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Latest KVS TGT Science Exam Question (Objective Questions), MCQ in English
Subjects : Hindi, English, General Knowledge, Reasoning, Computer, Perspective on Education, Biology, Chemistry, Physics
Question Bank KVS TGT Science Exam - English
Hindi
Q 1 :
शुद्ध वर्तनी का चयन कीजिए
A. अधम्र
B. अध्रम
C. अधर्म
D. अध्रिम
Q 2 :
शुद्ध वर्तनी का चयन कीजिए
A. स्थायि
B. स्थायी
C. स्थाई
D. स्थाइ
Q 3 :
वर्तनी की दृष्टि से सही शब्द है?
A. महत्व
B. महतव
C. महत्तव
D. महतत्व
Q 4 :
निम्नलिखित में से शुद्ध छांटिए?
A. आयुष्मान
B. आयुश्मान
C. आयुशमान
D. आयुश्यमान
Q 5 :
शुद्ध शब्द नहीं हैं?
A. कवियत्री
B. कौसल्या
C. एश्वर्य
D. श्रृंगार
Q 6 :
शुद्ध वर्तनी है -
A. पूज
B. पुजय
C. पूज्य
D. पुज्य
Q 7 :
शुद्ध वर्तनी है -
A. अनुसरण
B. अनूशरणन
C. अनुशरण
D. अणुशर
Q 8 :
किस क्रमांक में सभी शुद्ध हैं?
A. एक्य,साप्ताहिक
B. आजीविका,आशीर्वाद
C. आर्शिवाद ,अनूकूल
D. निरिक्षण ,कृपालु
Q 9 :
'उज्वल' शब्द का शुद्ध रूप है ?
A. उज्जव
B. उज्ज्ल
C. उज्ज्वल
D. उजवल
Q 10 :
निम्नलिखित प्रश्न में चार वैकल्पिक वर्तनियाॅ दी गई है?
A. जागृत
B. जाग्रति
C. जाग्रित
D. जाग्रत
English
Q 11 :
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A.He was in the temper
B.and refused
C.discuss the matter again
D.No error
Q 12 :
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A.A flower makes no garland
B.so we must do a thing together
C.in a unit for a good result
D.No error
Q 13 :
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A.My friend is a software engineer
B.and his wife is doctor
C.so they don’t have enough time for each other
D.No error
Q 14 :
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A.I don’t have much time that
B.I hear you in detail with verbosity
C.tell everything in nutshell
D.No error
Q 15 :
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A.The atmosphere is changing
B.so I have severe pain in my body
C.if you have any painkiller, please give it to me
D.No error
Q 16 :
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A.No one is without fault
B.because no one is God
C.and only God is fault free
D.No error
Q 17 :
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A.Your
B.clock is
C.one hour fast
D.No error
Q 18 :
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A.The lose of jobs
B.is regarded by some as an necessary evil
C.in the fight against infliation
D.No error
Q 19 :
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A.In science, the credit goes to a man
B.who convinces the world
C.not to the man to whom the idea first occurs
D.No error
Q 20 :
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A.It is only after
B.the match is over
C.that people realize how exciting it is
D.No error
General Knowledge
Q 21 :
Yojna a weekly journal
A.Ministry of Finance
B.Ministry of Information and Broadcastin
C.Ministry of Rural Development
D.Planning Commission
Q 22 :
Kurukshetra a journal on rural development is published by
A.Ministry of Finance
B.Ministry of Information and Broadcastin
C.Ministry of Rural Development
D.Planning Commission
Q 23 :
Devaluation of a currency means
A.Fixing the value of the currency in conjuction with the movement in the value of a basket of predetermined currencies
B.Reduction in the value of a currency vis-à-vis major internationally traded currencies
C.Fixing the value of currency in multilateral consultaion with the IMF the World Bank and major trading partners
D.Permitting the currency to seek its worth in the international market
Q 24 :
In India rural incomes are generally lower than the urban incomes, which of the following reasons account for this
1. a large number of farmers are illiterate and know little about scientific agriculture
2. prices of primary products are lower than those of manufactured products
3. Investments in agriculture has been low when compared to investment in industry
A.1 and 3
B.2 and 3
C.1 and 2
D.1,2 and 3
Q 25 :
Which of the following programmes aims at the promotion of savings among rural women
A.Rashtriya Mahila Kosh
B.Indira Mahila Yojna
C.Jawahar Rozgar Yojna
D.Mahila Samridhi Yojna
Q 26 :
Who became the longest-serving continuous Finance Minister of India and presented her ninth straight Union Budget on February 1, 2026?
