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Latest LHMC Senior Resident Exam Question (Objective Questions), MCQ in English
Subjects : General Knowledge, Reasoning, Aptitude, General English, BDS, MBBS
Question Bank LHMC Senior Resident Exam - English
General Knowledge
Q 1 :
Yojna a weekly journal
A.Ministry of Finance
B.Ministry of Information and Broadcastin
C.Ministry of Rural Development
D.Planning Commission
Q 2 :
Kurukshetra a journal on rural development is published by
A.Ministry of Finance
B.Ministry of Information and Broadcastin
C.Ministry of Rural Development
D.Planning Commission
Q 3 :
Devaluation of a currency means
A.Fixing the value of the currency in conjuction with the movement in the value of a basket of predetermined currencies
B.Reduction in the value of a currency vis-à-vis major internationally traded currencies
C.Fixing the value of currency in multilateral consultaion with the IMF the World Bank and major trading partners
D.Permitting the currency to seek its worth in the international market
Q 4 :
In India rural incomes are generally lower than the urban incomes, which of the following reasons account for this
1. a large number of farmers are illiterate and know little about scientific agriculture
2. prices of primary products are lower than those of manufactured products
3. Investments in agriculture has been low when compared to investment in industry
A.1 and 3
B.2 and 3
C.1 and 2
D.1,2 and 3
Q 5 :
Which of the following programmes aims at the promotion of savings among rural women
A.Rashtriya Mahila Kosh
B.Indira Mahila Yojna
C.Jawahar Rozgar Yojna
D.Mahila Samridhi Yojna
Q 6 :
What is Net National Product
A.the money value of final goods and services produced annually in the economy
B.the money value of annual service generation in the economy
C.the money value of tangible goods produced annually in the economy
D.The money value of tangible goods available in the economy
Q 7 :
National income is the
A.net national product at market price
B.net national product at factor cost
C.net domestic product at market price
D.net domestic product at factor cost
Q 8 :
Chelliah Committee of 1992 deals with the overhauling of our
A.financial system
B.tax system
C.patents and copyrights
D.Public sector undertakings
Q 9 :
During which Five Year Plan was the annual growth rate of National Income the lowest
A.2nd plan
B.3rd plan
C.5th plan
D.6th plan
Q 10 :
Which of the following taxes is a progressive tax
A.sales tax
B.custom tax
C.excise tax
D.income tax
Q 11 :
Sattriya dance form is famous in which of these states ?
A.Assam
B.Himachal Pradesh
C.Punjab
D.Tamil Nadu
Q 12 :
Which of the following statements is true ?
Statement I: Indian techniques such as Rasa and Bhawa in classical dances have their origins in Bharatmuni's Natyashastra.
Statement II: Bharatanatyam has its origin in Odisha.
A.Only Statement II is true
B.Both Statement I and Statement II are true
C.Neither Statement I nor Statement II is true
D.Only Statement I is true
Q 13 :
"Who said, 'India was a parrot unto itself'?
A.Malik Muhammad Joyce
B.Raskhan
C.Rich Khusrow
D.Rich Hasan
Q 14 :
What was the real name of Amir Khusro?
A.Muhammad Hasan
B.Muhammad Hussain
C.Muhammad Khusrow
D.Muhammad Mine
Q 15 :
Which is the national game of Bhutan ?
A.badminton
B.basketball
C.football
D.archery
Q 16 :
When was the Constituent Assembly of India formed?
A.1946
B.1947
C.1948
D.1950
Q 17 :
Who is known as the "Father of the Indian Renaissance" ?
A.Raja Ram Mohan Roy
B.Swami Vivekananda
C.Rabindranath Tagore
D.Mahatma Gandhi
Q 18 :
What is the study of ethics primarily concerned with ?
A.Economic behavior
B.Human values and moral principles
C.Physical health
D.Political systems
Q 19 :
Which is the longest river in India?
A.Yamuna
B.Ganges
C.Brahmaputra
D.Godavari
Q 20 :
The Western Ghats are also known as:
A.Sahyadris
B.Vindhyas
C.Satpuras
D.Aravallis
Q 21 :
Which organization developed the "Bharatpol" portal?
A.Intelligence Bureau
B.Central Bureau of Investigation
C.National Investigation Agency
D.Enforcement Directorate
Q 22 :
Who is the President of Singapore who visited India from?
A.Bongbong Marcos
B.Lee Hsien Loong
C.Tharman Shanmugaratnam
D.Sam Altman
Q 23 :
The Mahabharata Vatika, featuring 37 plant species mentioned in the epic, was developed by the Uttarakhand forest department in which location?
