Latest KSP Sub Inspector Exam Question (Objective Questions), MCQ in English
Subjects : General Studies, General Knowledge, Mental Ability, Current AffairsGeneral Studies, General Knowledge, Mental Ability, Current Affairs, General Studies, General Knowledge, Mental Ability, Current Affairs
Question Bank KSP Police Sub Inspector Exam Paper II - English
General Studies, General Knowledge, Mental Ability, Current Affairs
Question 1Single Answer
Yojna a weekly journal
A
Ministry of Finance
B
Ministry of Information and Broadcastin
C
Ministry of Rural Development
D
Planning Commission
Question 2Single Answer
Kurukshetra a journal on rural development is published by
A
Ministry of Finance
B
Ministry of Information and Broadcastin
C
Ministry of Rural Development
D
Planning Commission
Question 3Single Answer
Devaluation of a currency means
A
Fixing the value of the currency in conjuction with the movement in the value of a basket of predetermined currencies
B
Reduction in the value of a currency vis-à-vis major internationally traded currencies
C
Fixing the value of currency in multilateral consultaion with the IMF the World Bank and major trading partners
D
Permitting the currency to seek its worth in the international market
Question 4Single Answer
In India rural incomes are generally lower than the urban incomes, which of the following reasons account for this
1. a large number of farmers are illiterate and know little about scientific agriculture
2. prices of primary products are lower than those of manufactured products
3. Investments in agriculture has been low when compared to investment in industry
A
1 and 3
B
2 and 3
C
1 and 2
D
1,2 and 3
Question 5Single Answer
Which of the following programmes aims at the promotion of savings among rural women
A
Rashtriya Mahila Kosh
B
Indira Mahila Yojna
C
Jawahar Rozgar Yojna
D
Mahila Samridhi Yojna
Question 6Single Answer
What is Net National Product
A
the money value of final goods and services produced annually in the economy
B
the money value of annual service generation in the economy
C
the money value of tangible goods produced annually in the economy
D
The money value of tangible goods available in the economy
Question 7Single Answer
National income is the
A
net national product at market price
B
net national product at factor cost
C
net domestic product at market price
D
net domestic product at factor cost
Question 8Single Answer
Chelliah Committee of 1992 deals with the overhauling of our
A
financial system
B
tax system
C
patents and copyrights
D
Public sector undertakings
Question 9Single Answer
During which Five Year Plan was the annual growth rate of National Income the lowest
A
2nd plan
B
3rd plan
C
5th plan
D
6th plan
Question 10Single Answer
Which of the following taxes is a progressive tax
A
sales tax
B
custom tax
C
excise tax
D
income tax
Question 11Single Answer
Which of the following estimates the National Income in India
A
National Income Committee
B
Planning Commission
C
Reserve Bank Of India
D
Central Statistical Organisation
Question 12Single Answer
India changed over to the decimal system, coinage in
A
April 1951
B
April 1955
C
April 1957
D
April 1978
Question 13Single Answer
11th Five Year Plan aim at achieving 10% rural tele density in India from the present 1.9% by the year
A
2008
B
2009
C
2010
D
2012
Question 14Single Answer
Which one of the following statements Monitorable Socio Economic Target of the 11th Five Year Plan under the head Environment is not correct
A
treat urban waste water by 2011-12
B
Increase energy efficiency by 20% points by 2016-17
C
attain WHO standards of air quality in all major cities by 2011-12
D
increase forest and tree cover by 15% points
Question 15Single Answer
Who is the ex-officio chairman of Planning commission and National Development Council
A
President
B
Prime Minister
C
Finance Minister
D
Commerce Minister
Question 16Single Answer
Persons below the poverty line in Indian are classified as such based on wheather
A
they belong to agriculture labourer household and the scheduled caste/trive social group
B
they get work for a prescribed minimum number of days in a year
C
they are entitled to a minimum prescribed food basket
