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Question for KVS TGT Science - Quiz / Questions / MCQ in English

Last Update on : October 10, 2026

Duration: 180 · Questions: 180 · Max Marks: 180

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To boost your performance in KVS TGT Science exam, practice each question regularly and with focus. Every question tests your subject understanding, so solve them one at a time. Taking a quiz improves your speed and accuracy. Practicing topic-wise MCQs. Students benefit greatly from reviewing questions with answer keys, which help clarify concepts and strengthen Questions knowledge for success in KVS TGT Science exams.

Latest KVS TGT Science Exam Question (Objective Questions), MCQ in English

Subjects : Hindi, English, General Knowledge, Reasoning, Computer, Perspective on Education, Biology, Chemistry, Physics

Question Bank KVS TGT Science Exam - English

Hindi

Q 1 :
शुद्ध वर्तनी का चयन कीजिए
  1. A. अधम्र
  2. B. अध्रम
  3. C. अधर्म
  4. D. अध्रिम
Q 2 :
शुद्ध वर्तनी का चयन कीजिए
  1. A. स्थायि
  2. B. स्थायी
  3. C. स्थाई
  4. D. स्थाइ
Q 3 :
वर्तनी की दृष्टि से सही शब्द है?
  1. A. महत्व
  2. B. महतव
  3. C. महत्तव
  4. D. महतत्व
Q 4 :
निम्नलिखित में से शुद्ध छांटिए?
  1. A. आयुष्मान
  2. B. आयुश्मान
  3. C. आयुशमान
  4. D.  आयुश्यमान
Q 5 :
शुद्ध शब्द नहीं हैं?
  1. A. कवियत्री 
  2. B. कौसल्या
  3. C. एश्वर्य
  4. D. श्रृंगार
Q 6 :
शुद्ध वर्तनी है -
  1. A. पूज
  2. B. पुजय 
  3. C. पूज्य 
  4. D. पुज्य 
Q 7 :
शुद्ध वर्तनी है - 
  1. A. अनुसरण
  2. B. अनूशरणन
  3. C. अनुशरण
  4. D. अणुशर
Q 8 :
किस क्रमांक में सभी शुद्ध हैं?
  1. A. एक्य,साप्ताहिक
  2. B. आजीविका,आशीर्वाद
  3. C. आर्शिवाद ,अनूकूल
  4. D. निरिक्षण ,कृपालु
Q 9 :
'उज्वल' शब्द का शुद्ध रूप है ?
  1. A. उज्जव
  2. B. उज्ज्ल
  3. C. उज्ज्वल
  4. D. उजवल
Q 10 :
निम्नलिखित प्रश्न  में चार वैकल्पिक वर्तनियाॅ दी गई है?
  1. A.  जागृत
  2. B. जाग्रति
  3. C. जाग्रित
  4. D. जाग्रत

English

Q 11 :
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
  1. A.He was in the temper
  2. B.and refused
  3. C.discuss the matter again
  4. D.No error
Q 12 :
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
  1. A.A flower makes no garland
  2. B.so we must do a thing together
  3. C.in a unit for a good result
  4. D.No error
Q 13 :
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
  1. A.My friend is a software engineer
  2. B.and his wife is doctor
  3. C.so they don’t have enough time for each other
  4. D.No error
Q 14 :
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
  1. A.I don’t have much time that
  2. B.I hear you in detail with verbosity
  3. C.tell everything in nutshell
  4. D.No error
Q 15 :
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
  1. A.The atmosphere is changing
  2. B.so I have severe pain in my body
  3. C.if you have any painkiller, please give it to me
  4. D.No error
Q 16 :
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
  1. A.No one is without fault
  2. B.because no one is God
  3. C.and only God is fault free
  4. D.No error
Q 17 :
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
  1. A.Your
  2. B.clock is
  3. C.one hour fast
  4. D.No error
Q 18 :
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
  1. A.The lose of jobs
  2. B.is regarded by some as an necessary evil
  3. C.in the fight against infliation
  4. D.No error
Q 19 :
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
  1. A.In science, the credit goes to a man
  2. B.who convinces the world
  3. C.not to the man to whom the idea first occurs
  4. D.No error
Q 20 :
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
  1. A.It is only after
  2. B.the match is over
  3. C.that people realize how exciting it is
  4. D.No error