A.Roorkee
B.Pithoragarh
C.Haldwani
D.Kashipur
Q 24 :
The "Global Education Monitoring Report 2025" was released by which organization?
A.World Bank
B.UNESCO
C.OECD
D.UNICEF
Q 25 :
The "World Urban Forum 2025" is scheduled to be held in which city?
A.Paris
B.Kuala Lumpur
C.Abu Dhabi
D.Nairobi
Reasoning
Q 26 :
How many such pairs of letters are there in the word ‘CLEANLINESS’ each of the which has as many letters between them in the word as they have in the English alphabet, in the same sequence?
A.Two
B.Three
C.Five
D.Four
E.None of these
Q 27 :
Team A has scored more goals than Team B
Team C has scored fewer goals than Team B
Team A has scored fewer goals than Team C .
If the first two statements are true, the third statement is
A.True
B.False
C.Uncertain
D.None
Q 28 :
If it is possible to make only one meaningful word with the second, the third, the sixth and the eight letters of the word FRAGMENT using each only once, which of the following will be the third letter of that word ? If no such word can be formed, give ‘X’ as the answer and if more than one such word can be formed, give ‘Y’ as the answer.
A.A
B.E
C.T
D.X
E.Y
Q 29 :
How many such letters are there in the word ORIENTAL each of which is as far away from the beginning of the word as when they are arranged alphabetically?
A.None
B.One
C.Two
D.Three
E.More than three
Q 30 :
How many such pairs of letters in the word CREDIT each of which has as many letters between them in the word as in the English alphabet?
A.None
B.One
C.Two
D.Three
E.More than three
Q 31 :
How many meaningful words can be made from the letters ‘LMEA’ using each letter only once in each word?
A.None
B.One
C.Two
D.Three
E.More than three
Q 32 :
If it is possible to make only one meaningful word with the first, the second, the seventh and the eighth letters of the word TEMPORAL, which of the following will be the first letter of that word? If more than one such word can be made, give ‘Y’ as the answer and if no such word can be made, give ‘X’ as the answer.
A.T
B.L
C.E
D.Y
E.X
Q 33 :
If the letters of the word HANDOVER are arranged alphabetically from left to right how many letters will remain at the same position?
A.None
B.One
C.Two
D.Three
E.More than three
Q 34 :
How many such pairs of letters are there in the word EXCURSION, each of which has as many letters between them in the word as they have in the English alphabet?
A.None
B.One
C.Two
D.Three
E.More than three
Q 35 :
If it is possible to make only one meaningful word with the first, the second, the third, the sixth and the eighth letters of the word DEVIATION first letter of that word is your answer? If more than one such word can be made formed your answer is ‘A’ and if no such word can be formed your answer is ‘B’.
A.V
B.T
C.E
D.A
E.B
Q 36 :
If each alternate letter beginning with the first in the word WORKING is replaced by the next letter in the English alphabet and each of the remaining letters is replaced by the previous letter in the English alphabet, which of the following will be the fourth from the right and after the replacement ?
A.N
B.Q
C.J
D.M
E.None of these
Q 37 :
How many pairs of letters are there in the word ‘SHIFTED’ each of which has as many letters between its two letters as there are between in the English alphabet?
A.None
B.One
C.Two
D.Three
E.None of these
Q 38 :
Statement: Is common currency a necessary ingredient for Europe’s growth ?
Arguments :
I. Yes, A common currency will enable entire Europe to market itself as one .
II. No, Similar experiments by Latin America countries have not affected their economies .
A.The only argument I is strong
B.Only argument II is strong
C.Either I or II is strong
D.Neither I nor II is strong
Q 39 :
If it is possible to make only one meaningful word with the first, the fifth, the sixth, the tenth and the eleventh letters of the word EXCEPTIONAL using each letter only once, first letter of that word is your answer. If no such word can be made formed your answer is ‘X’ and if more than one such word can be formed your answer is ‘Y’.
A.P
B.L
C.T
D.X
E.Y
Q 40 :
How many meaningful English words can be formed with the letters RAE using each letter only once in each word?
A.None
B.One
C.Two
D.Three
E.More than three
Q 41 :
Which letter in this alphabet is the eighth letter to the right of the letter and which is tenth letter to the left of the last but one letter of the alphabet ?
A.X
B.W
C.I
D.H
Q 42 :
If the third alphabet of each of the words is changed to the next alphabet in the English alphabetical series, which of the following will form a meaningful English word?