D
their daily waged fall below the prescribed minimum wages
Question 17Single Answer
Which of the following Committee’s recommendations are being followed for estimating proverty line in India
A
Dutt committee
B
Lakdawala committee
C
Cheliah Committee
D
Chakravorty Committee
Question 18Single Answer
In which year India adopeted liberal and free market principles
A
1975
B
1981
C
1991
D
2000
Question 19Single Answer
Consider the following statements
1. There is persistent investment over time only in select locals
2. some areas are agro climatically less conductive to development
3. some areas continue to face little or no agrarian transformation and the consequent lack of social and
4. some areas have faced continous political instability
Which of the above statements are correct
A
1,2 and 3
B
1,2 and 4
C
1,3 and 4
D
2,3 and 4
Question 20Single Answer
When was first human development report of India issued
A
April 2001
B
March 2000
C
June 2002
D
April 2002
Question 21Single Answer
In ruby laser, the stimulated emission is due to transition from
A
metastable state to any lower state
B
any higher state of lower state
C
metastable state to ground state
D
any higher state to ground state
Question 22Single Answer
A direct current I flows along the length of an infinitely long straight thin walled pipe, then the magnetic field is
A
uniform throughout the pipe not zero
B
zero only along the axis of the pipe
C
zero at any point inside the pipe
D
maximum at the centre and minimum at the edge
Question 23Single Answer
convex lens made of glass has focal length 0.15m in air. If the refractive index of glass is 3/2, and that of water is 4/3 the focal length of lens when immersed in water is
A
0.45 m
B
0.15 m
C
0.30 m
D
0.6 m
Question 24Single Answer
Two sources are said to be coherent if they produce waves
A
having a constant phase difference
B
of equal wavelength
C
of equal speed
D
having same shape of wavefront
Question 25Single Answer
Three resistors 1 Ω, 2 Ω, 3Ω resistor a 3 V battery is connected. The current through 3 Ω resistor is -
A
0.75 A
B
1 A
C
2 A
D
1.5 A
Question 26Single Answer
In a common emitter amplifier the input signal is applied across
A
anywhere
B
emitter-collector
C
collector-base
D
base-emitter
Question 27Single Answer
Adding detergents to water helps in removing dirty greasy stains. This is because
1. It increases greasy stains. This is because
2. It decreases the oil-water surface tension
3. It increases the viscosity of the solution
4. Dirt is held suspended surrounded by detergent molecules
A
2 and 4
B
1 only
C
3 and 4
D
4 only
Question 28Single Answer
Choose the correct statement (a) for a cricket ball that is spinning clockwise through air
S1 : Statemlines of air are symmetric around the ball.
S2 : The velocity of air above the ball relative to it is larger than that below the ball.
S3 : The velocity of air above the ball relative to it is smaller than that below the ball.
S4 : There is a net upward force on the ball.
A
S1,S2 and S4
B
S2 and S4
C
S4 only
D
S3 only
Question 29Single Answer
Ferromagnetic materials used in a transformer must have
A
low permeability and high hysterisis loss
B
high permeability and low hysterisis loss
C
high permeability and high hysterisis loss
D
low permeability and low hysterisis loss
Question 30Single Answer
According to Newton’s corpuscular theory, the speed of light is
A
same in all the medium
B
lesser in rarer medium
C
lesser in denser medium
D
independent of the medium
Question 31Single Answer
For the constructive interference the path difference between the two interfering waves must be equal to
A
(2𝜋 + 1)λ
B
2n𝜋
C
nλ
D
n
Question 32Single Answer
The accurate measurement of emf can be obtained using
A
multimeter
B
voltmeter
C
voltameter
D
potentiometer
Question 33Single Answer
A person, with outstretched arms, is spinning on a rotating stool. He suddenly brings his arms down to his sides. Which the following is true about his kinetic energy K and angular momentum L?
A
Both K and L increase
B
Both K and L remain unchanged
C
K remains constant, L increases
D
K increases but L remains constant
Question 34Single Answer
Which of the following is not a thermodynamic coordinate?