General Knowledge

Q 21 :
Yojna a weekly journal
  1. A.Ministry of Finance        
  2. B.Ministry of Information and Broadcastin
  3. C.Ministry of Rural Development
  4. D.Planning Commission
Q 22 :
Kurukshetra a journal on rural development is published by
  1. A.Ministry of Finance 
  2. B.Ministry of Information and Broadcastin
  3. C.Ministry of Rural Development
  4. D.Planning Commission
Q 23 :
Devaluation of a currency means
  1. A.Fixing the value of the currency in conjuction with the movement in the value of a basket of predetermined currencies
  2. B.Reduction in the value of a currency vis-à-vis major internationally traded currencies
  3. C.Fixing the value of currency in multilateral consultaion with the IMF the World Bank and major trading partners
  4. D.Permitting the currency to seek its worth in the international market
Q 24 :
In India rural incomes are generally lower than the urban incomes, which of the following reasons account for this
            1. a large number of farmers are illiterate and know little about scientific agriculture
            2. prices of primary products are lower than those of manufactured products
            3. Investments in agriculture has been low when compared to investment in industry
  1. A.1 and 3
  2. B.2 and 3
  3. C.1 and 2
  4. D.1,2 and 3
Q 25 :
Which of the following programmes aims at the promotion of savings among rural women
  1. A.Rashtriya Mahila Kosh
  2. B.Indira Mahila Yojna
  3. C.Jawahar Rozgar Yojna
  4. D.Mahila Samridhi Yojna
Q 26 :
Who became the longest-serving continuous Finance Minister of India and presented her ninth straight Union Budget on February 1, 2026?
  1. A.Nirmala Sitharaman
  2. B.Arun Jaitley
  3. C.Pranab Mukherjee
  4. D.P. Chidambaram
Q 27 :
How many Ramsar sites does India now have after adding two new ones (in Uttar Pradesh and Gujarat) in early February 2026?
  1. A.98
  2. B.97
  3. C.96
  4. D.100
Q 28 :
In which rank did India stand in the Global Soft Power Index 2026, as reported around February 2026?
  1. A.25th
  2. B.32nd
  3. C.28th
  4. D.35th
Q 29 :
What did the Supreme Court of India declare as a fundamental right in schools around February 2026?
  1. A.Free education up to class 12
  2. B.Sports infrastructure
  3. C.Digital literacy programs
  4. D.Menstrual health facilities
Q 30 :
Which organization plans to launch India's first-ever National Household Income Survey (NHIS) and Annual Survey of Incorporated Service Sector Enterprises (ASISSE) starting April 2026?
  1. A.RBI
  2. B.SEBI
  3. C.NITI Aayog
  4. D.NSO (National Statistical Office)

Reasoning

Q 31 :
How many such pairs of letters are there in the word ‘CLEANLINESS’ each of the which has as many letters between them in the word as they have in the English alphabet, in the same sequence?
  1. A.Two
  2. B.Three
  3. C.Five
  4. D.Four
  5. E.None of these
Q 32 :
Team A has scored more goals than Team B
Team C has scored fewer goals than Team B
Team A has scored fewer goals than Team C .
If the first two statements are true, the third statement is
  1. A.True
  2. B.False
  3. C.Uncertain
  4. D.None
Q 33 :
If it is possible to make only one meaningful word with the second, the third, the sixth and the eight letters of the word FRAGMENT using each only once, which of the following will be the third letter of that word ? If no such word can be formed, give ‘X’ as the answer and if more than one such word can be formed, give ‘Y’ as the answer.
  1. A.A
  2. B.E
  3. C.T
  4. D.X
  5. E.Y
Q 34 :
How many such letters are there in the word ORIENTAL each of which is as far away from the beginning of the word as when they are arranged alphabetically?
  1. A.None            
  2. B.One         
  3. C.Two       
  4. D.Three        
  5. E.More than three
Q 35 :
How many such pairs of letters in the word CREDIT each of which has as many letters between them in the word as in the English alphabet?
  1. A.None
  2. B.One
  3. C.Two
  4. D.Three
  5. E.More than three

