To boost your performance in KPSC Commercial Tax Inspector exam, practice each question regularly and with focus. Every question tests your subject understanding, so solve them one at a time. Taking a quiz improves your speed and accuracy. Practicing topic-wise MCQs. Students benefit greatly from reviewing questions with answer keys, which help clarify concepts and strengthen Questions knowledge for success in KPSC Commercial Tax Inspector exams.
Latest KPSC Commercial Tax Inspector Exam Question (Objective Questions), MCQ in English
Subjects : General Knowledge
Question Bank KPSC Commercial Tax Inspector (Paper-I) Exam - English
General Knowledge
Q 1 :
Yojna a weekly journal
A.Ministry of Finance
B.Ministry of Information and Broadcastin
C.Ministry of Rural Development
D.Planning Commission
Q 2 :
Kurukshetra a journal on rural development is published by
A.Ministry of Finance
B.Ministry of Information and Broadcastin
C.Ministry of Rural Development
D.Planning Commission
Q 3 :
Devaluation of a currency means
A.Fixing the value of the currency in conjuction with the movement in the value of a basket of predetermined currencies
B.Reduction in the value of a currency vis-à-vis major internationally traded currencies
C.Fixing the value of currency in multilateral consultaion with the IMF the World Bank and major trading partners
D.Permitting the currency to seek its worth in the international market
Q 4 :
In India rural incomes are generally lower than the urban incomes, which of the following reasons account for this
1. a large number of farmers are illiterate and know little about scientific agriculture
2. prices of primary products are lower than those of manufactured products
3. Investments in agriculture has been low when compared to investment in industry
A.1 and 3
B.2 and 3
C.1 and 2
D.1,2 and 3
Q 5 :
Which of the following programmes aims at the promotion of savings among rural women
A.Rashtriya Mahila Kosh
B.Indira Mahila Yojna
C.Jawahar Rozgar Yojna
D.Mahila Samridhi Yojna
Q 6 :
What is Net National Product
A.the money value of final goods and services produced annually in the economy
B.the money value of annual service generation in the economy
C.the money value of tangible goods produced annually in the economy
D.The money value of tangible goods available in the economy
Q 7 :
National income is the
A.net national product at market price
B.net national product at factor cost
C.net domestic product at market price
D.net domestic product at factor cost
Q 8 :
Chelliah Committee of 1992 deals with the overhauling of our
A.financial system
B.tax system
C.patents and copyrights
D.Public sector undertakings
Q 9 :
During which Five Year Plan was the annual growth rate of National Income the lowest
A.2nd plan
B.3rd plan
C.5th plan
D.6th plan
Q 10 :
Which of the following taxes is a progressive tax
A.sales tax
B.custom tax
C.excise tax
D.income tax
Q 11 :
Which of the following estimates the National Income in India
A.National Income Committee
B.Planning Commission
C.Reserve Bank Of India
D.Central Statistical Organisation
Q 12 :
India changed over to the decimal system, coinage in
A.April 1951
B.April 1955
C.April 1957
D.April 1978
Q 13 :
11th Five Year Plan aim at achieving 10% rural tele density in India from the present 1.9% by the year
A.2008
B.2009
C.2010
D.2012
Q 14 :
Which one of the following statements Monitorable Socio Economic Target of the 11th Five Year Plan under the head Environment is not correct
A.treat urban waste water by 2011-12
B.Increase energy efficiency by 20% points by 2016-17
C.attain WHO standards of air quality in all major cities by 2011-12
D.increase forest and tree cover by 15% points
Q 15 :
Who is the ex-officio chairman of Planning commission and National Development Council
A.President
B.Prime Minister
C.Finance Minister
D.Commerce Minister
Q 16 :
Persons below the poverty line in Indian are classified as such based on wheather
A.they belong to agriculture labourer household and the scheduled caste/trive social group
B.they get work for a prescribed minimum number of days in a year
C.they are entitled to a minimum prescribed food basket
D.their daily waged fall below the prescribed minimum wages
Q 17 :
Which of the following Committee’s recommendations are being followed for estimating proverty line in India
A.Dutt committee
B.Lakdawala committee
C.Cheliah Committee
D.Chakravorty Committee
Q 18 :
In which year India adopeted liberal and free market principles
A.1975
B.1981
C.1991
D.2000
Q 19 :
Consider the following statements
1. There is persistent investment over time only in select locals
