Direction:Study the given information carefully and answer the given question
P, Q, R, S, T, V, X and Y are seated in a straight line facing North. P sits fourth to the left of V. V sits either sixth from the left end of the line or fourth from the right end of the line. S sits second to the right of R. R is not an immediate neighbor of V. T and Q are immediate neighbours of each other but neither T not Q sits at extreme ends of the line. Only one person sits between T and X. X does not sit at the extreme end of the line
According to the passage, what is the main purpose of data protection laws ?
A
To ensure that foreign countries invest in research for drugs to treat diseases like TB
B
To attract Indian scientists back to the country
C
To prevent misuse of research to make profit by competing companies
D
To make clinical trials more acceptable to the public
E
None of these
Question 2Single Answer
‘Gram’ is relatd to ‘Mass’ in the same way as ‘Centimetre’ is related to
A
Area
B
Volume
C
Length
D
Sound
E
Energy
Question 3Single Answer
'Mustard' is related to 'Seed' in the same way as 'Carrot' is related to
A
Fruit
B
Stem
C
Flower
D
Root
E
None of these
Question 4Single Answer
Which of the following pairs of words have the same relationship as Fan : Heat?
A
Water : Drink
B
Light : Night
C
Teach : Student
D
Air : Breathe
E
Food : Hunger
Question 5Single Answer
'Radish' is related to 'Root', in the same way as 'Brinjal' is related to
A
Fruit
B
Stem
C
Flower
D
Root
E
None of these
Question 6Single Answer
'Jackal' is related to 'Carnivorous', in the same way as 'Goat' is related to
A
Omnivorous
B
Carnivorous
C
Herbivorous
D
Multivorous
E
None of these
Question 7Single Answer
Which of the following pairs has similar relationship as Run : Race?
A
Party : Dance
B
Study : Book
C
Lecture : Study
D
Enjoy : Journey
E
None of these
Question 8Single Answer
Which of the following has same relationship as that of Money : Wealth?
A
Pity : Kindness
B
Cruel : Anger
C
Wise : Education
D
Pride : Humility
E
None of these
Question 9Single Answer
Which of the following is related to ‘Melody’, in the same way as ‘Delicious’ is related to 'Taste'?
A
Memory
B
Highness
C
Tongue
D
Speak
E
Voice
Question 10Single Answer
Offhand’ is related to ‘Premeditation’ in the same way as ‘Above board’ is related to
A
Integrity
B
Honesty
C
Guide
D
Competition
E
None of these
Question 11Single Answer
5 : 7 : : ? : 28
A
20
B
14
C
56
D
26
E
None of these
Question 12Single Answer
Which one is different form the remaining three?
A
GIJK
B
DFGH
C
CEFG
D
ABCD
E
None of these
Question 13Single Answer
Three of the following four are alike in certain way and so form a group. Which is one that does not belong to the group?
A
71
B
73
C
77
D
67
E
None of these
Question 14Single Answer
Unscramble the letters in the given words and find the odd one out.
A
UMRSME
B
EIWNTR
C
PIGRSN
D
LCUOD
E
None of these
Question 15Single Answer
What should come next in the following number series?
0 2 4 6 2 3 0 2 4 6 4 5 0 2 4 6 6 7 0 2?
A
4
B
2
C
6
D
8
E
5
Question 16Single Answer
What will be there is the place of question mark in the following series?
E G 3 5, I K 9 9, M O 1 9 5, Q S 3 2 3?
A
UW483
B
ZA26
C
TU420
D
ST380
E
None of these
Question 17Single Answer
What should come next in the following letter series?
A Z A B Y A B C X A B C D W A B C D E V A B C D E
A
U
B
T
C
A
D
G
E
None of these
Question 18Single Answer
What should come next in the following letter series?
H G F E D C B A G F E D C B A G F E D C B
A
E
B
G
C
F
D
B
E
None of these
Question 19Single Answer
What should come next in the following letter series?
Z X V T R P N L J Y W U S Q O
A
M
B
K
C
H
D
J
E
None of these
Question 20Single Answer
Which of the following should come next in the given sequence of numbers?
