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Question for KSET Home Science - Quiz / Questions / MCQ in English

Last Update on : October 10, 2026

Duration: 120 Β· Questions: 100 Β· Max Marks: 100

View Karnataka SET Home Science 2026 Exam Page

To boost your performance in KSET Home Science exam, practice each question regularly and with focus. Every question tests your subject understanding, so solve them one at a time. Taking a quiz improves your speed and accuracy. Practicing topic-wise MCQs. Students benefit greatly from reviewing questions with answer keys, which help clarify concepts and strengthen Questions knowledge for success in KSET Home Science exams.

Latest KSET Home Science Exam Question (Objective Questions), MCQ in English

Subjects : Home Science

Question Bank KSET Home Science Exam Paper II - English

Home Science

Q 1 :
When was the POSHAN abhiyaan launched ?
  1. A.March 8, 2018
  2. B.January 26, 2018
  3. C.May 1, 2018
  4. D.April 30, 2018
Q 2 :
What are Sequestrates ?
  1. A.They are added to keep the food stable
  2. B.Form a complex ion with metals like copper, iron etc
  3. C.Added for colour
  4. D.They keep the food oxidized
Q 3 :
Vitamin D3 is also known as :
  1. A.Retinol
  2. B.Cholecalciferol
  3. C.Tocopherol
  4. D.Ergocalciferol
Q 4 :
When the food is directly given in the veins, it is called ?
  1. A.Parenteral nutrition
  2. B.Enteral nutrition
  3. C.Nasogastric nutrition
  4. D.Saline nutrition
Q 5 :
The time and temperature used for the pasteurisation of milk is :
  1. A.72° C/15 min
  2. B.72° C/15 sec
  3. C.72° C/30 min
  4. D.72° C/30 sec
Q 6 :
In order to pursue the research, which of the following is pre - required ?
  1. A.Developing a research design
  2. B.Formulating a research question
  3. C.Deciding about the data analysis procedure
  4. D.Formulating a research hypothesis
Q 7 :
Any two immiscible liquid when mixed together form an :
  1. A.Aerosol
  2. B.Emulsion
  3. C.Gel
  4. D.Sol
Q 8 :
Symptoms of thiamine deficiency are :
(a) Peripheral neuropathy
(b) Photophobia
(c) Cardiomegaly
(d) Koilonychias
(e) Tachycardia
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
  1. A.(a), (b) and (d) only
  2. B.(c), (d) and (e) only
  3. C.(a), (c) and (e) only
  4. D.(b), (d) and (e) only
Q 9 :
Proteins present in milk are :
(a) Lactalbumins
(b) Lacto globulins
(c) Casein
(d) Ovalbumin
(e) Myosin
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
  1. A.(a), (b) and (c) only
  2. B.(a), (c) and (e) only
  3. C.(b), (c) and (d) only
  4. D.(c), (d) and (e) only
Q 10 :
Identify the names of essential fatty acids :
(a) Linoleic
(b) Butyric
(c) Linoleic
(d) Meristic
(e) Arachidonic
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
  1. A.(a), (c) and (d) only
  2. B.(c), (d) and (e) only
  3. C.(a), (c) and (e) only
  4. D.(b), (d) and (e) only
Q 11 :
Major symptoms of diabetes are :
(a) Polyuria
(b) Glossitis
(c) Acidosis
(d) Techycardia
(e) Nocturia
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
  1. A.(a), (b) and (d) only
  2. B.(a), (c) and (e) only
  3. C.(a), (b) and (e) only
  4. D.(a), (c) and (d) only
Q 12 :
Match the food additives given in List - I with their functions in List - II .
        List - 1                                            List - II
(Food additives)                                 (Functions)
(a) Yeast                                           (i) Emulsifier
(b) Soy lecithin                                 (ii) Antioxidant
(c) Butyrate hydroxyl toluene           (iii) Bleaching Agent
(d) Benzoyl peroxide                        (iv) Preservative
(e) Calcium sorbet                            (v) Leavening
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
  1. A.(a)   (b)  (c)   (d)  (e)
    (ii)   (iii)  (i)    (iv)  (v)
  2. B.(v)   (i)    (iii)  (iv)  (ii)
  3. C.(v)   (i)    (ii)   (iii)  (iv)
  4. D.(v)   (i)    (ii)   (iv)  (iii)
Q 13 :