A
Gas constant (R)
B
Pressure (p)
C
Volume (V)
D
Temperature (T)
Question 35Single Answer
An antenna uses electromagnetic waves of frequency 5 MHz . For proper working, the size of the antenna should be
A
300 m
B
3 km
C
15 m
D
15 km
Question 36Single Answer
10-6 M NaOH is diluted 100 times. The pH of the diluted base is
A
between 7 and 8
B
between 5 and 6
C
between 6 and 7
D
between 10 and 11
Question 37Single Answer
In the electrolysis of acidulated water, it is desired to obtain 1.12 cc of hydrogen per second under STP condition. The current to be passed is
A
1.93 A
B
9.65 A
C
19.3 A
D
0.965 A
Question 38Single Answer
The one which decreases with dilution is
A
molar conductance
B
conductance
C
specific conductance
D
equivalent conductance
Question 39Single Answer
Vapour pressure of pure ‘A’ is 70 mm of Hg at 25oC. It forms an ideal solution with ‘B’ in which mole fraction of A is 0.8. if the vapour pressure of the solution is 84 mm of Hg at 25oC, the vapour pressure of pure ‘B’ at 25oC is
A
28 mm
B
56 mm
C
70 mm
D
140 mm
Question 40Single Answer
A 6% solution of urea is isotonic with
A
1 M solution of glucose
B
0.05 M solution of glucose
C
6% solution of glucose
D
25% solution of glucose
Question 41Single Answer
In countries nearer to polar region, the roads are sprinkled with CaCl2. This is
A
to minimise the wear and tear of the roads
B
to minimise the snow fall
C
to minimise pollution
D
to minimise the accumulation of dust on the road
Question 42Single Answer
A compound of ‘A’ and ‘B’ crystallises in a cubic lattice in which ‘A’ atoms occupy the lattice points at the corners of the cube. The ‘B’ atoms occupy the centre of each face of the cube. The probable empirical formula of the compound is
A
AB2
B
A2B
C
AB
D
AB3
Question 43Single Answer
In electrophilic aromatic substitution reaction, the nitro group is meta directing because it
A
decreases electron density at ortho and para positions
B
decreases electron density at meta position
C
increases electron density at meta position
D
increases electron density at ortho and para position
Question 44Single Answer
The best method for the conversion of an alcohol into an alkyl chloride is by treating the alcohol with
A
PCI5
B
PCI3
C
SOCl2 in presence of pyridine
D
dry HCl in the presence of anhydrous ZnCl2
Question 45Single Answer
The carbon bond length in benzene is
A
in between C2H6 and C2H4
B
same as in C2H4
C
in between C2H6 and C2H2
D
in between C2H4 and C2H2
Question 46Single Answer
The compound which is not formed during the dry distillation of a mixture of calcium formate and calcium acetate is
A
methanal
B
propanal
C
propanone
D
ethanal
Question 47Single Answer
An organic compound x is oxidised by using acidified K2Cr2O7. The product obtained reacts with phenyl hydrazine but does not answer silver mirror test. The possible structured of X is
A
CH3CH2OH
B
CH3 – C – CH3
C
(CH3)2CHOH
D
CH3CHO
Question 48Single Answer
Arrange the following in the increasing of their. Basic strengths CH3NH2, (CH3)2NH, (CH3)2N, NH3
A
NH3, < (CH3)3N < (CH3)2NH < CH3NH2
B
NH3 < (CH3)3N < CH3NH2 < (CH3)2NH
C
(CH3)3N < NH3 < CH3NH2 < (CH3)2NH
D
CH3NH2 < (CH3)2NH < (CH3)3N , NH3
Question 49Single Answer
The one which has least iodine value is
A
sunflower oil
B
ginger oil
C
ghee
D
groundnut oil
Question 50Single Answer
A diabetic person carries a packet of glucose with him always, because
A
glucose reduces the blood sugar level slowly
B
glucose increases the blood sugar level slowly
C
glucose reduces the blood sugar level
D
glucose increases the blood sugar level almost instantaneously
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General Studies, General Knowledge, Mental Ability, Current Affairs
Question 51Single Answer
The respiratory quotient during cellular respiration would depend on
A
the nature of enzymes involved
B
the nature of the substrate
C
the amount of carbon dioxide released
D
the amount of oxygen utilised
Question 52Single Answer
Which of the following is not a green - house gas ?
