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Madras High Court Civil Judge Exam - English

Duration: 180 ยท Questions: 100 ยท Max Marks: 100 ยท Language: 1

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Law

1
Yojna a weekly journal
  1. A.Ministry of Finance        
  2. B.Ministry of Information and Broadcastin
  3. C.Ministry of Rural Development
  4. D.Planning Commission
2
Kurukshetra a journal on rural development is published by
  1. A.Ministry of Finance 
  2. B.Ministry of Information and Broadcastin
  3. C.Ministry of Rural Development
  4. D.Planning Commission
3
Devaluation of a currency means
  1. A.Fixing the value of the currency in conjuction with the movement in the value of a basket of predetermined currencies
  2. B.Reduction in the value of a currency vis-à-vis major internationally traded currencies
  3. C.Fixing the value of currency in multilateral consultaion with the IMF the World Bank and major trading partners
  4. D.Permitting the currency to seek its worth in the international market
4
In India rural incomes are generally lower than the urban incomes, which of the following reasons account for this
            1. a large number of farmers are illiterate and know little about scientific agriculture
            2. prices of primary products are lower than those of manufactured products
            3. Investments in agriculture has been low when compared to investment in industry
  1. A.1 and 3
  2. B.2 and 3
  3. C.1 and 2
  4. D.1,2 and 3
5
Which of the following programmes aims at the promotion of savings among rural women
  1. A.Rashtriya Mahila Kosh
  2. B.Indira Mahila Yojna
  3. C.Jawahar Rozgar Yojna
  4. D.Mahila Samridhi Yojna
6
Who built Kallanai acrossthe river Kaveri?
  1. A.Raja Raja Chola 
  2. B.Karikala Chola
  3. C.Rajendra Chola 
  4. D.Senguttuvan
7
Mahabalipulram wasestablished by the
  1. A.Pandyas
  2. B.Pallavas
  3. C.Cholas
  4. D.Chzilukyas
8
In Tamil Nadu Petroleum Refinery is located at
  1. A.Neyveli 
  2. B.Velage
  3. C.Manali 
  4. D.Avadi
9
Than javur district, the place Where a rice research station is In
  1. A.Kumbakonam
  2. B.Aduthurai
  3. C.Thanjavur
  4. D.Papanasam
10
The Gateway of Tamilnaduis
  1. A.Chennai 
  2. B.Tuticorin
  3. C.Kainiyakumari
  4. D.Trichy
11
How many such pairs of letters are there in the word ‘CLEANLINESS’ each of the which has as many letters between them in the word as they have in the English alphabet, in the same sequence?
  1. A.Two
  2. B.Three
  3. C.Five
  4. D.Four
  5. E.None of these
12
Team A has scored more goals than Team B
Team C has scored fewer goals than Team B
Team A has scored fewer goals than Team C .
If the first two statements are true, the third statement is
  1. A.True
  2. B.False
  3. C.Uncertain
  4. D.None
13
If it is possible to make only one meaningful word with the second, the third, the sixth and the eight letters of the word FRAGMENT using each only once, which of the following will be the third letter of that word ? If no such word can be formed, give ‘X’ as the answer and if more than one such word can be formed, give ‘Y’ as the answer.
  1. A.A
  2. B.E
  3. C.T
  4. D.X
  5. E.Y
14
How many such letters are there in the word ORIENTAL each of which is as far away from the beginning of the word as when they are arranged alphabetically?
  1. A.None            
  2. B.One         
  3. C.Two       
  4. D.Three        
  5. E.More than three
15
How many such pairs of letters in the word CREDIT each of which has as many letters between them in the word as in the English alphabet?
  1. A.None
  2. B.One
  3. C.Two
  4. D.Three
  5. E.More than three
16
Under Section 2 (9), Civil Procedure Code, amongst the following, which can be said to be a "judgment" ?
  1. A.An injunction
  2. B.An order
  3. C.Statement given by the Judge on the grounds of an order or decree
  4. D.A decree
  5. E.All of the above
17
Amongst the following suits, which is not a suit of civil nature ?