Match biochemical tests in List - I with nutritional deficiency disease in List - II .
         List - I                                    List - II
(Biochemical test)            (Nutritional deficiency disease)
(a) Serum albumin                (i) Vitamin A deficiency
(b) Haemoglobin                   (ii) Goitre
(c) Urinary iodine                  (iii) Kwashiorkor
(d) Serum retinol                   (iv) Anaemia
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
  1. A.(a)  (b)   (c)   (d)  
    (iv)  (i)    (iii)  (ii)  
  2. B.(iii)  (i)    (ii)   (iv) 
  3. C.(ii)   (iii)  (iv)  (i)   
  4. D.(iii)  (iv)  (ii)   (i)    
Q 14 :
Match vitamins given in List - I with their functions in List - II .
      List - I                                  List - II
   (Vitamins)                            (Functions)
(a) Vitamin B12            (i) Protection of PUFA from oxidative damage
(b) Vitamin A                (ii) Role in carbohydrate metabolism
(c) Vitamin E                (iii) Role in formation of normal RBC
(d) Thiamine                (iv) Integrity of epithelial tissues
Choose the correct given below: answer from the options
  1. A.(a)   (b)  (c)  (d)  
    (iii)  (iv)  (ii)   (i)   
  2. B.(iii)  (i)    (ii)   (iv) 
  3. C.(ii)   (i)    (iii)  (iv) 
  4. D.(iii)  (iv)  (i)    (ii)
Q 15 :
Arrange the stages of new food product development :
(a) Idea generation
(b) Product development
(c) Screening
(d) Commercialization
(e) Concept development
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
  1. A.(a), (c), (d), (b), (e)
  2. B.(a), (c), (b), (d), (e)
  3. C.(a), (c), (e), (b), (d)
  4. D.(a), (b), (e), (c), (d)
Q 16 :
Ò€‹Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R) .
Assertion (A) : Calcium requirements during lactation are higher than during pregnancy .
Reason (R) : As lactating women lose bone mass during breast feeding because less oestrogen hormone is produced .
In light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below :
  1. A.Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
  2. B.Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is NOT the correct explanation of (A)
  3. C.(A) is true, but (R) is false
  4. D.(A) is false, but (R) is true
Q 17 :
By mistake you have over blued your clothes. Which of the following reagents you would use to rectify the fault ?
  1. A.Acetic acid
  2. B.Borax
  3. C.Sodium chloride
  4. D.Oxalic acid
Q 18 :
Which of the following apparel production systems is based on teamwork and shared responsibility for quantity and quality of output ?
  1. A.Progressive bundle system
  2. B.Unit production system
  3. C.Modular production system
  4. D.Customized production system
Q 19 :
Which of the following is a knit fabric that uses fine worsted yarns ?
  1. A.Inlay
  2. B.Zephyr
  3. C.Intarsia
  4. D.Shaker
Q 20 :
For making a dress with kasuti embroidery, which of the following motifs will you use ?
  1. A.Gopuram
  2. B.Tulsi Vrindavan
  3. C.Nandi
  4. D.Chokla
Q 21 :
Reactive dyes form the following bonds with the fiber :
  1. A.Ionic
  2. B.Hydrogen
  3. C.Van - der - Waals forces
  4. D.Covalent
Q 22 :
Which of the following is not an advantage of plasma technology ?
  1. A.Increases abrasion resistance
  2. B.Increases dyeing speed
  3. C.Assists bio - scouring
  4. D.Gives liquid repellency
Q 23 :
Shifting of darts from one place to other changes the :
(a) Fit of the garment
(b) Amount of dart control
(c) Shape of the pattern
(d) Design of the garment
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
  1. A.(a) and (b) only
  2. B.(b) and (c) only
  3. C.(c) and (d) only
  4. D.(a) and (d) only
Q 24 :
For making a dress for yourself in a plain - woven fabric, which of the following fabrics will you use ?
(a) Percale
(b) Flannel
(c) Burlap
(d) Chino
(e) Moleskin
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
  1. A.(a), (b), (c) only
  2. B.(b), (c), (d) only
  3. C.(c), (d), (e) only
  4. D.(a), (b), (d) only
Q 25 :