A
Water vapour
B
Carbon monoxide
C
Methane
D
Oxygen
Question 53Single Answer
Both husband and wife have normal vision though their fathers were colorblind and mothers did not have any gene for colorblindness. The probability of their daughters becoming colorblind is
A
50%
B
75%
C
0%
D
25%
Question 54Single Answer
An animal, which has both exoskeleton and endoskeleton structures is a
A
fresh-water mussel
B
tortoise
C
frog
D
jelly fish
Question 55Single Answer
Identify the group, which includes animals all of which give birth to young ones directly?
A
Dolphin, kangaroo, bat, cat
B
Platypus, penguin, bat, hippopotamus
C
shrew, bat, kiwi, car
D
Lion, whale, ostrich, bat
Question 56Single Answer
Compare the statement A and B. Statement A Blood sugar level falls rapidly after hepatectomy. Statement B The glycogen of the liver is the principal source of blood sugar.
Select the correct description.
A
Both the statements A and B are correct and B is the reason for A
B
Statement A is correct and B is wrong
C
Statement A is wrong and B is correct
D
Both the statements A and B are correct and B is not the reason for A
Question 57Single Answer
What is/are true about heart wood?
(A) It does not help in water conduction.
(B) It is also called laburnum.
(C) It is dark in colour but very soft.
(D) It has tracheary elements which are filled with tannin, resin, etc.
A
B,C and D
B
A and D
C
B and D
D
A, B and C
Question 58Single Answer
Compare the statements A and B. Statement A Auxins promote apical dominance by suppressing the activity of lateral buds. Statement B In moriculature, periodic pruning of shoot tips is done to make mulberry plants bushy.
Select the correct description.
A
Both the statements A and B are correct and A is the reason for B
B
Statement A is correct and B is wrong
C
Statement A is wrong and B is correct
D
Both the statements A and B are correct and A is not the reason for B
Question 59Single Answer
Bryophytes resemble algae is the following aspects
A
Filamentous body, presence of vascular tissues and autotrophic nutrition
B
Differentiation of plant body into root, stem and leaves and autotrophic nutrition
C
Thallus like plant body, presence of roots and autotrophic nutrition
D
Thallus like plant body, lack of vascular tissues and autotrophic nutrition
Question 60Single Answer
Stoma opens, when
A
guard cells swell due to an increase in their water potential
B
guard cells swell by endosmosis duie to influx of hydrogen ions (protons)
C
guard cells swell by endosmosis due to efflux of potassium ions
D
guard cell swell due to a decrease in their water potential
Question 61Single Answer
Consider the following with reference to the East India Association organised in London:
1. It was founded by Dadabhai Naoroji.
2. The organisation aimed to present correct information about India to the British public and voice Indian grievances.
3. The East India Association incorporated the National Indian Association before the Komagata Maru incident.
Select the correct answer using the codes below.
A
1 and 2 only
B
2 and 3 only
C
3 only
D
1 and 3 only
Question 62Single Answer
The aim of the Indian Association found by Surendranath Banerjee was to
A
Represent the views of the educated middle class and take united community action.
B
Give shape to and establish the Indian National Congress.
C
Advocate constitutional reforms through legislative action.
D
Organise seditious movements to dethrone the British empire.
Question 63Single Answer
The Unionist Party was a powerful political party during the period 1923–1947. Consider the following about this party:
1. The party represented the interests of land holders-Hindus, Muslims and also the Sikhs.
2. The party was particularly powerful in the Punjab region and it did not favour the creation of Pakistan as a separate state.
Which of the above is/are correct?
A
1 only
B
2 only
C
Both
D
None
Question 64Single Answer
The Ilbert Bill controversy is said to be a high watermark in the history of Indian National Movement.
This is because it invoked issues of
1. Racial discrimination between Indian and Europeans.
2. Security lapse on the Indian borders, especially the North-West Frontier Province.
3. Suppression of Indian media houses and their nationalisation by the government.
Select the correct answer using the codes below.