  1. A.Suit for specific relief or suit for specific performance of contract
  2. B.Suit against expulsion from caste
  3. C.Suit for declaration and right to worship
  4. D.Suit relating to right to movable and immovable properties
18
Under Section 10 of the Civil Procedure Code, rule of res sub judice
  1. A.Stays the trial of the subsequent suit simultaneous hearings of the previous suit and also all the subsequent suits
  2. B.Prevents
  3. C.Stays the institution of the subsequent suits
  4. D.Stays the trial of the previous suit
19
On what principle the rule of res judicata is based ?
  1. A.No, one should be troubled twice for the same cause of action
  2. B.There should be an end to litigation
  3. C.Neither (1) nor (2)
  4. D.Both (1) and (2)
20
Under Order 39, Civil Procedure Code, a temporary injunction may be issued
  1. A.To stay the election of the members of the Parliament
  2. B.To stay the eviction from the immovable property
  3. C.To stay the proceedings of the session of the legislative assembly
  4. D.To stay the proposed departmental enquiry against a public servant and stay to make any adverse remark in his annual confidential report
21
Where the consent or the quality of consent of the victim woman is on the issue in the cases under Sections 354 and 376, Indian Penal Code, 1860 the evidence of the character or previous sexual experience of the victim woman is Criminal Law
  1. A.Relevant
  2. B.Not relevant
  3. C.Dependent on the discretion of the Court
  4. D.Dependent on the facts and circumstances of the case
22
In the prosecution of a rape case under Section 376 of the Indian Penal Code, 1860, what is the presumption as to absence of consent ?
  1. A.The victim woman gave consent
  2. B.The victim woman did not give consent
  3. C.Dependent on the discretion of the Court
  4. D.Dependent on the facts and circumstances of the case
23
By the Criminal Law (Amendment), Act, 2013, for Section 119 of the Indian Evidence Act, 1872, what new section has been substituted ?
  1. A.A witness who is unable to speak may give his evidence in any other manner in which he can make it intelligible, as by writing or by signs
  2. B.Such writing must be written and signed by the witness in open Court, and evidence so given shall be deemed to be oral evidence
  3. C.If the witness is unable to communicate verbally, the Court Shall take the assistance of an interpreter or a special educator in recording the statement, and such statement shall be videographed
  4. D.All of the above
24
According to the (Amendment) Act, 2013, in the proviso to Section 146 of the Indian Evidence Act, 1872, a new provision has been substituted to the effect that for proving consent of the victim woman or the quality of consent in a prosecution for an offence under Section 376, Section 376 - A, Section 376 - B, Section 376 - C, Section 376 - D or Section 376 - E of the Indian Penal Code, 1860 or for attempt to commit any such offence, where the question of consent is in issue
  1. A.It shall not be permissible to adduce evidence in the cross-examination of the victim woman as to her general immoral character or previous sexual experience
  2. B.It shall not be permissible to put questions in the cross - examination of the victim woman as to her general immoral character or previous sexual experience
  3. C.(1) and (2)
  4. D.Neither (1) nor (2)
25
Law of evidence is
  1. A.lex loci
  2. B.lex fori
  3. C.lex tallienis
  4. D.lex situs
  5. E.lex communis
26
Relevancy and admissibility are
  1. A.Synonymous
  2. B.Co - extensive
  3. C.Both synonymous and co - extensive
  4. D.Neither synonymous nor co - extensive
27
Under the Indian Evidence Act, 1872, fact means
  1. A.factum probans
  2. B.factum probandum
  3. C.Both factum probans and factum probandum
  4. D.None of the above
28
Confessions which are made by any accused person outside the Court, i.e. to the police regarding discovery of facts, to wife, friend, neighbour or teacher are called
  1. A.Judicial confessions
  2. B.Extra - judicial confessions
  3. C.Retracted confessions
  4. D.None of the above
29
When at the trial, the accused person repudiates his previous confession, which was made by him before beginning of the trial, it is called
  1. A.Judicial confession
  2. B.Extra - judicial confession
  3. C.Retracted confession
  4. D.Admission
30
Under Section 8 of the Evidence Act, is relevant .