2. some areas are agro climatically less conductive to development
3. some areas continue to face little or no agrarian transformation and the consequent lack of social and
4. some areas have faced continous political instability
Which of the above statements are correct
A.1,2 and 3
B.1,2 and 4
C.1,3 and 4
D.2,3 and 4
Q 20 :
When was first human development report of India issued
A.April 2001
B.March 2000
C.June 2002
D.April 2002
Q 21 :
How many censuses have been carried out since independence
A.5
B.6
C.7
D.8
Q 22 :
For which year the latest census is being conducted in India
A.2001
B.2010
C.2012
D.2011
Q 23 :
Which of the following are the features of 12th Five Year Plan -
1. Average growth target has been set up 8.2%
2. Areas of main thrust are infrastructure, health and education
3. it seeks to achieve 4% agriculture sector growth during five year period
A.1 only
B.1 and 2
C.1 and 3
D.1,2, and 3
Q 24 :
The period of 12th Five Year Plan
A.2007-12
B.2008-13
C.2010-15
D.2012-17
Q 25 :
A closed economy is an economy in which
A.the money supply is fully controlled
B.deficit financing takes place
C.only exports take place
D.neither exports nor imports take place
Q 26 :
Consider the following statements
1. a plan for the current year which includes the annual budget
2. a plan for a fixed number of years, say 34, and 5
3. it is revised every year as per requirements of the economy
4. A perspective plan for 10,15 or 20 years
Which of the above are correct
A.1 and 2
B.1 and 3
C.2 and 3
D.1,2,3 and 4
Q 27 :
In the context of Indian Economy consider the following pairs
Term Most Appropriate Description
1. Melt Down Fall in stock prices
2. Recession Fall in growth rate
3. Slow down Fall in GDP
Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched
A.1 only
B.2 and 3
C.1 and 3
D.1,2 and 3
Q 28 :
Deficit finacing means that the government borrows money from the
A.IMF
B.RBI
C.Local bodies
D.Big Businessmen
Q 29 :
In the context of India’s Five Year Plan a shift in the pattern of industrialization with lower emphasis on heavy industries and more on infrastructure begins in
A.4th plan
B.6th plan
C.8th plan
D.10th plan
Q 30 :
Which of the following is/are an indicator of the financial health of a country
1. GDP 2. PPP
3. FDI in a year
A.only 1
B.only 2
C.only 3
D.1,2 and 3
Q 31 :
Which statement is correct for Indian Planning Commission
A.Members and vice chairman of it do not have fixed working duration
B.it is not defined in Indian Constitution
C.Members do not require any minimum education
D.all of these
Q 32 :
__________ is the exofficio chairman of Planning Commission and National Development Council
A.Prime Minister
B.President
C.Finance Minister
D.Commerce Minister
Q 33 :
Which one of the following is the correct sequence in the decreasing order of contribution of different sectors to the Gross Domestic Product of India
A.services Industry- Agriculture
B.Services- Agriculture-Industry
C.Industry-Services-Agriculture
D.Industry-Agriculture-Services
Q 34 :
Which of the following is NOT a function of the Planning Commission of India
A.Assessment of the material ,capital and human resources of the country
B.formulation of plans for the most effective and balanced utilization of country’s resources
C.public cooperation in national development
D.preparation of annual budget of the country and collection of taxes to raise capital for the implementation of the plan
Q 35 :
Who among the following was the first Chairman of the Planning Commisison
A.Rajendra Prasad
B.Jawahar Lal Nehru
C.Sardar Ballabh Bhai Patel
D.J.B.Kriplani
Q 36 :
Which of the statements given below is/are correct
1. Food for Work Programme was launched in India during the 10th Five Year Plan
2. The Planning Commission in India is a constitutional body
A.1 only
B.2 only
C.both 1 and 2
D.Neither 1 nor 2
Q 37 :
How many such pairs of letters are there in the word ‘CLEANLINESS’ each of the which has as many letters between them in the word as they have in the English alphabet, in the same sequence?
A.Two
B.Three
C.Five
D.Four
E.None of these
Q 38 :
Team A has scored more goals than Team B
Team C has scored fewer goals than Team B
Team A has scored fewer goals than Team C .
If the first two statements are true, the third statement is
A.True
B.False
C.Uncertain
D.None
Q 39 :
If it is possible to make only one meaningful word with the second, the third, the sixth and the eight letters of the word FRAGMENT using each only once, which of the following will be the third letter of that word ? If no such word can be formed, give ‘X’ as the answer and if more than one such word can be formed, give ‘Y’ as the answer.