24 3 2 4 3 1 2 4 3 1 2 2 4 3 1 2 3 1 2 3 2 4 3 1 2 3
A
2
B
3
C
4
D
5
E
None of these
Question 21Single Answer
What should come next in the following letter series?
P P O PO N PO N M P O N M L P O N M L
A
P
B
K
C
J
D
I
E
None of these
Question 22Single Answer
What should come next in the following number series?
9 8 7 6 5 4 3 2 1 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 9 8 7 6 5 4 3 2 2 3 4 5 6 7 8
A
8
B
1
C
9
D
2
E
None of these
Question 23Single Answer
What should come next in the following number series?
3 4 4 3 4 4 5 3 4 4 5 6 3 4 4 5 6 7 3 4 4 5 6
A
4
B
5
C
6
D
7
E
None of these
Question 24Single Answer
What should come next in the following letter series?
A A B A B C A B C D A B C D E A B C D E F
A
A
B
G
C
H
D
B
E
None of these
Question 25Single Answer
What should come in the place of the question mark (?) in the following series of combination of alpha-numerals and symbols?Y 9B*W*D7*U5F?
A
S 3 H *
B
T#H*
C
T*#H
D
S*H5
E
SH*1
Question 26Single Answer
The height of 5 boys is recorded as 146 cms. 154 cms.164 cms.148 cms.And 158 cms. What is the average height of all these boys?
A
152 cms
B
158 cms
C
156 cms
D
154 cms
E
None of these
Question 27Single Answer
A boat can travel with a speed of 13 km/hr in still water. If the speed of the stream is 4 km/hr, find the time taken by the boat to go 68 km downstream .
A
2 hours
B
3 hours
C
4 hours
D
5 hours
Question 28Single Answer
Sum of digit of a two-digit number is 15 and the difference between the digits is 3. What is the two digit number ?
A
69
B
96
C
78
D
Cannot be determined
E
None of these
Question 29Single Answer
The sum of three consecutive integers is 30. Which of the following is the largest among the three ?
A
12
B
13
C
14
D
10
E
None of these
Question 30Single Answer
Which is the largest of the following fractions ?
A
B
C
D
Question 31Single Answer
The sum of 3 consecutive even numbers is 198. Which of the following will be the smallest number among them ?
A
42
B
38
C
32
D
72
E
None of these
Question 32Single Answer
Two third of half of a number is 18. What is one third of that number ?
A
18
B
16
C
19
D
17
E
None of these
Question 33Single Answer
The difference between th of th of a number and of th of the same number is 9. What in the number.
A
45
B
35
C
40
D
30
E
None of these
Question 34Single Answer
If is subtracted from and the difference is multiplied by 504, what will be the number ?
A
2024
B
2104
C
2004
D
2014
E
None of these
Question 35Single Answer
‘a’ is greater than ‘b’ by 2 and ‘b’ is greater than ‘c’ by 10. If a+b+c = 130 then (b+c) - a = ?
A
38
B
42
C
44
D
34
E
None of these
Question 36Single Answer
The product of two successive positive integers is 462. Which is the smaller integer ?
A
20
B
22
C
21
D
23
E
None of these
Question 37Single Answer
If the difference between a number and two fifth of the number is 30, find the number .
A
50
B
75
C
57
D
60
E
None of these
Question 38Single Answer
IF the sum of four consecutive even number is 228. Which is the smallest of the number ?
A
52
B
54
C
56
D
48
E
None of these
Question 39Single Answer
If the following fractions are arranged in descending order which will be the last in the series ?
A
B
C
D
Question 40Single Answer
What is the least number to be added to 3986 to make it a perfect square ?
A
118
B
95
C
110
D
100
E
None of these
Question 41Single Answer
What is 234 time 167 ?
A
48768
B
41184
C
40581
D
39078
E
None of these
Question 42Single Answer
The product of two consecutive even number is 4488. Which is the smaller number ?
A
62
B
71
C
66
D
65
E
None of these
Question 43Single Answer
If the fractions are arranged in ascending order of their values, which one will be the fourth ?