  1. A.Motive
  2. B.Preparation
  3. C.Previous or subsequent conduct
  4. D.All of the above
31
Which Act gave separate electorate rights to Muslims in India ?
  1. A.The Indian Councils Act, 1909
  2. B.The Government of India Act, 1915
  3. C.The Government of India Act, 1919
  4. D.The Government of India Act, 1935
32
Which one of the following made the Indian Legislature bicameral ?
  1. A.The Indian Councils Act, 1909
  2. B.Government of India Act, 1919
  3. C.Government of India Act, 1935
  4. D.Indian Independence Act, 1947
33
'Diarchy' was established in India by which of the following ?
  1. A.The Indian Councils Act, 1909
  2. B.The Government of India Act, 1935
  3. C.The Government of India Act, 1919
  4. D.None of the above
34
Which one of the following aimed at providing a federal structure for India ?
  1. A.Indian Councils Act, 1909
  2. B.Government of India Act, 1919
  3. C.Government of India Act, 1935
  4. D.Indian Independence Act, 1947
35
As a guardian of the government of India Act, 1935 a Court was constituted which was called.
  1. A.Privy Council
  2. B.Supreme Court
  3. C.High Court
  4. D.Federal Court
36
Under the Government of India Act 1935, the Federal court had -
  1. A.Original jurisdiction only
  2. B.Appellate jurisdiction only
  3. C.Advisory jurisdiction only
  4. D.Original, appellate and advisory jurisdiction
37
Under the Government of India's Act 1935, how many Governors and Chief Commissioners provinces constituted in British India ?
  1. A.14 and 7
  2. B.11 and 7
  3. C.15 and 9
  4. D.None of the above
38
The Mountbaten plan led to the enactment of :
  1. A.Government of India Act, 1919
  2. B.Government of India Act, 1935
  3. C.The Indian Independence Act, 1947
  4. D.None of the above
39
The plan of Lord Mountbatten was excepted by the congress and the muslim league. The British Parliament enacted the Indian Independence act, 1947 which got Royal assistant on -
  1. A.3 June, 1947
  2. B.4 July, 1947
  3. C.15 July, 1947
  4. D.18 July, 1947
40
Which one of the following relates to transfer of power to the Indians and partition of the country ?
  1. A.Simon Commission
  2. B.Cripps Mission
  3. C.Cabinet Mission Plan
  4. D.The Mountbatten plan
41
The Specific Relief act, 1963 was enacted on
  1. A.11th December, 1963
  2. B.14th December, 1963
  3. C.21stDecember, 1963
  4. D.13th December, 1963
42
Specific Relief Act, 1963, came into operation on -
  1. A.December 14, 1963
  2. B.January 1, 1964
  3. C.Febuary1, 1964
  4. D.March 1, 1964
43
An instrument is not "settlement" under the Specific Relief Act
  1. A.wherebyan interest in the property is devolved by a will
  2. B.whereby devolution of an interest in a movable property is disposed of
  3. C.whereby devolution of successive interests in an immovable property is disposed of
  4. D.whereby devolution of interest in an immovable property is only agreed to be disposed of
44
In Specific Relief Act all other words and expressions used but not defined, then their definition and meaning would be the same which has been defined under -
  1. A.Transfer of Property Act, 1882
  2. B.Civil Procedure Code, 1908
  3. C.Indian Contract Act, 1872
  4. D.Easement Act
45
The words and expressions used in the Specific Relief Act, but not defined in the Act, have meaning as defined in the
  1. A.General Clauses
  2. B.Indian Contract Act
  3. C.Transfer of Property Act
  4. D.Civil Procedure Code
46
Under Specific Relief Act, 1963, Specific Relief may be granted -
  1. A.For enforcing individual civil rights
  2. B.For enforcing a Penal law
  3. C.For enforcing both Civil law and a Penal law
  4. D.For enforcing public rights
47
Under Specific Relief Act, 1963 Specific Relief can be granted -
  1. A.For the purpose of enforcing individual Civil Rights
  2. B.For Public interest litigation
  3. C.For enforcing penal laws
  4. D.All of these
48
Find out the correct statement.