A.A
B.E
C.T
D.X
E.Y
Q 40 :
How many such letters are there in the word ORIENTAL each of which is as far away from the beginning of the word as when they are arranged alphabetically?
A.None
B.One
C.Two
D.Three
E.More than three
Q 41 :
How many such pairs of letters in the word CREDIT each of which has as many letters between them in the word as in the English alphabet?
A.None
B.One
C.Two
D.Three
E.More than three
Q 42 :
How many meaningful words can be made from the letters ‘LMEA’ using each letter only once in each word?
A.None
B.One
C.Two
D.Three
E.More than three
Q 43 :
If it is possible to make only one meaningful word with the first, the second, the seventh and the eighth letters of the word TEMPORAL, which of the following will be the first letter of that word? If more than one such word can be made, give ‘Y’ as the answer and if no such word can be made, give ‘X’ as the answer.
A.T
B.L
C.E
D.Y
E.X
Q 44 :
If the letters of the word HANDOVER are arranged alphabetically from left to right how many letters will remain at the same position?
A.None
B.One
C.Two
D.Three
E.More than three
Q 45 :
How many such pairs of letters are there in the word EXCURSION, each of which has as many letters between them in the word as they have in the English alphabet?
A.None
B.One
C.Two
D.Three
E.More than three
Q 46 :
If it is possible to make only one meaningful word with the first, the second, the third, the sixth and the eighth letters of the word DEVIATION first letter of that word is your answer? If more than one such word can be made formed your answer is ‘A’ and if no such word can be formed your answer is ‘B’.
A.V
B.T
C.E
D.A
E.B
Q 47 :
If each alternate letter beginning with the first in the word WORKING is replaced by the next letter in the English alphabet and each of the remaining letters is replaced by the previous letter in the English alphabet, which of the following will be the fourth from the right and after the replacement ?
A.N
B.Q
C.J
D.M
E.None of these
Q 48 :
How many pairs of letters are there in the word ‘SHIFTED’ each of which has as many letters between its two letters as there are between in the English alphabet?
A.None
B.One
C.Two
D.Three
E.None of these
Q 49 :
Statement: Is common currency a necessary ingredient for Europe’s growth ?
Arguments :
I. Yes, A common currency will enable entire Europe to market itself as one .
II. No, Similar experiments by Latin America countries have not affected their economies .
A.The only argument I is strong
B.Only argument II is strong
C.Either I or II is strong
D.Neither I nor II is strong
Q 50 :
If it is possible to make only one meaningful word with the first, the fifth, the sixth, the tenth and the eleventh letters of the word EXCEPTIONAL using each letter only once, first letter of that word is your answer. If no such word can be made formed your answer is ‘X’ and if more than one such word can be formed your answer is ‘Y’.
A.P
B.L
C.T
D.X
E.Y
Important Questions Package
KPSC Commercial Tax Inspector Exam Online Question Bank Package
Buy KPSC Commercial Tax Inspector Important Questions, MCQ, question answer in Hindi & English. It will help you to score high marks in KPSC Commercial Tax Inspector question bank 2026 in Online, PDF & Print study material.
+ Free Monthly Current Affairs, GK & more PDF Download
Sr.
Package Name
Amount
1.
KPSC Commercial Tax Inspector Exam Paper I - English (Old)
Description : 1000 Question with Answer
βΉ121[βΉ500]
2.
KPSC Commercial Tax Inspector (Paper-I) Exam - English
Description : 1000 Question with Answer.
βΉ101[βΉ500]
3.
KPSC Commercial Tax Inspector (Paper-I) Exam - English
Description : 2000 Question with Answer.
βΉ151[βΉ500]
4.
KPSC Commercial Tax Inspector (Paper-II) Exam - English
Description : 1000 Question with Answer.
βΉ101[βΉ500]
5.
KPSC Commercial Tax Inspector (Paper-II) Exam - English
Description : 2000 Question with Answer
βΉ151[βΉ500]
6.
KPSC Commercial Tax Inspector (Paper-I) Exam - English
Description : <span style="color:#800000"><span style="font-size:16px"><span style="font-family:georgia,serif"><strong>1000 Question & Answer Download in PDF (Send by Email)</strong></span></span></span>
βΉ101[βΉ450]
7.