A
B
C
D
Question 44Single Answer
What is the least number to be added to 1416 to make it perfect square ?
A
47
B
38
C
28
D
25
E
None of these
Question 45Single Answer
What is 147 times 329 ?
A
48069
B
48363
C
49021
D
48723
E
None of these
Question 46Single Answer
The sum of 5 consecutive even number A, B, C, D and E is 410. What is the product of A and E ?
A
6708
B
6880
C
6552
D
Cannot be determined
E
None of these
Question 47Single Answer
The product of two consecutive odd number is 6399. What is the smaller number ?
A
83
B
79
C
81
D
77
E
None of these
Question 48Single Answer
If the fractions are arranged in descending order of their values, which one will be the fourth ?
A
B
C
D
E
None of these
Question 49Single Answer
What is 394 times 113 ?
A
44402
B
44632
C
44802
D
44522
E
None of these
Question 50Single Answer
What is the least number to be added to 7700 to make it a perfect square ?
A
131
B
221
C
77
D
98
E
None of these
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General Knowledge, Current Affairs and English Language
Question 51Single Answer
Yojna a weekly journal
A
Ministry of Finance
B
Ministry of Information and Broadcastin
C
Ministry of Rural Development
D
Planning Commission
Question 52Single Answer
Kurukshetra a journal on rural development is published by
A
Ministry of Finance
B
Ministry of Information and Broadcastin
C
Ministry of Rural Development
D
Planning Commission
Question 53Single Answer
Devaluation of a currency means
A
Fixing the value of the currency in conjuction with the movement in the value of a basket of predetermined currencies
B
Reduction in the value of a currency vis-à-vis major internationally traded currencies
C
Fixing the value of currency in multilateral consultaion with the IMF the World Bank and major trading partners
D
Permitting the currency to seek its worth in the international market
Question 54Single Answer
In India rural incomes are generally lower than the urban incomes, which of the following reasons account for this
1. a large number of farmers are illiterate and know little about scientific agriculture
2. prices of primary products are lower than those of manufactured products
3. Investments in agriculture has been low when compared to investment in industry
A
1 and 3
B
2 and 3
C
1 and 2
D
1,2 and 3
Question 55Single Answer
Which of the following programmes aims at the promotion of savings among rural women
A
Rashtriya Mahila Kosh
B
Indira Mahila Yojna
C
Jawahar Rozgar Yojna
D
Mahila Samridhi Yojna
Question 56Single Answer
What is Net National Product
A
the money value of final goods and services produced annually in the economy
B
the money value of annual service generation in the economy
C
the money value of tangible goods produced annually in the economy
D
The money value of tangible goods available in the economy
Question 57Single Answer
National income is the
A
net national product at market price
B
net national product at factor cost
C
net domestic product at market price
D
net domestic product at factor cost
Question 58Single Answer
Chelliah Committee of 1992 deals with the overhauling of our
A
financial system
B
tax system
C
patents and copyrights
D
Public sector undertakings
Question 59Single Answer
During which Five Year Plan was the annual growth rate of National Income the lowest
A
2nd plan
B
3rd plan
C
5th plan
D
6th plan
Question 60Single Answer
Which of the following taxes is a progressive tax
A
sales tax
B
custom tax
C
excise tax
D
income tax
Question 61Single Answer
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A
He was in the temper
B
and refused
C
discuss the matter again
D
No error
Question 62Single Answer
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A
A flower makes no garland
B
so we must do a thing together
C
in a unit for a good result
D
No error
Question 63Single Answer
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A
My friend is a software engineer
B
and his wife is doctor
C
so they don’t have enough time for each other
D
No error
Question 64Single Answer
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A
I don’t have much time that
B
I hear you in detail with verbosity
C
tell everything in nutshell
D
No error
Question 65Single Answer
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A
The atmosphere is changing
B
so I have severe pain in my body
C
if you have any painkiller, please give it to me
D
No error
Question 66Single Answer
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A
No one is without fault
B
because no one is God
C
and only God is fault free
D
No error
Question 67Single Answer
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A
Your