A.SUM
B.BIG
C.Both BIG and THE
D.FOR
E.Both FOR and BIG
Q 43 :
If the given words are arranged in the order as they would appear in a dictionary from left to right, which of the following will be second from the right ?
A.AND
B.FOR
C.THE
D.BIG
E.SUM
Q 44 :
If second alphabet in each of the words is changed to next alphabet in the English alphabetical order, how many words having two vowels (same or different vowels) will be formed ?
A.None
B.One
C.Two
D.Three
E.Four
Q 45 :
How many letters are there in the English alphabetical series between the second letter of the word which is second from the right and the second letter of the word which is second from the left of the given words?
A.Two
B.Five
C.Six
D.Nine
E.Three
Q 46 :
If in each of the given words, each of the consonant is changed to previous letter and each vowel is changed to next letter in the English alphabetical series, in how many words thus formed will no vowels appear?
A.None
B.One
C.Two
D.Three
E.More than three
Q 47 :
If the third alphabet in each of the words is changed to the next alphabet in the English alphabetical order, how many words having two vowels (same or different vowels) will be formed?
A.None
B.One
C.Two
D.Three
E.Four
Q 48 :
If the position of the first and the second alphabets of each of the words are interchanged, which of the following will form a meaningful English word?
A.Both CAT and OWN
B.Both BRU and INK
C.Only CAT
D.Only INK
E.Only LEG
Q 49 :
If the given words are arranged in the order as they would appear in a dictionary from left to right, which of the following will be exactly in the middle of the five words?
A.OWN
B.LEG
C.BRU
D.CAT
E.INK
Q 50 :
If in each of the given words, each of the consonants is changed to previous letter and each vowel is changed to next letter in the English alphabetical series, in how many words thus formed will the same alphabet appear twice?
A.None
B.One
C.Two
D.Three
E.More than three
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LHMC Senior Resident Exam Question Bank Book - English
The cash difference between the selling prices of an article at a profit of 4% and 6% is Rs. 3. The ratio of the two selling prices is:__________ ?
A.51:52
B.52:53
C.51:53
D.52:55
Q 52 :
Which of the following numbers is irrational ?
A.√49
B.0.125
C.√2
D.22/7
Q 53 :
356 x 936 – 356 x 836 = ?
A.35600
B.34500
C.9630
D.93600
Q 54 :
Arrange in descending order: 5/8, 7/10, 3/4
A.3/4 > 7/10 > 5/8
B.7/10 > 3/4 > 5/8
C.3/4 > 5/8 > 7/10
D.5/8 > 7/10 > 3/4
Q 55 :
What is (3^{4} times 9^{2}) ?
A.36
B.38
C.310
D.96
Q 56 :
If 34X-2 = 729, then find the value of X.
A.4
B.3
C.2
D.5
Q 57 :
Convert 0.6 into fraction ?
A.3/5
B.2/3
C.4/5
Q 58 :
The no. plate of a bus had peculiarity. The bus number was a perfect square. It was also a perfect square when the plate numbers were reversed. The bus company had only five hundred buses numbered from 1 to 500. What was the number ?
A.169
B.36
C.196
D.Can not say
Q 59 :
If a and b are positive integers, such that ab = 125, then (a-b)a+b-4 = ?
A.16
B.25
C.28
D.30
Q 60 :
If x*y = x2 + y2 – xy, then value of 9*11 is
A.93
B.103
C.60.5
D.121
Q 61 :
Which is greater ?
A.15/16
B.17/18
C.Equal
D.Cannot compare
Q 62 :
If sum of two numbers is 42 and their product is 437, then find their difference.
A.3
B.4
C.5
D.7
Q 63 :
Write the 44000 in Roman numerals
A.XLI
B.XLVI
C.XLIV
D.XLVIC
Q 64 :
Convert 0.0909… into fraction ?
A.1/11
B.9/11
C.1/9
D.9/10
Q 65 :
What is (98 times 102) ?
A.9996
B.10000
C.10096
D.10196
Q 66 :
Chemistry but not in Physics.
A.318
B.198
C.213
D.206
Q 67 :
Physics or Maths but not in Chemistry.
A.558
B.718
C.628
D.None of these
Q 68 :
What is the percentage of persons who read all the three papers ?
A.20%
B.25%
C.30%
D.40%
Q 69 :
What is the percentage of persons who read only two papers?
A.19%
B.31%
C.44%
D.None of these
Q 70 :
What is the percentage of persons who read only one paper ?
A.38%
B.48%
C.51%
D.None of these
Q 71 :
What is the percentage of persons who read only A but neither B nor C ?