Computer

Q 36 :
Which Windows interface element typically appears to display information, a warning, an error message, or a request for confirmation?
  1. A.Window
  2. B.Pop-up menu
  3. C.Message box
  4. D.Taskbar
Q 37 :
What is active desktop ?
  1. A.a term that is synonymous with viewing your desktop as web page
  2. B.a feature to customize your desktop to display informating you can update from the internet
  3. C.both a and b above mentioned
  4. D.A software
  5. E.None of these
Q 38 :
What is meant by an active window?
  1. A.A window that is minimized
  2. B.The window currently receiving user input
  3. C.Any window currently open
  4. D.The window opened first
Q 39 :
What was America Online (AOL) primarily known for during the early popularization of consumer Internet access?
  1. A.An online service providing Internet access and proprietary online content
  2. B.A computer operating system
  3. C.A spreadsheet application
  4. D.A database management system
Q 40 :
An application is
  1. A.word processing, accounting and engineering programs are example of application programs
  2. B.computer program designed to enable users to perform specific job functions
  3. C.Both a and b above mentioned
  4. D.a document
  5. E.None of these

Perspective on Education

Q 41 :
Identify the factors affecting teaching related to a positive learning environment in an institution .
(i) The extent to which teachers make a clear presentation
(ii) The scope for sharing and open discussions within the classroom and the institution as such
(iii) Teachers mastery of the content as reflected in answering students questions
(iv) Frequent use of positive reinforcers either in the institution or classroom
(v) Availability of teacher and his/her guidance
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
  1. A.(i) and (iii)
  2. B.(ii) and (iii)
  3. C.(iv) and (v)
  4. D.(ii) and (iv)
Q 42 :
A model of teaching is a description of
  1. A.Teacher behaviour including teacher and student talk
  2. B.Learning environment including teaching behaviour
  3. C.Learner - behaviour including personality characteristics
  4. D.Subject matter including its logical structure
Q 43 :
A systematic science which provides rules, laws and principles for achieving adjustment with self and the environment is called ?
  1. A.Motivation
  2. B.Mental hygiene
  3. C.Learning
  4. D.Conflict
Q 44 :
Which learning theory provides support for active participation of learner in the learning process in an interactional setting with intrinsic motivation as the basis ?
  1. A.S-R Theory of Watson
  2. B.Reinforcement Theory of skinner
  3. C.Constructivist Theory of  Vygotsy
  4. D.Insight Theory of Kohler
Q 45 :
Which factors influence the quality of learning ?
  1. A.Physical
  2. B.Social
  3. C.Cultural
  4. D.All of the above
Q 46 :
Under what learning experience, conduct of Field trip comes in ?
  1. A.Enactive
  2. B.Iconic
  3. C.Symbolic
  4. D.Affective
Q 47 :
Which of the following is a direct method of adjustment ?
  1. A.Projection
  2. B.Repression
  3. C.Regression
  4. D.Substitution of Goals
Q 48 :
Which of the following potential factors affecting teaching are related to instructional facilities and learning environment ?
(i) Praise and encouragement by teachers
(ii) Non-availability of textbooks/reading materials for use
(iii) Proactive moves in the interactive processes
(iv) Shortage of highly qualified teachers
(v) Availability of smart classes
Choose the correct answer from the following options :
  1. A.(i), (ii) and (iii)
  2. B.(ii), (iii), and (v)
  3. C.(i), (iv) and (v)
  4. D.(iii), (iv) and (v)
Q 49 :
_________ exhibits a basic level of order, but the teacher still struggles to maintain it .
  1. A.Adequate classroom environment
  2. B.Orderly restrictive learning environment
  3. C.Orderly enabling learning environment
  4. D.Dysfunctional classroom environment
Q 50 :
In which of the following, the direction of influence is mainly one way :
  1. A.Counselling
  2. B.Guiding
  3. C.Teaching
  4. D.Learning

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