B
clock is
C
one hour fast
D
No error
Question 68Single Answer
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A
The lose of jobs
B
is regarded by some as an necessary evil
C
in the fight against infliation
D
No error
Question 69Single Answer
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A
In science, the credit goes to a man
B
who convinces the world
C
not to the man to whom the idea first occurs
D
No error
Question 70Single Answer
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A
It is only after
B
the match is over
C
that people realize how exciting it is
D
No error
Question 71Single Answer
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A
Off the two
B
sisters, she
C
is better
D
No error
Question 72Single Answer
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A
A interesting book
B
‘A Tale of two cities’
C
was written by Alexander Dumas
D
No error
Question 73Single Answer
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A
I shall never
B
forget a good
C
deed you did to me, when I was in crisis
D
No error
Question 74Single Answer
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A
Wisdom of Vikramaditya
B
solved many riddles
C
that people brought to him for solution
D
No error
Question 75Single Answer
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A
News you broke to his wife
B
made her nervous
C
and she broke down
D
No error
Question 76Single Answer
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A
I have a work
B
to do and
C
so I will reach late
D
No error
Question 77Single Answer
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A
I saw portion
B
of the manuscript
C
on birds
D
No error
Question 78Single Answer
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A
Talent without experience is waste
B
so one must attain some practical knowledge and
C
it is only practical knowledge through which one can be an expert
D
No error
Question 79Single Answer
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A
The Geeta, the Bible and the Quran all show us
B
the true path of humanity
C
Ramayana also can be included in this group
D
No error
Question 80Single Answer
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A
Gandhiji was born on 2nd October 1869
B
He devoted two thirds of his life
C
for Indian freedom movement
D
No error
Question 81Single Answer
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A
The students who want to speak in English
B
must read Hindu newspaper
C
in their initial stage
D
No error
Question 82Single Answer
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A
Garib rath is a facility by railway ministry
B
for the poor to enjoy express train and facilities
C
but is mostly utilized by the upper class
D
No error
Question 83Single Answer
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A
It is
B
a quarter to ten
C
by my watch
D
No error
Question 84Single Answer
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A
Mr. Thakur lived
B
in the three-hundred year
C
old house
D
in Patna
Question 85Single Answer
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A
The uncle of mine who is farmer
B
gave me a piece of useful advice
C
when I went to see him three weeks ago
D
No error
Question 86Single Answer
’National Health Authority’s Scan and Share Service’ was launched as part of which scheme ?
A
Swachh Bharat Mission
B
Ayushman Bharat Digital Mission
C
Mission Indradhanush
D
Janani Suraksha Yojana
Question 87Single Answer
Kaziranga National Park is located in which state ?
A
West Bengal
B
Assam
C
Odisha
D
Sikkim
Question 88Single Answer
Which country launched the ‘National Green Fiscal Incentives Policy Framework’ ?
A
USA
B
UAE
C
Australia
D
Kenya
Question 89Single Answer
Which state was ranked the top performer in the ‘Foundational Literacy and Numeracy Index 2022’ ?
A
West Bengal
B
Tamil Nadu
C
Karnataka
D
Madhya Pradesh
Question 90Single Answer
A mix of Fentanyl and animal tranquilizer called Xylazine, known as ‘Tranq Dope’ is causing concerns in which country ?
A
India
B
Sri Lanka
C
USA
D
China
Question 91Single Answer
49th Pre-Retirement Counselling Workshop held in which city ?
A
Dehradun
B
Delhi
C
Chandigarh
D
Lucknow
Question 92Single Answer
For which movie Sam Elliott won Outstanding Performance by a Male Actor in a Television Movie in Screen Actors Guild Awards 2023 ?
A
George & Tammy
B
The Whale
C
1883
D
Ozark
Question 93Single Answer
Where did Prime Minister Narendra Modi get the 13th instalment of the Pradhan Mantri Kisan Sammaan Yojana ?
A
Kalaburgi
B
Vijayawada
C
Palakkad
D
Belagavi
Question 94Single Answer
Unique Identification Authority of India works under which ministry ?