A
1 only
B
1 and 2 only
C
2 and 3 only
D
1 and 3 only
Question 65Single Answer
The Vernacular Press Act in British India was concerned with
A
Promoting local language new for generating local employment
B
Providing for licensing and rep of newspapers published by indigenous tribes
C
Banning all vernacular la publications in India
D
None of the above
Question 66Single Answer
Consider the following statements with reference to the Indian National Congress towards princely states in British India:
1. The Indian National Congress, for the first time at its Nagpur session in 1920, enunciated its policy towards the peoples' movement in the princely states.
2. Post withdrawal of non-cooperation movement, the Indian National Congress adopted the policy of total non- interference in the political status of the princely states.
Which of the above is/are correct?
A
1 only
B
2 only
C
Both 1 and 2
D
None
Question 67Single Answer
Who among the following are associated with the finding of the Indian National Congress?
1. Badruddin Taiyabji
2. A.O. Hume
3. Dinshaw Edulji Wacha
4. Surendranath Banerjee
Select the correct answer using the codes below.
A
2 only
B
1, 2 and 3 only
C
2 and 3 only
D
1, 3 and 4 only
Question 68Single Answer
The moderates were so called because
1. They had rejected the idea of participating in legislative councils and instead believed in peaceful protests.
2. They relied on organised struggle against the British, something that was opposite to the extremist camp.
Which of the above is/are correct?
A
1 only
B
2 only
C
Both 1 and 2
D
None
Question 69Single Answer
The 'Home charges' mentioned in the drain theory by Dadabhai Naoroji included
1. Profits from local trade monopolies by the British
2. Remittances out of British official's income sent to Europe.
3. Charges of British administrative set up in India.
Select the correct answer using the codes below.
A
1 and 2 only
B
3 only
C
2 and 3 only
D
None
Question 70Single Answer
The British used political control to subordinate the Indian economy and society to the needs of the British economy and society. Among them, 'Drain of wealth' was caused by
1. Plunder and taxation.
2. Employment of Englishmen in India (Home charges).
3. Investing British capital in India.
4. Free and unequal trade with India.
Choose the correct answer from the codes below.
A
1 and 2 only
B
All of the above
C
1, 3 and 4 only
D
4 only
Question 71Single Answer
The Cripps mission was an attempt by the British government to
A
Extend communal representation in the Imperial legislature
B
Convince the Congress to join the Central legislature
C
Secure full Indian cooperation and support for their efforts in World War II
D
Conclude the Round Table Conferences Successfully
Question 72Single Answer
The proposal of the Cripps mission was that
1. India would be a dominion associated with the United Kingdom
2. An elected body charged with the task of making the constitution would be setup immediately after the World War Il is stopped.
Which of the above is/are correct?
A
I only
B
2 only
C
Both 1 and 2
D
None
Question 73Single Answer
The proposal of the Cripps mission was that
1. An Indian Union with a dominion status would be set up and it would be free to decide its relations with the Commonwealth
2. After the end of the World War I, a constituent assembly would be convened to frame a new constitution
3. Any province not willing to join the Indian Union could have a separate constitution and form a separate Union
Which of the above is/are correct?
A
1 only
B
1 and 3 only
C
2 and 3 only
D
1, 2 and 3
Question 74Single Answer
Why Indian National Congress (INC) leaders were not satisfied with the Cripps Mission (1942) proposals?
A
Cripps Mission did not address the issue of separate electorates.
B
Cripps Mission did not deliberate any matter with the Indian leaders and proposed unilateral measures.
C
Leaders wanted full independence rather than a dominion status.
D
Cripps Mission agreed for post-war real transfer of power but maintained that the Viceroy and Secretary of State shall be appointed by the crown.
Question 75Single Answer
Mahatma Gandhi decided to launch 'Individual Satyagraha' due to dissatisfaction With
A
Government of India Act, 1935 which eroded autonomy of local bodies
B
Religious intolerance in the countryside
C
August offer made by the British during the course of the Second World War
D
State of untouchables in the country
Question 76Single Answer
With reference to individual Satyagraha, consider the following:
1. It was launched with an aim to seek independence and self-governance.
2. Women did not participate in individual Satyagraha.
3. Gandhi himself chose the first few individual satyagrahis.
Select the correct answer using the codes below.