A.Nirmala Sitharaman
B.Arun Jaitley
C.Pranab Mukherjee
D.P. Chidambaram
Q 27 :
How many Ramsar sites does India now have after adding two new ones (in Uttar Pradesh and Gujarat) in early February 2026?
A.98
B.97
C.96
D.100
Q 28 :
In which rank did India stand in the Global Soft Power Index 2026, as reported around February 2026?
A.25th
B.32nd
C.28th
D.35th
Q 29 :
What did the Supreme Court of India declare as a fundamental right in schools around February 2026?
A.Free education up to class 12
B.Sports infrastructure
C.Digital literacy programs
D.Menstrual health facilities
Q 30 :
Which organization plans to launch India's first-ever National Household Income Survey (NHIS) and Annual Survey of Incorporated Service Sector Enterprises (ASISSE) starting April 2026?
A.RBI
B.SEBI
C.NITI Aayog
D.NSO (National Statistical Office)
Reasoning
Q 31 :
How many such pairs of letters are there in the word ‘CLEANLINESS’ each of the which has as many letters between them in the word as they have in the English alphabet, in the same sequence?
A.Two
B.Three
C.Five
D.Four
E.None of these
Q 32 :
Team A has scored more goals than Team B
Team C has scored fewer goals than Team B
Team A has scored fewer goals than Team C .
If the first two statements are true, the third statement is
A.True
B.False
C.Uncertain
D.None
Q 33 :
If it is possible to make only one meaningful word with the second, the third, the sixth and the eight letters of the word FRAGMENT using each only once, which of the following will be the third letter of that word ? If no such word can be formed, give ‘X’ as the answer and if more than one such word can be formed, give ‘Y’ as the answer.
A.A
B.E
C.T
D.X
E.Y
Q 34 :
How many such letters are there in the word ORIENTAL each of which is as far away from the beginning of the word as when they are arranged alphabetically?
A.None
B.One
C.Two
D.Three
E.More than three
Q 35 :
How many such pairs of letters in the word CREDIT each of which has as many letters between them in the word as in the English alphabet?
A.None
B.One
C.Two
D.Three
E.More than three
Computer
Q 36 :
Which Windows interface element typically appears to display information, a warning, an error message, or a request for confirmation?
A.Window
B.Pop-up menu
C.Message box
D.Taskbar
Q 37 :
What is active desktop ?
A.a term that is synonymous with viewing your desktop as web page
B.a feature to customize your desktop to display informating you can update from the internet
C.both a and b above mentioned
D.A software
E.None of these
Q 38 :
What is meant by an active window?
A.A window that is minimized
B.The window currently receiving user input
C.Any window currently open
D.The window opened first
Q 39 :
What was America Online (AOL) primarily known for during the early popularization of consumer Internet access?
A.An online service providing Internet access and proprietary online content
B.A computer operating system
C.A spreadsheet application
D.A database management system
Q 40 :
An application is
A.word processing, accounting and engineering programs are example of application programs
B.computer program designed to enable users to perform specific job functions
C.Both a and b above mentioned
D.a document
E.None of these
Perspective on Education
Q 41 :
Identify the factors affecting teaching related to a positive learning environment in an institution .