Which of the following factors favour fashion ?
(a) Advertising
(b) Transportation and communication
(c) Political Instability
(d) Sumptuary laws
(e) An economy of abundance
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
  1. A.(a), (b), (c) only
  2. B.(b), (c), (d) only
  3. C.(c), (d), (e) only
  4. D.(a), (b), (e) only
Q 26 :
Which of the following are examples of condensation polymer ?
(a) Acrylic
(b) Mod acrylic
(c) Polyester
(d) Nylon
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
  1. A.(a), (b) only
  2. B.(b), (c) only
  3. C.(c), (d) only
  4. D.(a), (d) only
Q 27 :
Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R) .
Assertion (A) : Overweight people look heavier in stiff fabrics .
Reason (R) : These fabrics stand away from the body creating an illusion of additional thickness .
In light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below :
  1. A.Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
  2. B.Both (A) and (R) are incorrect
  3. C.(A) is correct, but (R) is not correct
  4. D.(A) is not correct, but (R) is correct
Q 28 :
Match the hip types given in List - I with their description given in List - II .
      List - I                                              List - II       
 (Figure Types)                                  (Description)
(a) Ideal Type                         (i) Curves diagonally outwards from waist to hip
(b) Square Shaped                (ii) Curves outward abruptly from waist and rounds sharply inwards
(c) Heart Shaped                   (iii) Curves outward gradually from waist and round over hip bone
(d) Diamond Shaped             (iv) Curves outward abruptly from waist and Falls straight to hips
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
  1. A.(a)   (b)  (c)  (d)  
    (iii)  (iv)  (ii)   (i)
  2. B.(i)    (iv)  (ii)   (iii) 
  3. C.(iii)  (ii)   (i)    (iv) 
  4. D.(iv)  (i)    (iii)  (ii)  
Q 29 :
Match the colour problems given in List - I with their description given in List - II .
      List - I                                           List - II
(Colour Problems)                         (Description)
(a) Frosting                      (i) Weak areas in a fabric resulting from chemical damage
(b) Tendering                   (ii) Horizontal off shade band across fabric
(c) Barre'                         (iii) Same colour appears different under different light sources
(d) Metamerism               (iv) Change of colour due to localized abrasive wear
                                         (v) Unintentional shade variation within a piece of fabric
Choose the correct answer from the options given below : 
  1. A.(a)   (b)   (c)   (d)  
    (iv)  (i)    (ii)   (iii) 
  2. B.(i)    (v)   (ii)   (iii) 
  3. C.(iii)  (ii)   (i)    (v)  
  4. D.(iv)  (i)    (iii)  (ii)  
Q 30 :
Give the correct sequence of cotton spinning system .
(a) Drawing
(b) Carding
(c) Blending
(d) Roving
(e) Spinning
(f) Picking
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
  1. A.(a), (b), (d), (e), (c), (f)
  2. B.(c), (a), (d), (b), (f), (e)
  3. C.(c), (f), (b), (a), (d), (e)
  4. D.(c), (a), (b), (d), (f), (e)
Q 31 :
Give the correct sequence of converting the waist dart of the bodice into two French darts .
(a) Trace the front bodice
(b) Locate the position and draw the lines for the number of French darts required
(c) Cut on the French dart lines
(d) Close the waist dart
(e) Shorten the darts and connect the end of the dart lines to the apex
(f) Draw the line for the French dart
(g) Distribute the dart control equally
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
  1. A.(a), (b), (d), (e), (g), (c), (f)
  2. B.(c), (a), (d), (b), (f), (g), (e)
  3. C.(b), (a), (d), (e), (f), (g), (c)
  4. D.(a), (f), (b), (e), (c), (d), (g)
Q 32 :
A comorbid means :
  1. A.a disorder or condition that may co-occur with another disorder or condition
  2. B.absence of diseases or medical conditions
  3. C.a cognitive impairment can shorten lifespan