KPSC Commercial Tax Inspector (Paper-II) Exam - English
Description : <span style="color:#800000"><span style="font-size:16px"><span style="font-family:georgia,serif"><strong>1000 Question & Answer Download in PDF (Send by Email)</strong></span></span></span>
βΉ101[βΉ450]
8.
KPSC Commercial Tax Inspector (Paper-I) Exam Question Bank Book - English
KPSC Commercial Tax Inspector Exam Paper I - English (Old)
Description : 1500 Question with Answer
βΉ141[βΉ500]
11.
KPSC Commercial Tax Inspector Exam Paper II - English (Old)
Description : 1000 Question with Answer
βΉ111[βΉ500]
12.
KPSC Commercial Tax Inspector Exam Paper II - English (Old)
Description : 1500 Question with Answer
βΉ141[βΉ500]
13.
KPSC Commercial Tax Inspector Exam Paper I - English (Old)
Description : <strong><span style="color:rgb(128, 0, 0)"><span style="font-size:16px"><span style="font-family:georgia,serif">1000 Question & Answer Download in PDF (Send by Email)</span></span></span></strong>
βΉ81[βΉ450]
14.
KPSC Commercial Tax Inspector Exam Paper II - English (Old)
Description : <strong><span style="color:rgb(128, 0, 0)"><span style="font-size:16px"><span style="font-family:georgia,serif">1000 Question & Answer Download in PDF (Send by Email)</span></span></span></strong>
βΉ81[βΉ450]
15.
KPSC Commercial Tax Officer Exam Prelims Exam Paper I - English (Old)
Description : 1000 Question with Answer
βΉ61[βΉ500]
General Knowledge
Q 51 :
How many meaningful English words can be formed with the letters RAE using each letter only once in each word?
A.None
B.One
C.Two
D.Three
E.More than three
Q 52 :
How many such pairs of letters are there in the word WONDERS, each of which has as many letters between its two letters as there are between them in the English alphabet?
A.One
B.Two
C.Three
D.Four
E.More than four
Q 53 :
If it is possible to make only one meaningful English word from the second, the fifth, the seventh and the eighth letters of the word PHYSICAL, using each letter only once, second letter of that word is your answer. If more than one such word can be formed your answer is M. if no such word can be formed your answer is N.
A.I
B.A
C.L
D.M
E.N
Q 54 :
How many such pairs of letters are there in the word JUSTIFY, each of which have as many letters between them in the word as they have between them in the English alphabet?
A.None
B.One
C.Two
D.Three
E.More than three
Q 55 :
If the alphabets are assigned values as A=3, D=6, G=8, I=2, L=4 and T=5 then what is the sum of values of all the alphabets in the word DIGITAL?
A.26
B.28
C.30
D.32
E.None of these
Q 56 :
How many such pairs of letters are there in the word EDUCATION, each of which has as many letters between them in the word as they have in the English alphabet?
A.None
B.One
C.Two
D.Three
E.More than three
Q 57 :
The state of Karnataka lies in........... region of India.
A.North east
B.South east
C.North west
D.South west
Q 58 :
. Karnataka shares its boundaries with
A.Tamil Nadu
B.Madhya Pradesh
C.Odisha
D.West Bengal
Q 59 :
The state of Karnataka took birth in
A.August 15,1927
B.November 30,1945
C.August 15,1947
D.November 1,1956
Q 60 :
Total number of districts at present is
A.30
B.40
C.50
D.60
Q 61 :
Official language of the state of Karnataka is
A.Telgu
B.English
C.Tamil
D.Karnanada and English
Q 62 :
Pick the odd one out among the following:
A.Yakshagana
B.Asian elephant
C.Indian Roller
D.Sunflower
Q 63 :
The following is state is state symbol of Karnataka
A.Lotus
B.Sunflower
C.Jasmine
D.Rose
Q 64 :
On June 5,2016 revenue minister of the following state resigned over corruption charges.
A.Karnataka
B.Maharashtra
C.Goa
D.Madhya Pradesh
Q 65 :
Along with kaveri the other major river system of Karnataka is
A.Ganga
B.Krishna
C.Mahanadi
D.Yamuna
Q 66 :
One of the following is not the tributary of Kaveri
A.Hewavati
B.Kabiri
C.Lakshuana
D.Bhima
Q 67 :
One of following is not a tributary of Keveri
A.Laleshmana
B.Vedavathi
C.Malaprabha
D.Tungbhadra
Q 68 :
Most of the rivers flow out of Krishna.