(i) The extent to which teachers make a clear presentation
(ii) The scope for sharing and open discussions within the classroom and the institution as such
(iii) Teachers mastery of the content as reflected in answering students questions
(iv) Frequent use of positive reinforcers either in the institution or classroom
(v) Availability of teacher and his/her guidance
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
A.(i) and (iii)
B.(ii) and (iii)
C.(iv) and (v)
D.(ii) and (iv)
Q 42 :
A model of teaching is a description of
A.Teacher behaviour including teacher and student talk
B.Learning environment including teaching behaviour
C.Learner - behaviour including personality characteristics
D.Subject matter including its logical structure
Q 43 :
A systematic science which provides rules, laws and principles for achieving adjustment with self and the environment is called ?
A.Motivation
B.Mental hygiene
C.Learning
D.Conflict
Q 44 :
Which learning theory provides support for active participation of learner in the learning process in an interactional setting with intrinsic motivation as the basis ?
A.S-R Theory of Watson
B.Reinforcement Theory of skinner
C.Constructivist Theory of Vygotsy
D.Insight Theory of Kohler
Q 45 :
Which factors influence the quality of learning ?
A.Physical
B.Social
C.Cultural
D.All of the above
Q 46 :
Under what learning experience, conduct of Field trip comes in ?
A.Enactive
B.Iconic
C.Symbolic
D.Affective
Q 47 :
Which of the following is a direct method of adjustment ?
A.Projection
B.Repression
C.Regression
D.Substitution of Goals
Q 48 :
Which of the following potential factors affecting teaching are related to instructional facilities and learning environment ?
(i) Praise and encouragement by teachers
(ii) Non-availability of textbooks/reading materials for use
(iii) Proactive moves in the interactive processes
(iv) Shortage of highly qualified teachers
(v) Availability of smart classes
Choose the correct answer from the following options :
A.(i), (ii) and (iii)
B.(ii), (iii), and (v)
C.(i), (iv) and (v)
D.(iii), (iv) and (v)
Q 49 :
_________ exhibits a basic level of order, but the teacher still struggles to maintain it .
A.Adequate classroom environment
B.Orderly restrictive learning environment
C.Orderly enabling learning environment
D.Dysfunctional classroom environment
Q 50 :
In which of the following, the direction of influence is mainly one way :
A.Counselling
B.Guiding
C.Teaching
D.Learning
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Education is _________ for achieving full human potential, developing an equitable and just society, and promoting national development .
A.Constitutional
B.Legitimate
C.Fundamental
D.Authentic
Q 52 :
NEP 2020 aimed to achieve equitable access to the highest-quality education for all learners regardless of social or economic background. This target will be achieved up to the year _____ .
A.2020
B.2015
C.2030
D.2040
Q 53 :
NEP 2020 lays particular emphasis on the development of ________ .
A.The best infrastructure in the world
B.The provision to give 100 employment
C.The provision to give free education
D.The creative potential of each individual
Q 54 :
Education is a great leveler and is the best tool for achieving economic and social mobility, inclusion, and ______ .
A.Disparity
B.Discrimination
C.Inequality
D.Equality
Q 55 :
How many in of the fundamental principles mentioned National Education Policy 2020 ?
A.5
B.11
C.22
D.20
Q 56 :
What are the classes which cover the "Middle stage” according to NEP 2020 new curricular structure ?
A.Class 6 to 9
B.Class 9 to 12
C.Class 6 to 8
D.Class 11 to 12
Q 57 :
How much (percent %) of a child's cumulative brain development occurs prior to the age of 6 according to NEP 2020 ?
A.Over 85%
B.Over 95%
C.Over 75%
D.Over 65%
Q 58 :
What is the timeline to ensure that all students entering Grade 1 are school ready according to National Education Policy 2020 ?
A.2035
B.2040
C.2025
D.2030
Q 59 :
Under the chairmanship of whom 'Committee for Evolution of the New Education Policy' submitted its report in May 2016 ?
A.Late Shri T.S.R. Subramanian
B.Dr. K. Kasturirangan
C.Rina Ray
D.Shri Sanjay Dhotre
Q 60 :
According to the National Education Policy 2020 by how much percent the Gross Enrolment Ratio in higher education to be raised ?