  4. D.a condition can appear independently and have a detrimental effect on performance
Q 33 :
A fifth - grade student with autism spectrum disorder (ASD) attends a general education class full time with support from a special education teacher. Which of the following would be the most effective way for the Individualized Education Program (IEP) team to integrate social skills training into the general academic curriculum for this student ?
  1. A.Incorporate individual counselling services into the student's IEP
  2. B.Establish clear expectations for appropriate classroom behaviour
  3. C.Assign the student a one - on - one aide to model appropriate behaviour
  4. D.Include peer - to - peer supports in the general education class as part of the student's IEP.
Q 34 :
Ethological theory of attachment was proposed by :
  1. A.Jean Piaget
  2. B.Pavlov
  3. C.Erik Erikson
  4. D.Bowl by
Q 35 :
Special education teacher is participating in a three - year re - evaluation of a high school student with an intellectual disability. As part of an assessment, the teacher accompanies the student to a store and asks the student to locate and purchase an item. This is an example of which of the following types of assessments ?
  1. A.Ecological
  2. B.Portfolio
  3. C.Authentic
  4. D.Interview
Q 36 :
One of the reasons for using drugs by the Adolescents is :
  1. A.Pleasurable feelings
  2. B.Thrill of doing something illegal
  3. C.Parental Pressure
  4. D.Escape from everyday life
Q 37 :
Compared to younger adults, middle aged adults who lose their jobs :
  1. A.Tend to stay unemployed longer and have fewer opportunities for gratifying work as they age
  2. B.Tend to find jobs quickly because of their skills but find it difficult to stay employed
  3. C.Find it difficult to get new jobs, but once employed have a stable work history
  4. D.Are less likely to become depressed, which makes it easier for them to obtain employment
Q 38 :
What is the focus of younger pre - schoolers and older pre - schoolers respectively when they indulge in play ?
  1. A.Shared activities; trust and shared interest
  2. B.Trust and shared interest; Shared activities
  3. C.Parallel play, Solitary play
  4. D.Communicative play, nonverbal play
Q 39 :
One of the reading readiness skills is the development of comprehension that includes
(a) Ability to arrange a picture story with events in the correct sequence
(b) Ability to tell some personal experience
(c) Ability to write his or her name
(d) Ability to answer questions about a story which has been read and tell it in simple words
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
  1. A.(a), (b), (c) and (d) only
  2. B.(b), (c) and (d) only
  3. C.(a), (b) and (d) only
  4. D.(b), (c) and (a) only
Q 40 :
Egocentric thoughts can involve .
(a) The lack of awareness that others see things from a different physical perspective
(b) The inability to present their own perspectives to others
(c) Failure to realize that others may hold thoughts, feelings, and points of view that differ from theirs
(d) Being intentionally selfish and inconsiderate
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
  1. A.(a) and (b) only
  2. B.(a) and (c) only
  3. C.(b) and (c) only
  4. D.(b) and (d) only
Q 41 :
The major principles that govern growth are
(a) Cephalocaudal Principle
(b) Proximodistal Principle
(c) Principle of Hierarchical Integration
(d) Principle of the independence of systems
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
  1. A.(a), (b), (c) and (d) only
  2. B.(a), (b) and (c) only
  3. C.(a) and (b) only
  4. D.(c) and (d) only
Q 42 :
Which type of speech is used in the example : Like other 2 - year - olds, Arjun can say, "Ma bye, bye" and "ball broken" :
Which type of speech is used in the example : When 9 - month - old Radha's mother talks to her, she uses short, simple sentences, repetitive words, and higher pitches .
(a) Holophrastic
(b) Telegraphic