A.Eastward
B.Westward in Bay of Bengal
C.Nothward
D.Southward
Q 69 :
Kastri Viswanatha temple at Pattadakal is a UNESCO world Heritage site. It was build by kings of the
A.Chalukya Empire
B.Rashtrakuta Empire
C.Nando Empire
D.Mauryan Empire
Q 70 :
Mollikarbuna Temple in Karnataka was built by the kings of
A.Chalukya Empire
B.Rashrtrakuta Empire
C.Handa Empire
D.Mauryan Empire
Q 71 :
The earlist manuscripts were written on
A.palm leaves
B.paper
C.wood
D.stones
Q 72 :
What does BC and AD stands for?
A.Anno Domini and Before Common
B.Before Christ and Anno Domini
C.Anno Domini and Before Christ
D.None of the above
Q 73 :
Which of the following is/are characteristic(s) of a manuscript?
Γ’β¬βΉ(A) It is written on a hard surface such as a stone or a metal.
Γ’β¬βΉ(B) It is an old book written by hand.
(C) It is written on palm leaf or on specially prepared bark of the birch tree.
A.Only A
B.B and C
C.Only B
D.All of these
Q 74 :
Which one of the following statements is false?
A.History is about changes that over time, about finding out how things were in the past and how things have changed
B.In the histories narrated by British historians about India, the rule of each Governor-General was important
C.James Mill divided Indian History into three periods Hindu, Muslim and Christian
D.The British in India believed that surveys were important for effective administration
Q 75 :
Which is the criteria to decide that a particular date is important in history?
A.They are the date of birth of a king or emperor
B.A particular event or set of events has occurred on or around that date
C.It is the date of coronation of a king
D.All of the above
Q 76 :
Which of the following are incorrect statements?
(A) The archaeological evidence is obtained by the systematic examination of building monumentas and work of art.
(B) The credit for excavating the Pre-Aryan past goes to Sir William Jones.
(C) The Asiatic Society of Bengal established on 1786.
Γ’β¬βΉ(D) James Mill is known as the 'Father of Indian Archaeology'.
A.A and B
B.C and D
C.B and D
D.B, C and D
Q 77 :
Consider the following statements A and B and choose the correct option
(A) Inscriptions are the most reliable evidence and their study is called epigraphy.
(B) James Princep, the secretary of the Asiatic Society of Bengal succeeded for the first time in deciphering the Brahmi script.
A.Both A and B are true
B.A is false and B is true
C.A and B are false
D.A is true and B is false
Q 78 :
Consider the following statements A and B on the study of coins and choose the correct option
(A) The study of coins is known as numismatics
(B) The coins give us an idea about the socio-political aspect of that period.
A.Both A and B are true
B.A is false and B is true
C.A and B are false
D.A is true and B is false
Q 79 :
Temperature can be expressed as derived quantity in terms of
A.length and mass
B.mass and time
C.length, mass and time
D.None of these
Q 80 :
Electron volt is a unit of
A.potential difference
B.charge
C.energy
D.capacity
Q 81 :
Dimensions of impulse are
A.[MLT –1]
B.[MLT²]
C.[MT–2]
D.[ML–1T–3]
Q 82 :
Potential is measured in
A.joule/coulomb
B.watt/coulomb
C.newton–second
D.None of these
Q 83 :
Which of the following is not a synthetic fibre:
A.Anygora
B.Rayon
C.Nylon
D.Polyster
Q 84 :
Which one of the following is not contained in Portland cement ?
A.Ca3Al2O6
B.Ca3SiO5
C.Ca2SiO4
D.Ca3(PO4)2
Q 85 :
What is the reson for white cement to be white ?
A.It does not contain carbon
B.It does not contain silicon
C.It does not contain iron
D.It does not contain calcium
Q 86 :
Which fertilizer is assimilated directly by the plant ?
A.Super phosphate
B.Nitrolim
C.Muriate of Potash
D.Humus
Q 87 :
Which of the following contain enzymes for cellular respiration ?
A.Dictyosomes
B.Endoplasmic reticulum
C.lysosomes
D.Mitochondria
Q 88 :
Which one among the following nutrients is a strctural
A.Cell membrane
B.Plasma membrane
C.Cell wall
D.Nucleus
Q 89 :
Which one among the following nutrients is a structural component of the cell wall of plants ?
A.Manganese
B.Potassium
C.Phosphorus
D.Calcium
Q 90 :
Which of the following groups is present in animal cells ?