A.4%
B.3%
C.1%
D.None of these
Q 72 :
If A and B are any two sets, then what is A รกยดโ (A รกยดโ B) equal to ?
A.Complement of A
B.Complement of B
C.B
D.A
Q 73 :
40% of the people read newspaper X, 50% read newspaper Y and 10% read both the papers. What percentage of the people read neither newspaper ?
A.10%
B.15%
C.20%
D.25%
Q 74 :
The passengers who like only coffee is greater than the passengers who like only lassi by
A.25%
B.100%
C.75%
D.0%
Q 75 :
The percentage of passengers who like both tea and lassi but not coffee, is
A.15
B.25
C.40
D.75
General English
Q 76 :
I go to Madurai by —– Vaigai Express
A.a
B.an
C.some
D.the
Q 77 :
Have the car stolen!
A.Steal the car
B.You should have the stolen car
C.Get someone to steal the car
D.They have stolen the car
Q 78 :
The payment was collected by the hardworking salesman.
A.The hardworking salesman collected the payment.
B.the salesman who worked heard was able to collect the payment.
C.to collect the payment the salesman had to work hard.
D.The hardworking salesman was able to collect the payment.
Q 79 :
I had to stop all my work to complete this project.
A.All other work had to be stopped to complete this project by me
B.For completing this project all other work must be stopped
C.For completing this project I had to stop all my work
D.To complete this project all other work had been stopped by me
Q 80 :
They have published the names of all the successful candidates.
A.The candidates who have succeeded their names they had published.
B.The names of all the successful candidates have been published by them
C.The candidates who have succeeded their names have been published by them.
D.The names of all the successful candidate were published by them.
Q 81 :
The online shopping site lowered the prices.
A.Lowering of the prices was done by the online shopping site
B.The prices were lowered by the online shopping site
C.The prices had been lowered by the online shopping site
D.The prices have been lowered by the online shopping site
Q 82 :
Who taught you to drive a truck ?
A.To drive a truck by whom were you taught?
B.Driving a truck by who were you taught?
C.Driving a truck by who were you being taught?
D.By whom were you taught to drive a truck?
Q 83 :
We shall invite Suresh.
A.Suresh would be invited by us
B.Suresh would have been invited by us
C.Suresh will be invited by us
D.Suresh will have been invited by us
Q 84 :
Dark clouds have overcast the evening sky.
A.By the dark clouds the evening sky was overcast.
B.The evening sky has been overcast by the dark clouds.
C.Dark clouds overcastted the evening sky.
D.The sky of the evening was overcasted by dark clouds.
Q 85 :
The partners will celebrate their triumph tomorrow.
A.The triumph would be celebrated by the partners a day before
B.The triumph would be celebrated by the partners a day after
C.The triumph would have been celebrated by the partners a day after
D.The triumph will have been celebrated by the partners tomorrow
Q 86 :
Why did break the vase?
A.why is the vase broken by him
B.why was the vase broken by him
C.why had been the vase broken by him
D.why has been the vase broken by him
Q 87 :
Mariam was writing a note to her boss.
A.A note was written to her boss by Mariam
B.A note was wrote by Mariam to her boss
C.A note was being written by Mariam to her boss
D.A note was written by Mariam to her boss
Q 88 :
The baby really enjoys that music.
A.That music was really enjoyed by the baby.
B.That music was really being enjoyed by the baby.
C.That music is really enjoyed by the baby.
D.This music was really enjoyed by the baby.
Q 89 :
The weather disrupted the final match.
A.The final match has been disrupted by the weather.
B.The final match had been disrupted by the weather.
C.The final match was disrupted by the weather.
D.The final match was being disrupted by the weather.
Q 90 :
The management committee is required to publish a report every year.
A.report would be published by the management committee every year.
B.A report would have been published by the management committee every year.
C.A report requires to be published by the management committee every year.
D.Every year the report would be published by the management committee.
Q 91 :
The Finance Department has ……………a centralized online databank system for all statutory government bodies to …………an eye on their assets and liabilities.
A. presented , stay
B.introduced , keep
C.announce , make
D.created , let
E.proclaimed , hold
Q 92 :
Assets
A.liabilities
B.responsibilities
C.estates
D.profits
Q 93 :
Affidavit
A. Affirmation
B.Slander
C.Oath
D.Testimony
Q 94 :
Hollow
A.Alveolate
B.Cleft
C. Cavernous
D.Solid
Q 95 :
Cosset
A.Ignoreb
B.Close
C.Caress
D.Fondle
Q 96 :
Ogle
A.Leer
B.Gaze
C.Ignore
D.Gawk
Q 97 :
Intrinsic
A.Elemental
B.Innate
C.Connate
D.Acquired
Q 98 :
Coalesce
A.Separate
B.Adhere
C.Cleave
D.Amalgamate
Q 99 :
Loiter
A.lag
B.Hasten
C.Amble
D.Loii
Q 100 :
The protests were......... at ......... awareness among the elite and the educated.