A
Ministry of Home Affairs
B
Ministry of Education
C
Ministry of Finance
D
Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology
Question 95Single Answer
Molasses Control Amendment Bill 2023 was passed by which state ?
A
Uttar Pradesh
B
Madhya Pradesh
C
Rajasthan
D
Odisha
Question 96Single Answer
Which city is the host of ‘International Bio resource Conclave & Ethno-pharmacology Congress 2023’ ?
A
Mumbai
B
Imphal
C
Kolkata
D
Bengaluru
Question 97Single Answer
Which city is the host of the W20 Inception Meeting under India’s G-20 Presidency ?
A
Chennai
B
Kochi
C
Aurangabad
D
Bhubaneswar
Question 98Single Answer
Which city has been renamed as ‘Chatrapati Sambhajinagar’ ?
A
Pune
B
Aurangabad
C
Nashik
D
Ahmed Nagar
Question 99Single Answer
Which institution launched India’s first municipal bond index ?
A
RBI
B
SEBI
C
BSE
D
NSE
Question 100Single Answer
Which is the first platform to launch ‘UPI LITE payments’ ?
A
Google Pay
B
Mi Pay
C
Paytm Payments Bank
D
Airtel Payments Bank
Insurance and Financial Marketing Awareness
Question 101Single Answer
Who is called as the ‘founding father of modern economics’ ?
A
Adam Smith
B
John Maynard Keynes
C
F. Hayek
D
Samuelson
Question 102Single Answer
Macroeconomics is a study of economics that deals with which 4 major factors :
A
households, firms, government, and demand-supply
B
households, firms, government and external sector
C
firms, government, free-market, and regulations
D
none of the above
Question 103Single Answer
Which of the following is not one of the International Development Targets of the Millennium Development Goals ?
A
Reducing the number of persons living in extreme poverty by one half of 2015
B
Universal primary education by 2015
C
Reduction of infant and child mortality by 2/3rd by 2015
D
Reducing the total population by 1/3rd
Question 104Single Answer
The law of demand states that
A
as the quantity demanded rises, the price rises
B
as the price rises, the quantity demanded rises
C
as the price rises, the quantity demanded falls
D
as supply rises, the demand rises
Question 105Single Answer
Chronic unemployment is measured using :
A
US data
B
CWS data
C
None of the two
D
Both (a) and (b)
Question 106Single Answer
Which of the following is a characteristic of pure monopoly ?
A
one seller of the product
B
low barriers to entry
C
close substitute products
D
perfect information
Question 107Single Answer
Structural Planning refers to :
A
laying down broad goals and strategies
B
centralised planning
C
fixing flexible targets
D
changing existing institutions or creating new ones
Question 108Single Answer
Consider the following statements
1. In a Capitalist economy there is private ownership of means of production
2. In a communist nation, the means of production are owned by the State
3. In a free-market economy there is minimum role of the Government
Which of the above 3 statement is/are true ?
A
Only 1 and 3
B
Only 2 and 3
C
Only 3
D
All are true
Question 109Single Answer
Structural unemployment arises due to :
A
deflationary conditions
B
heavy industry bias
C
shortage of raw materia
D
inadequate prod ive apacity
Question 110Single Answer
Demand is a function of
A
Price
B
Quantity
C
Supply
D
None of these
Question 111Single Answer
Aam Admi Bima Yojana provides social security to -
A
All labours in rural areas
B
All landless labours living below poverty line in rural areas
C
All labours in urban areas .
D
All labours in both rural as well as urban areas
Question 112Single Answer
A mixed economy is characterised by the co-existence of
A
Modern and traditional industries
B
Public and private sectors
C
Foreign and domestic investments
D
Commercial and subsistence farming
Question 113Single Answer
Sector wise, maximum employment in the public sector in
A
electricity, gas, and water
B
community, social, and personal services
C
finance, insurance, and
D
transport, storage, and communication
Question 114Single Answer
Microeconomics deals with the
A
Allocation of resources of the economy as between production of different goods and services
B
Determination of prices of goods and services
C
Behaviour of industrial decision makers
D
All of the above
Question 115Single Answer
Which Indian plan ensured high growth rate as compared with targeted growth rate ?