A
2 only
B
1 and 3 only
C
3 only
D
2 and 3 only
Question 77Single Answer
Consider the following statements about the August Offer of 1940 of the British government:
1. It abolished the system of communal electorates in India.
2. It suggested the setting up provisional governments in the Princely states.
3. The Congress did not approve the August Offer.
Select the correct answer using the codes below.
A
1 and 2 only
B
3 only
C
1 and 3 only
D
2 only
Question 78Single Answer
When did the Muslim League passa resolution committing itself to the creation of a separate nation called 'Pakistan"?
A
First Non-cooperation movement, 1919
B
Civil Disobedience Movement, 1930
C
In 1940, few months after the Congress resigned from the provinces
D
Direct Action Day, 1946
Question 79Single Answer
Which of the following could NOT be a causative factor behind the Bengal Famine, 1943?
A
Spread of communicable and vector- borne diseases such as cholera, malaria and kala-azar
B
Poor agricultural production and rice crop diseases
C
Forced indigo plantations on most of the net sown area of Bengal
D
Debt bondage and land grabbing of Peasants
Question 80Single Answer
Cripps Mission was sent to India by the British because
A
They wanted Indian support to defeat Japan in the World War II
B
After the failure of Third Round Table Conference, British PM promised Indian leaders so
C
British wanted to negotiate the two- nation' theory with Indian leaders
D
British wanted the support of the Princely state armies to defeat Burma
Question 81Single Answer
The cash difference between the selling prices of an article at a profit of 4% and 6% is Rs. 3. The ratio of the two selling prices is:__________ ?
A
51:52
B
52:53
C
51:53
D
52:55
Question 82Single Answer
Which of the following numbers is irrational ?
A
√49
B
0.125
C
√2
D
22/7
Question 83Single Answer
356 x 936 – 356 x 836 = ?
A
35600
B
34500
C
9630
D
93600
Question 84Single Answer
Arrange in descending order: 5/8, 7/10, 3/4
A
3/4 > 7/10 > 5/8
B
7/10 > 3/4 > 5/8
C
3/4 > 5/8 > 7/10
D
5/8 > 7/10 > 3/4
Question 85Single Answer
What is (3^{4} times 9^{2}) ?
A
36
B
38
C
310
D
96
Question 86Single Answer
If 34X-2 = 729, then find the value of X.
A
4
B
3
C
2
D
5
Question 87Single Answer
Convert 0.6 into fraction ?
A
3/5
B
2/3
C
4/5
Question 88Single Answer
The no. plate of a bus had peculiarity. The bus number was a perfect square. It was also a perfect square when the plate numbers were reversed. The bus company had only five hundred buses numbered from 1 to 500. What was the number ?
A
169
B
36
C
196
D
Can not say
Question 89Single Answer
If a and b are positive integers, such that ab = 125, then (a-b)a+b-4 = ?
A
16
B
25
C
28
D
30
Question 90Single Answer
If x*y = x2 + y2 – xy, then value of 9*11 is
A
93
B
103
C
60.5
D
121
Question 91Single Answer
Which is greater ?
A
15/16
B
17/18
C
Equal
D
Cannot compare
Question 92Single Answer
If sum of two numbers is 42 and their product is 437, then find their difference.
A
3
B
4
C
5
D
7
Question 93Single Answer
Write the 44000 in Roman numerals
A
XLI
B
XLVI
C
XLIV
D
XLVIC
Question 94Single Answer
Convert 0.0909… into fraction ?
A
1/11
B
9/11
C
1/9
D
9/10
Question 95Single Answer
What is (98 times 102) ?
A
9996
B
10000
C
10096
D
10196
Question 96Single Answer
Which is smaller ?
A
9/11
B
7/9
C
Equal
D
Cannot compare
Question 97Single Answer
Convert 0.5777… into fraction ?
A
26/45
B
52/90
C
13/22
D
5/9
Question 98Single Answer
Convert 0.81 into fraction ?
A
81/100
B
9/10
C
8/9
D
9/11
Question 99Single Answer
(63)2 – (12)2 =?