A.held, generating
B.aimed, creating
C.targeted, awakening
D.focused, building
E.concentrated, producing
BDS
Q 101 :
Failure of descent of thyroid gland can be seen in the tongue
A.In anterior 2/3 of dorsal aspect
B.IN posterior 1/3 of dorsal aspect
C.Near the base of tongue close to foramen caecum
D.In anterior 2/3 of inferior
Q 102 :
development of mandible is by
A.I branchial arch
B.II branchial arch
C.Iv branchial arch
D.III branchial arch
Q 103 :
which of the following lobes of cerebrum is related to the inferior horn of the lateral ventricle ?
A.Frontal
B.Parietal
C.Temporal
D.Occipital
Q 104 :
The branch of facial nerve that conveys the secret motor impulse involved in lacrimation is
A.Chorda tympani nerve
B.Deep pertosal nerve
C.Greater petrosal nerve
D.Lesser petrosal nerve
Q 105 :
Structure related to the medial surface of the hyoglossus muscle include the following except
A.Glossopharyngeal nerve
B.Stylohyoid ligament
C.Lingual artert
D.Hypoglossal nerve
Q 106 :
Which of the following nerves is not encountered during submandibular gland resection ?
A.Lingual nerve
B.Hypoglossal nerve
C.Accessory nerve
D.Marginal mandibular nerve
Q 107 :
Which of the following os called counter current exchanger ?
A.Loop of Henle
B.Vasa recta
C.collecting duct
D.Proximal convoluted tubule
Q 108 :
Acute pyogenic infection produces .
A.Leucopenia
B.Liukocytosis
C.Neutropenia
D.Lymphopenia
Q 109 :
The receptor cells of the olfactory epithelium are
A.Bipolar neurons
B.Unipolar neurons
C.Multipolar neurons
D.stellate cells
Q 110 :
According to US FDA, the machine used for taking intraoral radiographs is classified as :
A.Class I
B.Class II
C.Classs III
D.Class IV
Q 111 :
Activity of osteoclasts can be modified and regulated by which hormone
Which of the following is a regulatory protein of the muscle
A.Troponin
B.Myosin
C.Actin
D.Protein C
Q 114 :
Intrinsic factor in the stomach is secreted by
A.Oxyntic cells
B.Chief cells
C.Mast like cells
D.D –cells of antrum
Q 115 :
Kussmaul’s respiration occurs in response to
A.Decrease in PH of blood
B.Increase in PH of blood
C.Obstructive pulmonary disease
D.Carbon monoxide poisoning
Q 116 :
The main component of hyperlipidemia constituting a major risk factor for atherosclerosis is
A.High density lipoprotein (HDL)cholesterol
B.Intermediate density lipoprotein (IDL) cholesterol
C.Low density lipoprotein (LDL ) cholesterol
D.Very low density lipoprotein (VLDL) cholesterol
Q 117 :
Metal oxides are added in porcelain provide all EXCEPT :
A.Strength
B.Improve bonding
C.Cosmetic
D.Impart color
Q 118 :
The enzyme phosphofructokinase 1 is strongly activated by
A.Cyclic AMP
B.Adenosine triphosphate
C.Citrate
D.Fructose 2 ,6 bis phosphate
Q 119 :
Transcription is the synthesis of
A.Single stranded complimentary copy of DNA
B.Double stranded complimentaty copy of DNA
C.Complimentary copy of RNA
D.complimentary copy of r RNA
Q 120 :
Non polar lipid act as
A.Electrical insulators
B.Ions
C.Non electrical insulators
D.Electrolytes
Q 121 :
Cofactor required for lipoprotein lipase activity is
A.Apo A-II
B.Apo C-II
C.Apo CIII
D.Apo B –II
Q 122 :
The first plasma protein to be generated after severe protein deficiency
A.Albumin
B.Globulin
C.Fibrinogen
D.Thrombin
Q 123 :
Hemochromatosis presents with all except
A.Micro modular
B.Diabetes mellitus
C.Skin pigmentation
D.Hepatitis
Q 124 :
coating of bacteria particles with host protein to facilitate phagocytosis is known as
A.Chemotaxis
B.Chemokine
C.Opsonization
D.Membrane attack complex
Q 125 :
Caseation necrosis is see in
A.Tuberculosis
B.Sarcoidosis
C.In both tuberculosis and sarcoidosis
D.Leprosy
Q 126 :
Saddle embolus causes sudden death by blocking
A.Coronary arteries
B.Cerebral arteries
C.Pulmonary arteries
D.Renal arteries
Q 127 :
Phagocytes kill bacteria through which mechanism
A.Membrane attack complex killing
B.Oxidative and non oxidative killing
C.Zipper killing
D.Chemotoxis
Q 128 :
Shock lung is seen in
A.Hypovolemic Shock
B.Septic shock
C.Anaphylactic shock
D.Neurogenic shock
Q 129 :
which one given below is a DNA virus ?