A.25%
B.30%
C.40%
D.50%
Q 61 :
Child Psychology is known as
A.Child development
B.Child growth
C.Psychology
D.None of these
Q 62 :
Who gave scientific explanation about child Development ?
A.Rousseau
B.Pestalozzi
C.Tiedman
D.Darwin
Q 63 :
Who published "Biographical Sketch of An Infant ?
A.Darwin
B.Lamarck
C.Tiedman
D.Hall
Q 64 :
How many approaches are to solve the problems related with child development ?
A.one
B.two
C.three
D.four
Q 65 :
Which of the following stages show the development of child ?
A.Pre-natal stage of development
B.Post-natal stage of development
C.Both 1 & 2
D.None of these
Q 66 :
What is the period of childhood ?
A.Two years to 11-12 years
B.Three years to 15 years
C.3 years to 12 years
D.14 years to 16 years
Q 67 :
Which of the following test related with Personality test ?
A.Rorschach Ink blot Test
B.Objective Test
C.Machine Test
D.Project Test
Q 68 :
Which of following concept is the most important problem of child psychology ?
A.Listening
B.Learning
C.Rote learning
D.Cognition
Q 69 :
Which of the following are stages of development of child ?
A.Infancy
B.Babyhood
C.Childhood
D.All the above
Q 70 :
Which of the following stage is the last stage of child life ?
A.Childhood
B.Puberty
C.Adolescence
D.Prenatal period
Q 71 :
The Right to Education Act (RTE) came into force on :
A.1st April, 2011
B.1st April, 2010
C.31st April, 2011
D.31st April, 2010
Q 72 :
The no. of countries in the world which made education a fundamental right of every child, is :
A.125
B.115
C.135
D.130
Q 73 :
The article of the Indian constitution under which provision of free and compulsory education for children between 6 and 14 years is made in India :
A.45
B.44
C.22
D.21 A
Q 74 :
The act among the following was passed by the Indian parliament on 4th August, 2009 :
A.Right to Education Act
B.Right to Information Act
C.All of these
D.Right to Work Act
Q 75 :
The year in which the rough draft of separate education bill was composed :
A.2006
B.2005
C.2004
D.2007
Q 76 :
The first time in the History of India law which was brought into force by a speech by the Prime Minister :
A.Right to Information Act
B.Right to Work Act
C.Right to Education Act
D.Right to Speak Act
Q 77 :
"We are all children, irrespective of gender and social category, have access to education - An education that enables them to acquire the skills, knowledge, values and attitudes necessary to become responsible and active citizens of India". This is stated in parliament by :
A.The President
B.Human Resource Development
C.Union Law Minister
D.Prime Minister
Q 78 :
The precentage of seats which all private schools should reserve to children from poor families :
A.50%
B.45%
C.30%
D.25%
Q 79 :
A false statement among the following with regard to Right to Education Act :
A.RTE Act prohibits all unrecognised school from practice, and makes provisions for no donation or capitation fees and no interview of the child or parent for admission
B.RTE Act provides that no child shall be held back, expelled, or required to pass a board examination until the completion of elementary education
C.A provision for special training for school drop outs to bring them upto par with students of the same age is prohibited
D.The RTE Act requires surveys that will monitor all neighbourhoods, identify children requiring education, and set up facilities for providing it
Q 80 :
The Right to Education of persons with disabilities until this age has also been made a fundamental right :
A.14 years of age
B.16 years of age
C.21 years of age
D.18 years of age
Physics
Q 81 :
Temperature can be expressed as derived quantity in terms of
A.length and mass
B.mass and time
C.length, mass and time
D.None of these
Q 82 :
Electron volt is a unit of
A.potential difference
B.charge
C.energy
D.capacity
Q 83 :
Dimensions of impulse are
A.[MLT –1]
B.[MLT²]
C.[MT–2]
D.[ML–1T–3]
Q 84 :
Potential is measured in
A.joule/coulomb
B.watt/coulomb
C.newton–second
D.None of these
Q 85 :
One Nanometer is equal to
A.10–9m
B.10–6m
C.10–10m
D.10–3m
Q 86 :
Maxwell is the unit of
A.magnetic susceptibility
B.intensity of Magnetisation
C.magnetic Flux
D.magnetic Permeability
Q 87 :
Which of the following is derived physical quantity ?
