scabies infestation that can lead to a bacterial infection is known as:
  1. A.Erythema
  2. B.Cellulitis
  3. C.Lymphangitis
  4. D.Pityriasis
45
Which condition often manifests with silvery plaques on extensor surfaces like the elbows and knees?
  1. A.Eczema
  2. B.Psoriasis
  3. C.Lichen Planus
  4. D.Scabies
46
What is the process of formation of mature sperm cells called?
  1. A.Spermatogenesis
  2. B.Oogenesis
  3. C.Zygogenesis
  4. D.Fertilization
47
The fusion of male and female gametes during fertilization results in the formation of?
  1. A.Zygote
  2. B.Embryo
  3. C.Blastocyst
  4. D.Fetus
48
Where does fertilization most commonly occur in the female reproductive system?
  1. A.Uterus
  2. B.Ovary
  3. C.Fallopian tube
  4. D.Cervix
49
What is the term for the process where the fertilized egg attaches to the uterine wall?
  1. A.Implantation
  2. B.Fertilization
  3. C.Ovulation
  4. D.Menstruation
50
The zona pellucida is a glycoprotein layer surrounding which part of the female reproductive system?
  1. A.Ovary
  2. B.Egg (oocyte)
  3. C.Uterus
  4. D.Fallopian tube
51
Which nerve primarily innervates the diaphragm?
  1. A.Intercostal nerves
  2. B.Phrenic nerve
  3. C.Vagus nerve
  4. D.Recurrent laryngeal nerve
52
The phrenic nerve originates from which cervical nerve roots?
  1. A.C1-C2
  2. B.C2-C3
  3. C.C3-C5
  4. D.C6-C8
53
The cricoid cartilage is located at which cervical vertebral level?
  1. A.C2
  2. B.C3
  3. C.C5
  4. D.C6
54
Which muscle is responsible for vocal cord abduction?
  1. A.Lateral cricoarytenoid
  2. B.Thyroarytenoid
  3. C.Posterior cricoarytenoid
  4. D.Transverse arytenoid
55
The space between the true vocal cords is known as the:
  1. A.Glottis
  2. B.Vestibule
  3. C.Subglottis
  4. D.Rima glottidis
56
What is the main function of the external ear?
  1. A.Sound conduction
  2. B.Sound amplification
  3. C.Balance maintenance
  4. D.Sound detection
57
Which part of the ear contains the organ of Corti?
  1. A.External ear
  2. B.Middle ear
  3. C.Inner ear
  4. D.Eustachian tube
58
Which test compares air conduction (Ac) and bone conduction (Bc) of sound?
  1. A.Weber's test
  2. B.Rinne's test
  3. C.Schwabach test
  4. D.Absolute bone conduction test
59
What is the primary cause of Otitis Externa?
  1. A.Viral infection
  2. B.Fungal infection
  3. C.Bacterial infection
  4. D.Allergy
60
A patient presents with ear pain, discharge, and a swollen ear canal. What is the most likely diagnosis?
  1. A.Acute otitis media
  2. B.Otitis externa
  3. C.CSOM
  4. D.Meniere’s disease
61
Which classification system is widely used for diagnosing psychiatric disorders?
  1. A.ICD
  2. B.DSM
  3. C.Both a and b
  4. D.None of the above
62
What is the primary purpose of a Mental Status Examination (MSE)?
  1. A.To diagnose medical illnesses
  2. B.To assess the psychological state of a patient
  3. C.To determine a patient's physical fitness
  4. D.To assess family dynamics
63
The principle of psychiatric history-taking includes which of the following?
  1. A.Asking only about physical symptoms
  2. B.Exploring a patient's emotional and behavioral patterns
  3. C.Focusing only on past psychiatric illnesses
  4. D.None of the above
64
Which of the following is a core symptom of Major Depressive Disorder (MDD)?
  1. A.Elevated mood
  2. B.Increased energy
  3. C.Loss of interest or pleasure in activities
  4. D.Decreased sleep
65
Bipolar Affective Disorder (BPAd) includes which of the following?
  1. A.Only depressive episodes
  2. B.Only manic episodes
  3. C.Both manic and depressive episodes
  4. D.Neither
66
What is the first step in clinical decision-making?
  1. A.Diagnosis
  2. B.Gathering patient data
  3. C.Treatment
  4. D.Prognosis
67
What strategy helps reduce diagnostic errors?
  1. A.Relying only on intuition
  2. B.Reflective practice and differential diagnosis
  3. C.Ignoring patient history
  4. D.Using one investigation
68
What does a high negative predictive value indicate in a test?
  1. A.Few false positives
  2. B.Few false negatives
  3. C.Low sensitivity
  4. D.Poor accuracy
69
Which analysis compares benefits and risks of a treatment?
  1. A.Cost-analysis
  2. B.Risk-benefit analysis
  3. C.Sensitivity analysis
  4. D.Dose-response analysis
70
Clinical decision trees help by?
  1. A.Randomizing care
  2. B.Standardizing management and reducing variability
  3. C.Ignoring patient preference
  4. D.Always admitting patients
71
What is a hallmark symptom of schizophrenia?
  1. A.Low mood
  2. B.Delusions
  3. C.Panic attacks
  4. D.Compulsions
72
Which neurotransmitter is most implicated in schizophrenia?
  1. A.Serotonin
  2. B.Dopamine
  3. C.GABA
  4. D.Acetylcholine
73
What is the minimum duration of symptoms for a schizophrenia diagnosis?
  1. A.1 week
  2. B.1 month
  3. C.6 months
  4. D.1 year
74
Which type of delusion is characteristic of delusional disorder?