A.Polio virus
B.Adenovirus
C.Astroviridae
D.Hepatitis –A virus
Q 130 :
The antibody produced during primary immune response is
A.IgM
B.IgG
C.IgA
D.IgE
Q 131 :
The most frequently encountered clostridia species in gas gangrenes is
A.Clostridium botulinum
B.Clostridium perfringens
C.Clostridium tetani
D.Clostridium difficult
Q 132 :
Salivary protein which prevents transmission of human immunodeficiency virus via saliva is
A.Sialoperoxidase
B.Secretory IgA
C.Salivary leukocyte proteinase inhibitor
D.Histidine rich proteins
Q 133 :
Abductor o vocal cord is
A.Transverse arytenoids
B.Oblique arytenoids
C.Lateral thyroatytenoid
D.Polaterior cricoarytenoid
Q 134 :
Umbilical cord contains
A.Three arteries and one vein
B.One artery and three veins
C.One artery and one vein
D.Anterior mandible
Q 135 :
Unilateral paralysis of hypoglossal
A.Deviation of tongue to the normal side
B.Deviation of tongue to the paralyzed
C.No change in the position to tongue
D.Retraction of tongue
Q 136 :
Human immunodeficiency virus binds to macrophages having
A.CD-4 molecule
B.CE 4 and CXCR molecules
C.CD 4 and CCR 5 molecule
D.CXCR and CCR 5 molecules
Q 137 :
Which of the following fibers are responsible for conduction of pain impulses?
A.A Alpha
B.A Beta
C.A Delta
D.A Gamma
Q 138 :
Axon hillock is a part of neuron which
A.Has a dense Nissel granule
B.Has no Nissel granules
C.Is at commencement of dendrites
D.Is round in shape
Q 139 :
Magnesium level in blood increases in
A.Uncontrolled diabetes mellitus
B.Liver cirrhosis
C.Kidney failure
D.Chronic alcoholism
Q 140 :
Which of the following is the most specific test to diagnose syphilis ?
A.VDRL test
B.Wassermann test
C.RPR test
D.FTA – ABS
Q 141 :
Which of the following events does not occur in response to light?
A.structural change in rhodopsin
B.Activation of transducing
C.Decreased intracellular cGMP
D.Opening of Na+ channels
Q 142 :
Which of the following commonly used topical antiseptics has antifungal activity ?
A.Povidone – iodine
B.Cetrimide
C.Chlorhexidine
D.Alcohol
Q 143 :
The absolute refractory period of an action potential is due to
A.Insufficient neurotransmitter
B.Depletion of intracellular Na+
C.Inactivation of Na+-K+ ATPase
D.Voltage inactivation of the Na+ channel
Q 144 :
Starling’s law of heart
A.Does not operate in failing heart
B.Do not operate during exercise
C.Explains the increase in cardiac output that occurs when venous return is increased
D.Explains the increase in cardiac output when the sympathetic nerves supplying the heart are stimulated
Q 145 :
The normal value of intrapleural pressure at the base of lung at the start of inspiration is
A.-6mmHg
B.-2.5mmHg
C.+2.5 mmHg
D.+6mmHg
Q 146 :
Which one of the following does not act by increasing insulin secretion
A.Glyburide
B.Rapaglinide
C.Tolbutamode
D.Bibuanide
Q 147 :
CEF if directly returned to venous system by
A.Choroid plexus
B.Cerebral veins
C.Arachnoid villi
D.Emissary veins
Q 148 :
Which one of the following is not an ergot alkaloids
A.Bromocriptine
B.Lysergic acid diethylamide (LSD )
C.Ketanserin
D.Methylsergide
Q 149 :
Burning foot syndrome occurs due to deficiency of
A.Niacin
B.Pantothenic acid
C.Riboflavin
D.Folic acid
Q 150 :
The uptake of glucose by liver is increased following a carbohydrate meal because
A.There is increased phosphorylation of glucose by glucokinase
B.GLUT -2 is stimulated by insulin
C.Glucokinase has a low Km for glucose
D.Hexokinase in liver has a high affinity for glucose
MBBS
Q 151 :
Most common type of actinomycosis -
A.Cervicofacial
B.Thoracis
C.Abdomen
D.Brain
Q 152 :
Rocky mountain spotted fever is caused by -
A.Rickettsia rickettsii
B.Rochalimaea quintana
C.Rickettsia tsutsugamushi
D.Coxiella burnetii
Q 153 :
Causative agent of Q- fever-
A.Rickettsia rickettsii
B.Rochalimaea quintana
C.Rickettsia tsutsugamushi
D.Coxiella burnetii
Q 154 :
True about listeria are all except -
A.Shows beta hemolysis
B.Shows tumbling motilty
C.Gram negative
D.PALCAM agar selective media
Q 155 :
Cat scratch disease is caused by-
A.Streptobacillus moniliformis
B.Spirillum minus
C.B. Henselae
D.R. tsutsugamushi
Q 156 :
What is the primary function of the skeletal system?