A
Fifth Plan
B
Fourth Plan
C
Second Plan
D
Eighth Plan
Question 116Single Answer
Equilibrium in the market for good A obtains
A
when there is no surplus or shortage prevailing in the market
B
where the demand and supply curves for A intersect
C
when all of what is produced of A is consumed
D
all of the above
Question 117Single Answer
What was the aim of Antyodaya Programme ?
A
Elimination of Urban Poverty of scheduled
B
Improving the standards castes
C
Uplifting minorities
D
Helping the poorest among poor
Question 118Single Answer
Which one of the following activities can be included in the primary sector ?
A
Giving lans to the farmer
B
Making Sugar from sugar cane
C
Cultivating Sugar cane
D
Providing storage facility for the grains
Question 119Single Answer
The Employment Assurance Scheme envisages financial assistance to rural areas for guaranteeing employment to at least
A
50 per cent of the men and women seeking jobs in rural areas
B
50 per cent of the men seeking jobs in the rural areas
C
one man and one women in a rural family living below the poverty line
D
one person in a rural landless house hold living below the poverty line
Question 120Single Answer
Point where market demands will be same to market supply
A
equilibrium in perfect competition
B
equilibrium in imperfect competition
C
equilibrium competition
D
all of answers are correct
Question 121Single Answer
The tribe relied on hunting and farming for food. The boy knew he would be a farmer just like his dad had been. What kind of economic system does this describe ?
A
command economy
B
traditional economy
C
free market economy
D
mixed economy
Question 122Single Answer
Among the following who are eligible to benefit from the "Mahatma Gandhi National Rural Employment Guarantee Act" ?
A
Adult members of only the scheduled caste and scheduled tribe households
B
Adult members of below poverty line (BPL) households
C
Adult members of households of all backward communities
D
Adult members of any household
Question 123Single Answer
There is little or no government control in a ______ economy .
A
mixed
B
free market
C
command
D
traditional
Question 124Single Answer
_____sector was the largest contributor to GDP during the Ninth Plan ?
A
Manufacturing
B
Trade
C
Information technology
D
Financial services
Question 125Single Answer
In the former Soviet Union consumers had to wait in long lines to buy everyday items like bread. They did not have many choices and the government controlled factories. What type of economy did they live in ?
A
traditional economy
B
free market economy
C
command economy
D
mixed economy
Question 126Single Answer
Which of the following is not a millennium development goal ?
A
The eradication of extreme poverty and hunger
B
Universal primary and secondary education
C
Gender equality and empowerment of women
D
Reducing the child mortality rate
Question 127Single Answer
Which of the following is NOT a type of economic system ?
A
command economy
B
free market economy
C
public market economy
D
traditional economy
Question 128Single Answer
An underdeveloped characterized by economy 18
A
High per capita real income
B
Large proportion of labor force in the tertiary sector
C
State of deprivation of large proportion of population
D
All the above
Question 129Single Answer
Which one of the following statements is not correct ?
A
Under the Targeted Public Distribution System, the families below Poverty Line are provided 50 kg of food grains per month per family at subsidized price
B
Under Annapurna Scheme, indigent senior citizens of 65 years of age or above eligible for National Old Age Pension but not getting pension can get 10 kg of food grains per person per month free of cost
C
Ministry of social justice and empowerment has a scheme in which indigent people living in welfare institutions like orphanages are given 15 kg of foodgrains per person per month of BPL rates
D
Ministry of Human Resource Development gives financial support to mid-day meal scheme for the benefit of Class I to V students in government or government aided school
Question 130Single Answer
Utility means -
A
Power to satisfy a want
B
Usefulness
C
Willingness of a person
D
Harmfulness
Question 131Single Answer
Who among the following is NOT a part of National Development Council ?