A.Mass
B.Velocity
C.Length
D.Time
Q 88 :
What are the units of magnetic permeability ?
A.Wb A–1 m–1
B.Wb–1 Am
C.Wb A m–1
D.Wb A–1 m
Q 89 :
The dimensions of pressure gradient are
A.[ML–2 T–2]
B.[ML–2 T–1]
C.[ML–1 T–1]
D.[ML–1 T–2]
Q 90 :
The dimensions of Rydberg's constant are
A.[M0L–1T]
B.[MLT–1]
C.[M0 L–1T0]
D.[ML0 T2]
Q 91 :
'Farad' is the unit of
A.resistance
B.conductance
C.capacitance
D.inductance
Q 92 :
S.I. unit of surface tension is
A.degree/cm
B.N/m
C.N/m²
D.Nm
Q 93 :
Which one of the following pairs does not have the same dimension ?
A.Potential energy and Kinetic energy
B.Density and specific gravity
C.Focal length and height
D.Gravitational force and frictional force
Q 94 :
Which one of the following physical quantity has the same unit as that of pressure ?
A.Angular momentum
B.Stress
C.Strain
D.Work
Q 95 :
The symbol of SI unit of inductance is H. It stands for
A.Holm
B.Halogen
C.Henry
D.Hertz
Q 96 :
Light year is a measure of
A.time
B.distance
C.total amount of light falling on the Earth in a year
D.average intensity of light falling on the Earth in a year
Q 97 :
Which one of the following is not a dimension less quantity ?
A.Strain
B.Relative density
C.Frequency
D.Angle
Q 98 :
The dimensions of universal gas constant are
A.[L² M¹ T–2 K–1]
B.[L¹ M² T–2 K–1]
C.[L¹ M¹ T–2 K–1]
D.[L² M² T–2 K–1]
Q 99 :
The dimensions of magnetic moment are
A.[L²A¹]
B.[L²A–1]
C.[L²/A³]
D.[LA²]
Q 100 :
The dimensions of Wien's constant are
A.[ML0TK]
B.[M0LT0K]
C.[M0L0TK]
D.[MLTK]
Q 101 :
The dimensional formula of wave number is
A.[M0L0T–1]
B.[M0L–1T0]
C.[M–1 L–1 T0]
D.[M0 L0 T0]
Q 102 :
The dimensional of Hubble ‘s wave number is
A.[T–1]
B.[M0L0T–2]
C.[MLT4]
D.[MT–1]
Q 103 :
The dimensions of solar constant is
A.[M0L0T0]
B.[MLT–2]
C.[ML²T–2]
D.MT–3
Q 104 :
The dimensional formula for entropy is
A.[MLT–2K¹]
B.[ML2 T-2]
C.[ML²T–2K–1]
D.[ML²T–2K]
Q 105 :
Dimension of specific heat are
A.[ML² T–2 K]
B.[ML² T–2 K–1]
C.[ML²T²K–1]
D.[L²T–2K–2]
Q 106 :
The physical quantity which has the dimensional formula [M¹T–3] is
A.surface tension
B.solar constant
C.density
D.compressibility
Q 107 :
Which one of the following elements is used as a timekeeper in atomic clocks ?
A.Potassium
B.Caesium
C.Calcium
D.Magnesium
Q 108 :
Which one of the following is the value of one nanometer ?
A.10–7 cm
B.10–6 cm
C.10–4 cm
D.10–3 cm
Q 109 :
What is the unit of pressure ?
A.Newton/sq. meter
B.Newton–meter
C.Newton
D.Newton/meter
Q 110 :
The unit of pressure is
A.kg/cm²
B.kg/cm
C.kg/mm
D.kg/cm3
Q 111 :
Which one of the following quantities doe not have unit ?