A.Transportation
B.Protection
C.Reproduction
D.Digestion
Q 157 :
Which tissue type lines the cavities and surfaces of structures throughout the body, providing a barrier?
A.Connective tissue
B.Epithelial tissue
C.Muscle tissue
D.Nervous tissue
Q 158 :
During embryonic development, the notochord gives rise to which structure in the adult human?
A.Spinal cord
B.Brain
C.Vertebrae
D.Muscles
Q 159 :
What is the primary function of the respiratory system?
A.Regulation of blood sugar
B.Oxygen transport and carbon dioxide removal
C.Regulation of body temperature
D.Synthesis of hormones
Q 160 :
Which hormone is responsible for regulating blood glucose levels?
A.Insulin
B.Thyroxine
C.Estrogen
D.Cortisol
Q 161 :
What is the main function of the kidneys in the human body?
A.Regulation of blood pressure
B.Filtration of blood and urine formation
C.Digestion of nutrients
D.Production of red blood cells
Q 162 :
What is the hardest substance in the human body?
A.Dentin
B.Enamel
C.Cementum
D.Pulp
Q 163 :
Which tooth is also known as the "wisdom tooth"?
A.Canine
B.Premolar
C. Molar
D. Third molar
Q 164 :
Which part of the tooth is responsible for anchoring it to the jawbone?
A.Pulp
B.Crown
C.Root
D.Enamel
Q 165 :
What is the study of disease processes at the cellular and molecular level called?
A.Histology
B.Pathophysiology
C.Pathology
D.Epidemiology
Q 166 :
Which term refers to the death of cells or tissues due to lack of blood supply?
A.Apoptosis
B. Necrosis
C.Inflammation
D.Fibrosis
Q 167 :
Which term refers to the death of cells or tissues due to lack of blood supply?
A. Apoptosis
B.Necrosis
C.Inflammation
D.Fibrosis
Q 168 :
What is the primary mechanism of action of nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs)?
A.inhibition of cyclooxygenase (COX)
B. Inhibition of acetylcholinesterase
C.Blockade of beta-adrenergic receptors
D.Activation of histamine receptors
Q 169 :
Which class of drugs is commonly used to treat angina by dilating coronary arteries and improving blood flow to the heart?
A.Beta-blockers
B.Calcium channel blockers
C.ACE inhibitors
D.Diuretics
Q 170 :
What is the primary action of angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitors?
A. Vasodilation
B.Vasoconstriction
C.Aldosterone secretion
D.Sympathetic stimulation
Q 171 :
Which of the following is NOT a primary preventive measure in public health dentistry ?
A.Fluoride application
B.Dental sealants
C.Oral prophylaxis
D.Health education
Q 172 :
What is the primary goal of public health dentistry ?
A.Providing emergency dental care
B.Educating individuals on dental procedures
C.Improving the oral health of populations
D.Increasing the profitability of dental practices
Q 173 :
Which organization is responsible for setting guidelines and standards for public health dentistry in the United States ?
A.American Dental Association (ADA)
B.Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC)
C.World Health Organization (WHO)
D.National Institutes of Health (NIH)
Q 174 :
Which of the following conditions requires surgical intervention in Oral and Maxillofacial Surgery ?
