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Question for KVS TGT Art Education - Quiz / Questions / MCQ in English

Last Update on : October 11, 2026

Duration: 180 · Questions: 180 · Max Marks: 180

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Latest KVS TGT Art Education Exam Question (Objective Questions), MCQ in English

Subjects : General Hindi, General English, General knowledge & Current Affairs, Reasoning Ability, Computer Literacy, Art Education

Question Bank KVS TGT Art Education Exam - English

General Hindi

Q 1 :
'ऋ' अर् में बदलता है -
  1. A. गुण संधि के अनुसार   
  2. B. यण संधि के अनुसार
  3. C. वृद्धि संधि के अनुसार  
  4. D. अयादि संधि के अनुसार 
Q 2 :
निम्न में कौनसा नासिक्य व्यंजन है - 
  1. A. त्
  2. B. न् 
  3. C. द् 
  4. D. भ्
Q 3 :
निम्न में से उत्क्षिप्त व्यंजन है -
  1. A. ल
  2. B. ष
  3. C. ड़
  4. D. न
Q 4 :
निम्न में से अल्प प्राण नहीं है -
  1. A. ख
  2. B. ग
  3. C. च
  4. D. द
Q 5 :
तालव्य व्यंजन है-
  1. A. ट ड द ढ
  2. B. च छ ज झ
  3. C. त थ द ध
  4. D. प फ ब भ
Q 6 :
'अ' स्वर का उच्चारण स्थान क्या है -
  1. A. मूर्धा
  2. B. कण्ठ
  3. C. तालु
  4. D. ओष्ठ
Q 7 :
निम्लखित मे कंट- तालव्य स्वर कौनसे है ?
  1. A. ए - ऐ
  2. B. ए - ओ
  3. C. ए - ऊ
  4. D. त - द
Q 8 :
जो धातु या शब्द के अंत में जोड़ा जाता है उसे कहते है ?
  1. A. समास
  2. B. अव्यय
  3. C. उपसर्ग
  4. D. प्रत्यय
Q 9 :
प्रख्यात में प्रयुक्त उपसर्ग है -
  1. A. प्र
  2. B. त
  3. C. प्रख
  4. D. आत
Q 10 :
'साखी' शब्द का तत्सम रूप है -
  1. A. सखी
  2. B. शाखा
  3. C. राखी
  4. D. साक्षी
Q 11 :
किस क्रम में वृत्तमुखी स्वर नहीं है -
  1. A. आ
  2. B. ऊँ
  3. C. ओ
  4. D. औ
Q 12 :
उपसर्ग का प्रयोग होता है -
  1. A. शब्द के आदि में
  2. B. शब्द के मध्य में
  3. C. शब्द के अंत में
  4. D. इनमे से कोई नहीं
Q 13 :
'पंडित दूध पीता है' इस वाक्य में कारक है -
  1. A. कर्म, करण
  2. B. सम्प्रदान, सम्बन्ध
  3. C. कर्ता, कर्म
  4. D. इनमें से कोई नहीं
Q 14 :
 'ने' किस कारक का चिह्न है -
  1. A. कर्ता
  2. B. करण
  3. C. सम्प्रदान
  4. D. कर्म
Q 15 :
'वह जहाँ चाहे, जाये; मुझे क्या लेना-देना।' यह कैसा वाक्य है -
  1. A. संयुक्त वाक्य
  2. B. सरल वाक्य
  3. C. मिश्रित वाक्य
  4. D. संयुक्त-मिश्रित वाक्य

General English

Q 16 :
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
  1. A.He was in the temper
  2. B.and refused
  3. C.discuss the matter again
  4. D.No error
Q 17 :
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
  1. A.A flower makes no garland
  2. B.so we must do a thing together
  3. C.in a unit for a good result
  4. D.No error
Q 18 :
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
  1. A.My friend is a software engineer
  2. B.and his wife is doctor
  3. C.so they don’t have enough time for each other
  4. D.No error
Q 19 :
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
  1. A.I don’t have much time that
  2. B.I hear you in detail with verbosity
  3. C.tell everything in nutshell
  4. D.No error
Q 20 :
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
  1. A.The atmosphere is changing
  2. B.so I have severe pain in my body
  3. C.if you have any painkiller, please give it to me
  4. D.No error
Q 21 :
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
  1. A.No one is without fault
  2. B.because no one is God
  3. C.and only God is fault free
  4. D.No error
Q 22 :
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
  1. A.Your
  2. B.clock is
  3. C.one hour fast
  4. D.No error
Q 23 :
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
  1. A.The lose of jobs
  2. B.is regarded by some as an necessary evil
  3. C.in the fight against infliation
  4. D.No error
Q 24 :
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
  1. A.In science, the credit goes to a man
  2. B.who convinces the world
  3. C.not to the man to whom the idea first occurs
  4. D.No error
Q 25 :
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
  1. A.It is only after
  2. B.the match is over
  3. C.that people realize how exciting it is
  4. D.No error
Q 26 :
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
  1. A.Off the two
  2. B.sisters, she
  3. C.is better
  4. D.No error
Q 27 :
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
  1. A.A interesting book
  2. B.‘A Tale of two cities’
  3. C.was written by Alexander Dumas
  4. D.No error
Q 28 :
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
  1. A.I shall never
  2. B.forget a good
  3. C.deed you did to me, when I was in crisis
  4. D.No error
Q 29 :
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
  1. A.Wisdom of Vikramaditya
  2. B.solved many riddles
  3. C.that people brought to him for solution
  4. D.No error
Q 30 :
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
  1. A.News you broke to his wife
  2. B.made her nervous
  3. C.and she broke down
  4. D.No error