A
3528
B
3852
C
3582
D
3825
Question 100Single Answer
Which is greater ?
A
13/17
B
11/14
C
Equal
D
Cannot compare
Question 101Single Answer
Which is the national game of Bhutan ?
A
badminton
B
basketball
C
football
D
archery
Question 102Single Answer
What is the national game of the United States of America ?
A
water polo
B
Rugby
C
Polo
D
baseball
Question 103Single Answer
What is considered the national game of India ?
A
Field hockey
B
cricket
C
Chess
D
Kabaddi
Question 104Single Answer
The national game of Türkiye is….
A
horse racing
B
wrestling
C
Handball
D
basketball
Question 105Single Answer
The national game of Scotland is -
A
Ice hockey
B
Rugby football
C
football
D
baseball
Question 106Single Answer
Identify the national game of Sri Lanka.
A
swimming
B
volleyball
C
cricket
D
basketball
Question 107Single Answer
‘Bull fighting’ is the national sport of which country ?
A
Spain
B
Canada
C
Scotland
D
Japan
Question 108Single Answer
‘Ice Hockey’ (Lacrosse) is the national game of which country ?
A
Canada
B
Scotland
C
Denmark
D
Sweden
Question 109Single Answer
'Table Tennis' is the national game of which country ?
A
Scotland
B
Russia
C
China
D
Australia
Question 110Single Answer
Which of the following is the national game of Bangladesh ?
A
Kabaddi
B
Kho-Kho
C
cricket
D
boxing
Question 111Single Answer
Who is known as the "Missile Man of India"?
A
Dr. Homi J. Bhabha
B
Dr. Vikram Sarabhai
C
Dr. APJ Abdul Kalam
D
Dr. Satish Dhawan
Question 112Single Answer
Which organization is responsible for India's space exploration programs?
A
BARC
B
ISRO
C
DRDO
D
HAL
Question 113Single Answer
In which year did India successfully launch its first satellite, Aryabhata?
A
1975
B
1965
C
1980
D
1990
Question 114Single Answer
What is the name of India's first indigenously developed satellite launched by ISRO?
A
INSAT-1A
B
Aryabhata
C
Rohini
D
Bhaskara
Question 115Single Answer
What is the name of India's first nuclear reactor?
A
Dhruva
B
Kamini
C
Apsara
D
Kalpakkam
Question 116Single Answer
Which Indian space mission successfully sent a probe to Mars in its first attempt?
A
Chandrayaan-1
B
Mangalyaan (Mars Orbiter Mission)
C
Chandrayaan-2
D
Gaganyaan
Question 117Single Answer
What was India’s first nuclear test code-named?
A
Operation Shakti
B
Pokhran-I
C
Operation Smiling Buddha
D
Operation Parakram
Question 118Single Answer
Who is considered the father of the Indian space program?
A
APJ Abdul Kalam
B
Homi Bhabha
C
Vikram Sarabhai
D
Satish Dhawan
Question 119Single Answer
What is the name of India's first supercomputer?
A
Param 8000
B
Vikram 2000
C
Aditya
D
Aryabhata
Question 120Single Answer
The first Indian satellite to be placed in geosynchronous orbit is:
A
GSAT-1
B
Rohini
C
INSAT-1A
D
Aryabhata
Question 121Single Answer
Karnataka state was formed on which date?
A
15 August 1947
B
1 November 1956
C
26 January 1950
D
1 January 1960
Question 122Single Answer
Karnataka Unification Movement was primarily aimed at?
A
Unification of Kannada-speaking regions
B
Economic development
C
Religious unity
D
Political independence
Question 123Single Answer
Mysore State was renamed as Karnataka in which year?
A
1973
B
1970
C
1965
D
1980
Question 124Single Answer
Karnataka Rajyotsava is celebrated every year on?
A
15 August
B
26 January
C
2 October
D
1 November
Question 125Single Answer
What is the official language of Karnataka?
A
Telugu
B
Tamil
C
Kannada
D
Hindi
Question 126Single Answer
The state emblem of Karnataka features which mythical bird?