A
Finance Commission of India Chairman
B
Vice Chairman of Planning Commission
C
Secretary of Planning Commission
D
Secretary of Planning & Implementation Ministry
Question 132Single Answer
Adam Smith in his book, The Wealth of Nations, developed a theory about :
A
communism
B
capitalism
C
regulating foreign investment
D
ensuring internal order
Question 133Single Answer
Pradhan Mantri Jan-Dhan Yojana' has been launched for
A
providing housing loan to poor people at cheaper interest rates
B
promoting women's Self-Help Groups in backward areas
C
promoting financial inclusion in the country
D
providing financial help to the marginalized communities
Question 134Single Answer
In a capitalist economy, the question of how society chooses to employ the resources to produce goods and services is determined by
A
business
B
government
C
government & business
D
all of the above
Question 135Single Answer
The Government of India has established NITI Aayog to replace the
A
Human Rights Commission
B
Finance Commission
C
Law Commission
D
Planning Commission
Question 136Single Answer
At the current price there is a shortage of a product. We would expect price to :
A
increase, quantity demanded to increase, and quantity supplied to decrease
B
increase, quantity demanded to decrease, and quantity supplied to increase
C
increase, quantity demanded to increase, and quantity supplied to increase
D
decrease, quantity demanded to increase, and quantity supplied to decrease
Question 137Single Answer
Which of the two employment programmes are being merged in newly introduced Prime Minister's Employment Generation Programme?
1. PMRY
2. NREP
3. REGP
4. RLEGP
A
I only
B
1 and 2
C
1 and 3
D
2 and 4
Question 138Single Answer
The Ministry of Finance is an important ministry within the Government of India. It concerns itself with
A
taxation
B
financial legislation
C
financial institutions
D
All of the above
Question 139Single Answer
Gross National Product equals :
A
Net National Product adjusted for inflation
B
Gross Domestic Product adjusted for inflation
C
Gross Domestic Product plus net property income from abroad
D
Net National Product plus net property income from abroad
Question 140Single Answer
With reference to the government's welfare schemes, consider the following statements
1. Under the Antyodaya Anna Yojana, the foodgrains are available to the poorest of the poor families at 2 kg for wheat and 3 kg of rice.
2. Under the National Old Age Pension Scheme, the old and destitute are provided 75 month as Central Pension, in addition to the amount provided by most State Governments.
3. Government of India has allocated 25 kg foodgrains per below poverty line family per month, at less than half the economic cost.
Which of these statements are correct ?
A
1 and 2
B
1 and 3
C
2 and 3
D
1, 2 and 3
Question 141Single Answer
Net National Product equals :
A
Gross National Product adjusted for inflation
B
Gross Domestic Product adjusted for inflation
C
Gross Domestic Product plus net property income from abroad
D
Gross National Product minus depreciation
Question 142Single Answer
Real national income measures :
A
Nominal national income adjusted for population change
B
Nominal national income adjusted for unemployment
C
Nominal national income adjusted for inflation
D
Nominal national income adjusted for exchange rates
Question 143Single Answer
With reference to "Aam Admi Bima Yojana", consider the following statements
1. The member insured under the scheme must be the head of the family or an earning member of the family in a rural landless house-hold.
2. The member r insured must be in the age group of 30 to 65 years.
3. There is a provision for free scholarship for upto two children of the insured who are studying between classes 9 and 12.
Which of the statements given is/are correct ?
A
I only
B
2 and 3
C
1 and 3
D
1, 2 and 3
Question 144Single Answer
GDP measures :
A
A country's income
B
A country's wealth
C
Consumer spending
D
Net trade income
Question 145Single Answer
is/are not matched correctly ?
1. First Plan 1950 - 55
2. Third Plan 1961 - 66
3. Fourth Plan 1966 - 71
4. Seventh Plan 1985 - 90
A
1 and 2
B
3 only
C
I only
D
1 and 3
Question 146Single Answer
FDI is an acronym that stands for :
A
federation of direct investors
B
federal diversification initiative
C
foreign direct investment
D
formal direct internationalization
Question 147Single Answer
Which one of the following groups of items is included in India's foreign exchange reserves ?