A.Stress
B.Force
C.Strain
D.Pressure
Q 112 :
Dimensional formula for thermal conductivity is here K denotes the temperature:
A.MLT–2K
B.MLT–2K–2
C.MLT–3K
D.MLT–3K–1
Q 113 :
Which of the following is the unit of molar gas constant ?
A.JK–1 mol–1
B.Joule
C.JK–1
D.J mol–1
Q 114 :
Density of liquid is 16.8 g cm–3. Its value in the International System of Units is
A.16.8 kgm–3
B.168 kgm–3
C.1680 kgm–3
D.16800 kgm–3
Q 115 :
The dimensional formula of couple is
A.[ML² T–2]
B.[MLT²]
C.[ML–1T–3]
D.[ML–2T–2]
Chemistry
Q 116 :
Which of the following is not a synthetic fibre:
A.Anygora
B.Rayon
C.Nylon
D.Polyster
Q 117 :
Which one of the following is not contained in Portland cement ?
A.Ca3Al2O6
B.Ca3SiO5
C.Ca2SiO4
D.Ca3(PO4)2
Q 118 :
What is the reson for white cement to be white ?
A.It does not contain carbon
B.It does not contain silicon
C.It does not contain iron
D.It does not contain calcium
Q 119 :
Which fertilizer is assimilated directly by the plant ?
A.Super phosphate
B.Nitrolim
C.Muriate of Potash
D.Humus
Q 120 :
Which of the following chemicals is used in foam fire extinguishers ?
A.Aluminium sulphate
B.Copper sulphate
C.Cobalt sulphate
D.Nickel sulphate
Q 121 :
What is a mixture of potassium nitrate, powdered charcoal and sulphur called ?
A.Glass
B.Cement
C.paint
D.Gun powder
Q 122 :
Which one of the following chemicals is used in beauty parlours for hair – setting ?
A.Sulphur based
B.Phosphorus based
C.Silicon based
D.Iron based
Q 123 :
Which one of the following is used as a mordant in dyeing and tanning industry ?
A.Magnesium oxide
B.Magnesium carbonate
C.Magnesium chloride
D.Magnesium sulphate
Q 124 :
Which one of the following substances is used in the manufacture of safety matches ?
A.Red phosphorus
B.White phosphorus
C.Phosphorus trioxide (P2O3)
D.Black phosphorus
Q 125 :
Which one of the following polymeric materials is used for making bullet proof jacket ?
A.Nylon –6, 6
B.Rayon
C.Kevlar
D.Dacron
Q 126 :
Which one of the following is another name of RDX
A.Cyanohydrin
B.Dextran
C.Cyclohexane
D.Cyclonite
Q 127 :
Which one of the following is used as an explosive ?
A.Phosphorus trichloride
B.Mercuric oxide
C.Graphite
D.Nitroglycerine
Q 128 :
Flint glass is obtained from which of the following ?
A.Zinc and barium borosilicate
B.Sand, red lead and potassium carbonate
C.Sodium aluminium borosilicate
D.Pure silica and zinc oxide
Q 129 :
Which one of the following correctly defines the state of glass ?
A.Crystalline solid
B.Super cooled liquid
C.Condensed gas
D.Liquid crystal
Q 130 :
Which one of the following is not used as fertilizer ?
A.Ammonium nitrate
B.Ammonium sulphide
C.Ammonium phosphate
D.Ammonium sulphate
Q 131 :
Which one of the following elements is needed in the human body to transfer electrical signals by nerve cells ?
A.Lithium
B.Sodium
C.Rubidium
D.Caesium
Q 132 :
Which one of the following is NOT true for bleaching powder ?
A.It is used as a reducing agent in chemical industries
B.It is used for bleaching wood pup in paper factories
C.It is used for disinfecting drinking water
D.It is used for bleaching linen in textile industry
Q 133 :
Hard glass having the same ingredientsas soft glass excepts.
A.hard glass have Na in place of K
B.hard glass having K in place of Na
C.hard glass having both Na and K
D.None of the above
Q 134 :
A complete fertilizer provides
A.N,P, K
B.S, K, N
C.S, B, K
D.N, S, P
Q 135 :
Antacids are commonly used to get rid of acidity in the Stomach. A commonly used antacid is.