A
Gandaberunda
B
Garuda
C
Phoenix
D
Eagle
Question 127Single Answer
The Karnataka state flag mainly consists of which colors?
A
Blue and white
B
Orange and green
C
Green and white
D
Red and yellow
Question 128Single Answer
What is the state song of Karnataka?
A
Vande Mataram
B
Jana Gana Mana
C
Sare Jahan Se Achha
D
Jaya Bharata Jananiya Tanujate
Question 129Single Answer
The state animal of Karnataka is?
A
Elephant
B
Tiger
C
Lion
D
Deer
Question 130Single Answer
The state bird of Karnataka is?
A
Indian Roller
B
Peacock
C
Parrot
D
Eagle
Question 131Single Answer
The state flower of Karnataka is?
A
Lotus
B
Rose
C
Sunflower
D
Jasmine
Question 132Single Answer
The state tree of Karnataka is?
A
Banyan
B
Sandalwood
C
Neem
D
Teak
Question 133Single Answer
The state fruit of Karnataka is?
A
Mango
B
Banana
C
Apple
D
Jackfruit
Question 134Single Answer
The official language of Karnataka is?
A
Telugu
B
Tamil
C
Kannada
D
Hindi
Question 135Single Answer
Karnataka shares its boundary with how many states?
A
3
B
4
C
5
D
6
Question 136Single Answer
Total number of districts in Karnataka (current) is?
A
29
B
31
C
30
D
33
Question 137Single Answer
Karnataka is divided into how many administrative divisions?
A
2
B
4
C
3
D
5
Question 138Single Answer
The basic revenue administrative unit in Karnataka is?
A
Taluk
B
District
C
State
D
Division
Question 139Single Answer
Karnataka ranks approximately which position in population among Indian states?
A
5th
B
7th
C
6th
D
9th
Question 140Single Answer
Karnataka was formed under which Act?
A
Government of India Act 1935
B
States Reorganisation Act 1956
C
Indian Independence Act 1947
D
Regulating Act 1773
General Studies, General Knowledge, Mental Ability, Current AffairsGeneral Studies, General Knowledge, Mental Ability, Current Affairs
Question 141Single Answer
What is the name of the next phase of India’s semiconductor programme notified by the Government in August 2026?
A
Chip India 3.0
B
India Chip Mission
C
Semicon 2.0
D
Semiconductor Bharat
Question 142Single Answer
Which country conferred its highest honour for foreign leaders, the ‘Oliy Darajali Do‘stlik Order’, on Prime Minister Narendra Modi?
A
Kazakhstan
B
Kyrgyzstan
C
Uzbekistan
D
Tajikistan
Question 143Single Answer
Where was the 2026 SCO Leaders’ Summit held?
A
Tashkent
B
Bishkek
C
Dushanbe
D
Astana
Question 144Single Answer
India and Uzbekistan recently upgraded their bilateral relationship to which level?
A
Strategic Partnership
B
Economic Partnership
C
Comprehensive Strategic Partnership
D
Defence Partnership
Question 145Single Answer
Which two organisations signed an MoU to promote smart domestic PNG meters?
A
ONGC and IOCL
B
GAIL and NTPC
C
PNGRB and EESL
D
HPCL and BPCL
Question 146Single Answer
In which state was a National Centre of Excellence for Swimming established by the Sports Authority of India?
A
Kerala
B
Manipur
C
Assam
D
Odisha
Question 147Single Answer
What is the proposed special feature of Bihar’s new Mahila Vishwavidyalaya?
A
Only online education
B
All students and staff will be women
C
Only foreign students
D
It will focus only on engineering
Question 148Single Answer
How many PM Jan Dhan Yojana accounts had been opened as of 28 August 2026?
A
39.09 crore
B
59.09 crore
C
49.09 crore
D
69.09 crore
Question 149Single Answer
How much did India’s coconut product exports rise to in FY 2025–26?
A
₹4,349 crore
B
₹5,038 crore
C
₹7,038 crore
D
₹6,038 crore
Question 150Single Answer
Which company announced an investment of up to ₹18,268 crore in Jio Credit Limited?