(c) Interpretive
(d) Infant-directed
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
  1. A.(a) and (d) only
  2. B.(a) and (c) only
  3. C.(b) and (c) only
  4. D.(b) and (d) only
Q 43 :
Match List - I with List - II
List - I and List - II contain Basic Virtue and Erikson's psychosocial stages respectively .
     List - I                                  List - II
(Basic Virtue)            (Erikson's Psychosocial Stages)
(a) Hope                        (i) Autonomy vs. Shame
(b) Will                          (ii) Initiative vs. Guilt
(c) Purpose                  (iii) Trust vs. Mistrust
(d) Competency           (iv) Identity vs. Role Confusion
(e) Fidelity                    (v) Industry vs. Inferiority
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
  1. A.(a)   (b)   (c)   (d)   (e)
    (iii)  (i)    (ii)   (v)   (iv)
  2. B.(i)    (iii)  (ii)   (v)   (iv)
  3. C.(ii)   (i)    (iii)  (iv)  (v)
  4. D.(iii)  (ii)   (i)    (iv)  (v)
Q 44 :
Match List - I with List - II .
List - I and List - II contain the description of prenatal development and their labels respectively .
                        List - I                                                                                          List - II
     (Description of prenatal development)                                                          (Labels)
(a) This stage lasts from 8 weeks until birth                                (i) Embryonic and involves the differentiation of major organs
(b) From 2 to 8 weeks following fertilization, when the               (ii) Germinal major organs and basic anatomy begin developing
(c) The first and shortest stage, where the zygote begins          (iii) Fetal to divide and grow in complexity during the first 2 weeks following conception
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
  1. A.(a)  (b)  (c)
    (i)   (iii)  (ii)
  2. B.(iii)  (i)   (ii)
  3. C.(ii)   (i)   (iii)
  4. D.(iii)  (ii)  (i)
Q 45 :
Arrange the four phases of Adult Development as given by Cohen in sequence
(a) Encore
(b) Liberation
(c) Midlife Re - evaluation
(d) Summing Up
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
  1. A.(a), (b), (c), (d)
  2. B.(b), (d), (a), (c)
  3. C.(a), (b), (d), (c)
  4. D.(c), (b), (d), (a)
Q 46 :
According to Lawrence Kohlberg's theory, the development of moral reasoning takes place in six stages. Arrange these stages in sequence :
(a) Universal Ethical principles
(b) Authority and maintaining social order
(c) Interpersonal Accord and Conformity
(d) Social Contract
(e) Self - interest
(f) Obedience and Punishment
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
  1. A.(a), (b), (c), (d), (e), (f)
  2. B.(b), (d), (a), (f), (e), (c)
  3. C.(f), (e), (c), (b), (d), (a)
  4. D.(c), (b), (d), (e), (f), (a)
Q 47 :
Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R) .
Assertion (A) : Communication serves to construct as well as reflect family relationships .
Reason (R) : Family member spend so much time with each other, they use and understand communication shortcuts and idiosyncrasies that may elude an outsider .
In light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below :
  1. A.Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
  2. B.Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is NOT the correct explanation of (A)
  3. C.(A) is true, but (R) is false
  4. D.(A) is false, but (R) is true
Q 48 :
Muster rolls are prepared under the programme :
  1. A.SGSY
  2. B.MDM
  3. C.NHM
  4. D.MGNREGA
Q 49 :
Which one of the following is not a component of the services offered under ICDS ?
  1. A.Immunization
  2. B.Referral Services
  3. C.Formal Education
  4. D.Supplementary Nutrition
Q 50 :
Licence to operate Community Radio stations is granted by :
  1. A.State Governments
  2. B.Ministry of information and Broadcasting
  3. C.Parser Bharti Corporation
  4. D.Department of Telecommunications

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