A.Gingivitis
B.Toothache
C.Impacted wisdom tooth
D.Cavity
Q 175 :
What is the primary objective of orthognathic surgery ?
A.To treat temporomandibular joint disorders
B.To correct facial asymmetry
C.To extract impacted teeth
D.To treat periodontal disease
Q 176 :
Which of the following is NOT a common complication of orthognathic surgery ?
A.Nerve injury
B.Infection
C.Excessive bleeding
D.Hair loss
Q 177 :
Which dental material is commonly used for direct restorations and is composed of a mixture of powdered glass and an organic resin matrix?
A.Amalgam
B.Glass ionomer
C.Composite resin
D.Zinc oxide eugenol
Q 178 :
What is the primary component of dental amalgam?
A.Silver
B.Mercury
C.Copper
D.Tin
Q 179 :
Which dental material is known for its ability to release fluoride and is often used for restorations in primary teeth and as a luting agent for crowns and bridges?
A.Amalgam
B.Glass ionomer
C.Composite resin
D.Zinc phosphate cement
Q 180 :
Which organ is primarily affected by hepatitis?
A.Kidney
B.Liver
C.Heart
D.Lungs
Q 181 :
Which hormone is responsible for regulating blood sugar levels?
A.Thyroxine
B.Insulin
C.Cortisol
D.Estrogen
Q 182 :
Which hormone is responsible for the regulation of water and electrolyte balance in the body?
A.Insulin
B.Antidiuretic hormone (ADH)
C.Thyroxine
D.Cortisol
Q 183 :
Which of the following is the primary goal of conservative dentistry ?
A.Tooth extraction
B.Tooth whitening
C.Tooth restoration and preservation
D.Tooth replantation
Q 184 :
What is the most common material used for direct restorations in conservative dentistry ?
A.Gold
B.Composite resin
C.Porcelain
D.Amalgam
Q 185 :
Which of the following terms refers to the removal of infected dental pulp ?
A.Cavity preparation
B.Pulpectomy
C.Pulpotomy
D.Pulp capping
Q 186 :
What is the primary purpose of a post and core in prosthodontics ?
A.To strengthen the tooth structure
B.To provide support for a crown restoration
C.To enhance the esthetics of the restoration
D.To prevent caries recurrence
Q 187 :
In fixed prosthodontics, what is the purpose of a pontic ?
A.To serve as an abutment for a bridge
B.To support the adjacent teeth
C.To replace a missing tooth
D.To provide retention for a crown
Q 188 :
Which of the following is NOT a type of fixed dental prosthesis ?
A.Crown
B.Bridge
C.Denture
D.Inlay
Q 189 :
What is the primary purpose of a cholecystectomy?
A.Appendicitis
B.Gallstone removal
C.Hernia repair
D.Kidney transplant
Q 190 :
Which organ is primarily involved in a Whipple procedure?
A.Stomach
B.Pancreas
C.Liver
D.Small intestine
Q 191 :
In a laparoscopic surgery, what type of instrument is used for cutting tissues?
A.Grasper
B.Scissors
C.Trocar
D.Suture needle
Q 192 :
Which bacterium is associated with the formation of dental plaque and caries?
A.Streptococcus mutans
B.Porphyromonas gingivalis
C.Treponema pallidum
D.Actinomyces israelii
Q 193 :
What is the primary cause of periodontal disease?
A.Staphylococcus aureus
B.Porphyromonas gingivalis
C.Escherichia coli
D.Streptococcus pyogenes
Q 194 :
Which of the following is the primary cause of periodontal disease ?
A.Bacteria
B.Virus
C.Fungi
D.Parasite
Q 195 :
What is the primary function of the periodontal ligament ?
A.Anchorage of the tooth to the alveolar bone
B.Nourishment of the tooth
C.Protection of the tooth
D.Sensation of pressure and pain
Q 196 :
Which of the following materials is commonly used for the fabrication of metal - ceramic crowns ?
A.Gold
B.Porcelain
C.Composite resin
D.Zinc oxide eugenol
Q 197 :
What is the primary focus of orthodontics ?
A.Oral surgery
B.Gum disease treatment
C.Straightening and aligning teeth
D.Teeth cleaning
Q 198 :
What is the recommended age for a child's first dental visit ?
A.2 years old
B.3 years old
C.1 year old
D.4 years old
Q 199 :
Which primary teeth are commonly known as "milk teeth" ?
A.Incisors
B.Canines
C.Molars
D.Deciduous teeth
Q 200 :
What is the primary purpose of oral medicine?
A.Surgical interventions
B.Diagnosis and non-surgical management of oral diseases