A
Foreign-currency assets, Special Drawing Rights (SDRs) and loans from foreign countries
B
Foreign-currency gold assets, holdings of the RBI and SDRs
C
Foreign-currency assets, loans from the World Bank and SDRs
D
Foreign-currency assets, gold holdings of the RBI and loans from the World Bank
Question 148Single Answer
Which plans and features are wrongly matched ?
1. First Plan - Community development projects
2. Second Heavy industries
3. Third Green Revolution
4. Fourth Plan
A
1 and 4
B
3 and 4
C
3 only
D
1 and 3
Question 149Single Answer
Which of the following would include Foreign Direct Investment in India ?
1. Subsidiaries of companies in India
2. Majority foreign equity holding in Indian companies
3. Companies exclusively financed by foreign companies
4. Portfolio investment
Select the correct answer using the codes given below :
A
1, 2, 3 and 4
B
2 and 4 only
C
1 and 3 only
D
1, 2 and 3 only
Question 150Single Answer
National Rural Employment Guarantee Act ensures that the
1. Centre bears 75% of the cost of wages of unskilled manual workers
2. State government provides 100 days of work to every member of a household in a financial year
A
1 only
B
2 only
C
Both 1 and 2
D
Neither 1 nor 2
Question 151Single Answer
India has retained its ranking as the 11th highest recipient of FDI in 2016, according to which UNCTAD report ?
A
World Investment Report 2017
B
World Investment Report 2015
C
World Investing Report 2016
D
World Investing Report 2015
Question 152Single Answer
Inclusive growth would necessitate :
A
Development of infrastructural facilities
B
Revival of agriculture
C
Increase availability of social services such as education and health
D
All the above
Question 153Single Answer
What is the India's rank in terms of Foreign Direct Investment (FDI) inflows, as per the latest 2017 World Investment Report ?
A
15th
B
11th
C
10th
D
19th
Question 154Single Answer
Consider the following statements :
(1) MNREĢA was launched in the 11th five year plan Which of the statements given above is/ are correct ?
(2) Indira Awas Yojana was launched in the 9th Five Year Plan
A
only 1
B
only 2
C
Both 1 and 2
D
Neither 1 nor 2
Question 155Single Answer
Which of the following countries feature in top 5 in both Destinations of Exports from India as well as imports from those countries to India (financial year 14-15)
1. Saudi Arabia
2. Hong Kong
3. UAE
4. Switzerland
A
1, 2, 3
B
1, 3, 4
C
2, 3
D
1, 3
Question 156Single Answer
Consider the following statements :
(1) Indo-China war had hampered the proper progress and implementation of Fourth Five Year Plan in India
(2) In the Indian Economy, the plan Holiday took place during 1966 to 1969 Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
A
1 only
B
2 only
C
Both 1 and 2
D
Neither 1 nor 2
Question 157Single Answer
Which of the following commodities are both Principal Commodities of Export as well as Import for India (15-16)
1. Gems and Jewellery
2. Machinary
3. Chemicals and related Products
4. Textiles and allied products
A
1, 2, 3
B
1, 3, 4
C
1, 3
D
1, 2
Question 158Single Answer
Find the correct statements .
1. India's largest trade dealing is with European region .
2. Share of gems and jewellery is highest in India's imports .
A
1 only
B
2 only
C
Both
D
None
Question 159Single Answer
Consider the following statements :
(1) The state sets broad parameters and goals for the economy
(2) The targets to be achieved are broadly set by the state
(3) The plan is made for the specific time period of about 15 years. Which of the statements given above is/are correct about the Indicative planning ?
A
1, 2 and 3
B
1 and 2
C
1 and 3
D
only 1
Question 160Single Answer
Consider the following statements :
1. Indira Gandhi Matritva Sahyog Yojana (IGMSY) has been launched to improve the health and nutrition status of pregnant, lactating women and infants
2. The scheme envisages Cash Incentives for the above beneficiaries
3. All Government Women Employees are beneficiaries of the IGMSY
Which among the above statements is are correct ?
th of 
th of a number and 
of 
th of the same number is 9. What in the number.
are arranged in descending order which will be the last in the series ?
are arranged in ascending order of their values, which one will be the fourth ?
are arranged in descending order of their values, which one will be the fourth ?