  1. A.Bizarre delusions
  2. B.Non-bizarre delusions
  3. C.Auditory hallucinations
  4. D.Disorganized thinking
75
What is a common feature of schizoaffective disorder?
  1. A.Mood symptoms concurrent with psychotic symptoms
  2. B.Absence of hallucinations
  3. C.Short duration of symptoms
  4. D.No mood symptoms
76
What is the first-line pharmacological treatment for schizophrenia?
  1. A.Antidepressants
  2. B.Antipsychotics
  3. C.Benzodiazepines
  4. D.Mood stabilizers
77
What is the definition of a fracture?
  1. A.Complete or incomplete break in the continuity of a bone
  2. B.Partial displacement of a joint
  3. C.Tearing of a ligament
  4. D.Overstretching of a muscle
78
A dislocation is best described as?
  1. A.Partial loss of contact between articular surfaces
  2. B.A tear in a tendon
  3. C.Complete loss of contact between articular surfaces
  4. D.A bone break with soft tissue injury
79
What is the term for partial displacement of a joint?
  1. A.Dislocation
  2. B.Subluxation
  3. C.Sprain
  4. D.Strain
80
A sprain involves injury to which structure?
  1. A.Bone
  2. B.Tendon
  3. C.Muscle
  4. D.Ligament
81
What is the definition of a strain?
  1. A.Injury to a ligament
  2. B.Complete bone break
  3. C.Injury to a muscle or tendon
  4. D.Joint dislocation
82
Which type of trauma involves a direct blow to the bone?
  1. A.Indirect trauma
  2. B.High-energy trauma
  3. C.Direct trauma
  4. D.Low-energy trauma
83
What is the outermost layer of the eyeball?
  1. A.Neural layer
  2. B.Fibrous layer
  3. C.Vascular layer
  4. D.Pigmented layer
84
Which structure forms the anterior boundary of the vitreous chamber?
  1. A.Lens
  2. B.Cornea
  3. C.Iris
  4. D.Ciliary body
85
Aqueous humor is primarily drained through which structure?
  1. A.Vitreous chamber
  2. B.Canal of Schlemm
  3. C.Posterior chamber
  4. D.Choroid
86
What is the primary function of the trabecular meshwork?
  1. A.Secretion of aqueous humor
  2. B.Production of vitreous humor
  3. C.Drainage of aqueous humor
  4. D.Regulation of pupil size
87
Which of the following is a pathway for aqueous humor outflow besides the trabecular meshwork?
  1. A.Uveoscleral outflow
  2. B.Choroidal pathway
  3. C.Retinal pathway
  4. D.Lens outflow
88
What is the primary component of vitreous humor?
  1. A.Sodium and chloride
  2. B.Glucose and proteins
  3. C.Lipids and cholesterol
  4. D.Collagen and hyaluronic acid
89
What is the definition of birth rate?
  1. A.Number of live births per 1000 population per year
  2. B.Number of deaths per 1000 population per year
  3. C.Number of infant deaths per 1000 live births
  4. D.Number of maternal deaths per 100,000 live births
90
What does the maternal mortality rate (MMR) measure?
  1. A.Number of maternal deaths per 100,000 live births
  2. B.Number of infant deaths per 1000 live births
  3. C.Number of live births per 1000 population
  4. D.Number of deaths per 1000 population
91
What is the infant mortality rate (IMR)?
  1. A.Number of deaths of infants under 1 year per 1000 live births
  2. B.Number of live births per 1000 population
  3. C.Number of maternal deaths per 100,000 live births
  4. D.Number of deaths per 1000 population
92
What does total fertility rate (TFR) represent?
  1. A.Number of live births per 1000 population
  2. B.Average number of children a woman would bear in her lifetime
  3. C.Number of deaths per 1000 population
  4. D.Number of infant deaths per 1000 live births
93
What is the crude death rate?
  1. A.Number of maternal deaths per 100,000 live births
  2. B.Number of live births per 1000 population
  3. C.Number of deaths per 1000 population per year
  4. D.Number of infant deaths per 1000 live births
94
What is the crude birth rate?
  1. A.Number of maternal deaths per 100,000 live births
  2. B.Number of live births per 1000 population per year
  3. C.Number of infant deaths per 1000 live births
  4. D.Number of deaths per 1000 population
95
What is a key component of the doctor-patient relationship in psychiatry?
  1. A.Empathy
  2. B.Authoritarianism
  3. C.Detachment
  4. D.Financial negotiation
96
What is essential for building a therapeutic alliance?
  1. A.Mutual trust
  2. B.Strict boundaries
  3. C.Limited interaction
  4. D.Formal language
97
What is a core principle of maintaining professional boundaries?
  1. A.Sharing personal details
  2. B.Avoiding dual relationships
  3. C.Engaging in social interactions
  4. D.Offering gifts to patients
98
What is a primary ethical duty in psychiatry regarding patient information?
  1. A.Public disclosure
  2. B.Maintaining confidentiality
  3. C.Sharing with family
  4. D.Posting on social media
99
When can a psychiatrist ethically break confidentiality?
  1. A.Patient’s request for disclosure
  2. B.Duty to warn of harm
  3. C.Curiosity of colleagues
  4. D.Media inquiry
100
What is a requirement for informed consent in psychiatric treatment?
  1. A.Written consent from family
  2. B.Verbal agreement only
  3. C.Full disclosure of risks and benefits
  4. D.Implied consent
Question for Kerala PSC Assistant Surgeon 2026 - Quiz / Questions / MCQ - Toppersexam