A.sodium hydrogen phthalate
B.magnesium hydroxide
C.calcium hydroxide
D.manganese acetate
Q 136 :
Annealing of glass is done to.
A.make it brittle
B.make it opaque
C.make it transparent
D.None of the above
Q 137 :
Petrochemicals are obtained from.
A.coal
B.petroleum
C.coal tar
D.All of these
Q 138 :
The use of chemicals for treatment of diseases is called as.
A.isothermotherapy
B.angiotherapy
C.physiotherapy
D.chemotherapy
Q 139 :
Which of the following is a hypnotic drug ?
A.luminal
B.salol
C.catechol
D.chemisol
Q 140 :
Teflon is a polymer of which of the following monomers ?
A.Tetrafluoroethylene
B.Vinyl chloride
C.Acetylene dichloride
D.None of the above/More than one of the above
Q 141 :
LPG used as domestic fuel chiefly contains–
A.Methane
B.Propane
C.Ethylene
D.Butane
E.None of the above/More than one of the above
Q 142 :
Glass is a.
A.liquid
B.colloid
C.non–crystalline amorphous solid
D.crystalline solid
Q 143 :
Which one of the following acids is used for etching glass ?
A.H2SO4
B.HNO3
C.HF
D.HCI
Q 144 :
What is the purpose of adding plasticizers in paint manufacturing process ?
A.They act as a film–forming constituent
B.They reduce the viscosity
C.They prevent the polymerization and condensation
D.They provide elasticity to the film and minimize its cracking
Q 145 :
Which raw material is used in the preperation of soft glass ?
A.K2CO3, SiO2, CaCO3
B.K2CO3, SiO2, PbCO3
C.Na2CO3, SiO2, CaCO3
D.Na2CO3, SiO2, PbO
Q 146 :
What is the composition of nitrolim – a chemical fertilizer ?
A.Nitrogen and limestone
B.Calcium carbide and nitrogen
C.Calcium carbide and carbon
D.None of above
Q 147 :
the major component used in preparation of different type of glasses is.
A.Silica
B.Sodium borate
C.Calcium silicate
D.Sodium silicate
Q 148 :
Salts of which of the following elements provide colours to fireworks ?
A.Zinc and sulphur
B.Potassium and mercury
C.Strontium and barium
D.Chromium and nickel
Q 149 :
Given below are two statements :
Statement I : Phenyl is used as a household germicide.
Statement II : Phenyl is phenol derivative and phenol is an effective germicide.
In the light of the above statement, choose the correct answer from the options given below:
A.Both Statement I and II are correct and Statement II is the correct explanation of Statement I
B.Both Statement I and Statement II are true but Statement II is NOT the correct explanation of Statement I
C.Statement I is correct, but Statement II is incorrect
D.Statement I is incorrect, but Statement II is correct
Q 150 :
Given below are two statements :
Statement I : Coal–based thermal power stations contribute to acid–rain.
Statement II : Oxides of carbon are emitted when coal burns.
In the light of the above statement, choose the correct answer from the options given below:
A.Both Statement I and II are individually correct and Statement II is the correct explanation of Statement I
B.Both Statement I and Statement II are individiaully correct but Statement II is not the correct explanation of Statement I
C.Statement I is correct, but Statement II is incorrect
D.Statement I is incorrect, but Statement II is correct
Biology
Q 151 :
Which of the following contain enzymes for cellular respiration ?
A.Dictyosomes
B.Endoplasmic reticulum
C.lysosomes
D.Mitochondria
Q 152 :
Which one among the following nutrients is a strctural
A.Cell membrane
B.Plasma membrane
C.Cell wall
D.Nucleus
Q 153 :
Which one among the following nutrients is a structural component of the cell wall of plants ?
A.Manganese
B.Potassium
C.Phosphorus
D.Calcium
Q 154 :
Which of the following groups is present in animal cells ?