General knowledge & Current Affairs

Q 31 :
Yojna a weekly journal
  1. A.Ministry of Finance        
  2. B.Ministry of Information and Broadcastin
  3. C.Ministry of Rural Development
  4. D.Planning Commission
Q 32 :
Kurukshetra a journal on rural development is published by
  1. A.Ministry of Finance 
  2. B.Ministry of Information and Broadcastin
  3. C.Ministry of Rural Development
  4. D.Planning Commission
Q 33 :
Devaluation of a currency means
  1. A.Fixing the value of the currency in conjuction with the movement in the value of a basket of predetermined currencies
  2. B.Reduction in the value of a currency vis-à-vis major internationally traded currencies
  3. C.Fixing the value of currency in multilateral consultaion with the IMF the World Bank and major trading partners
  4. D.Permitting the currency to seek its worth in the international market
Q 34 :
In India rural incomes are generally lower than the urban incomes, which of the following reasons account for this
            1. a large number of farmers are illiterate and know little about scientific agriculture
            2. prices of primary products are lower than those of manufactured products
            3. Investments in agriculture has been low when compared to investment in industry
  1. A.1 and 3
  2. B.2 and 3
  3. C.1 and 2
  4. D.1,2 and 3
Q 35 :
Which of the following programmes aims at the promotion of savings among rural women
  1. A.Rashtriya Mahila Kosh
  2. B.Indira Mahila Yojna
  3. C.Jawahar Rozgar Yojna
  4. D.Mahila Samridhi Yojna
Q 36 :
What is Net National Product
  1. A.the money value of final goods and services produced annually in the economy
  2. B.the money value of annual service generation in the economy
  3. C.the money value of tangible goods produced annually in the economy
  4. D.The money value of tangible goods available in the economy
Q 37 :
National income is the 
  1. A.net national product at market price
  2. B.net national product at factor cost
  3. C.net domestic product at market price
  4. D.net domestic product at factor cost
Q 38 :
Chelliah Committee of 1992 deals with the overhauling of our
  1. A.financial system            
  2. B.tax system
  3. C.patents and copyrights  
  4. D.Public sector undertakings
Q 39 :
During which Five Year Plan was the annual growth rate of National Income the lowest
  1. A.2nd plan
  2. B.3rd plan
  3. C.5th plan
  4. D.6th plan
Q 40 :
Which of the following taxes is a progressive tax
  1. A.sales tax           
  2. B.custom tax
  3. C.excise tax         
  4. D.income tax
Q 41 :
Who became the longest-serving continuous Finance Minister of India and presented her ninth straight Union Budget on February 1, 2026?
  1. A.Nirmala Sitharaman
  2. B.Arun Jaitley
  3. C.Pranab Mukherjee
  4. D.P. Chidambaram
Q 42 :
How many Ramsar sites does India now have after adding two new ones (in Uttar Pradesh and Gujarat) in early February 2026?
  1. A.98
  2. B.97
  3. C.96
  4. D.100
Q 43 :
In which rank did India stand in the Global Soft Power Index 2026, as reported around February 2026?
  1. A.25th
  2. B.32nd
  3. C.28th
  4. D.35th
Q 44 :
What did the Supreme Court of India declare as a fundamental right in schools around February 2026?
  1. A.Free education up to class 12
  2. B.Sports infrastructure
  3. C.Digital literacy programs
  4. D.Menstrual health facilities
Q 45 :
Which organization plans to launch India's first-ever National Household Income Survey (NHIS) and Annual Survey of Incorporated Service Sector Enterprises (ASISSE) starting April 2026?
  1. A.RBI
  2. B.SEBI
  3. C.NITI Aayog
  4. D.NSO (National Statistical Office)
Q 46 :
Where was India's first-ever LNG-diesel dual-fuel DEMU train launched in early 2026?
  1. A.Delhi
  2. B.Mumbai
  3. C.Ahmedabad
  4. D.Chennai
Q 47 :
Which country's first indigenous submarine was highlighted in news around February 2026?
  1. A.India
  2. B.Taiwan
  3. C.South Korea
  4. D.Japan
Q 48 :
What rare natural phenomenon was observed in Ladakh around early February 2026?
  1. A.Solar eclipse
  2. B.Volcanic eruption
  3. C.Meteor shower
  4. D.Red aurora
Q 49 :
Who became Maharashtra's first woman Deputy Chief Minister around February 2026?
  1. A.Supriya Sule
  2. B.Oormila Matondkar
  3. C.Pankaja Munde
  4. D.Sunetra Pawar
Q 50 :
Which city hosted the 6th National Crop Nutrition Summit on February 5-6, 2026?
  1. A.Delhi
  2. B.Mumbai
  3. C.Hyderabad
  4. D.Bengaluru

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