Specific relief can be granted :
  1. A.For enforcing individual civil rights and not for enforcing a penal law
  2. B.For enforcing penal law and not for enforcing civil right
  3. C.Only for enforcing penal law 
  4. D.For enforcing civil rights and a penal law
49
Specific relief is granted for enforcing :
  1. A.Individual civil rights
  2. B.Penal laws
  3. C.Both individual civil rights and [enal laws
  4. D.Personal criminal liability
50
Remedies may be granted according to Section 5 of the Specific Relief Act, 1963 regarding acquiring of legal possession on immovable property if -
  1. A.Plaintiff has to prove his title
  2. B.Plaintiff has to prove his legal right
  3. C.Both (A) and  (B)
  4. D.Only proof of right recovery of possession is sufficient
51
The draft of the Indian Penal Code was prepared by ?
  1. A.First Law Commission 
  2. B.Second Law Commission
  3. C.Third Law Commission
  4. D.Sixteen Law Commission
52
Who is associated with drafting of Indian Penal Code ?
  1. A.Lord Macaulay
  2. B.Mullah
  3. C.Sir H.S. Mayne
  4. D.Frederock Pollock
53
Who was the President of the drafting committee of the Indian Penal Code ?
  1. A.Lord William Bentick
  2. B.Lord Macaulay
  3. C.Lord Macaulay
  4. D.Lord Macaulay
54
What is the correct definition of offence ?
  1. A.Act punishable by law
  2. B.Act prohibited by law
  3. C.Immoral act
  4. D.Act punishable by law and also prohibited by law
55
Who among the following defined crime as "an act committed or omitted in violation of pulic law either forbidding or commanding it" ?
  1. A.Russel
  2. B.Kenny
  3. C.Blackstone
  4. D.J.F. Stephen
56
Fill in the gap :
Disobedience of law is not ordinarily a crime unless that act is declared as crime by some……….
  1. A.law
  2. B.method
  3. C.society
  4. D.All the above
57
Assertion (A) :  Crime is punishable because it is provided in the law.
Reason (R) : Crime is revolting to the jmoral sense of society.
Code -
  1. A.Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is correct explanation of (A)
  2. B.Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not correct explanation of (A)
  3. C.(A) is true, but (R) is false
  4. D.(A) is false, but (R) is true
58
Observe the statements given below and mark the answer as correct -
1. Tort and crime are neither exactly different nor exactly the same
2. Murder is outright crime
3. Trespass without intention is only tort
  1. A.Statement 1 and 2 are true
  2. B.Statement 2 and 3 are true
  3. C.All the statement are true
  4. D.All the statement are false
59
Which in the following is not inchoate crime ?
  1. A.Attempt
  2. B.Criminal conspiracy
  3. C.Abetment
  4. D.Kidnapping
60
Which one of the following is not an essential element of crime ?
  1. A.Mens rea
  2. B.Actus reu
  3. C.Injury
  4. D.Motive
61
The Draft of Indian Evidence Act, 1872 was prepared by .
  1. A.Lord Macaulay
  2. B.Sir James F. Stephen
  3. C.Huxley
  4. D.Sir Henery Maine
62
Who drafted the Indian Evidence Act
  1. A.Lord Denning
  2. B.A.V. Dicey
  3. C.Lord Macaulay
  4. D.J. F. Stephen
63
Which of the following statements is correct in relation to Evidence Act ?
  1. A.Sir Henry Maine prepared the draft Bill of the Act
  2. B.Sir James Stephen prepared the draft Bill of the Act
  3. C.The draft Bill of the Act was prepared by II Law
  4. D.None of the above
64
The law of evidence under the Indian Evidence Act, 1872 is
  1. A.Substantive Law
  2. B.Procedural Law
  3. C.Substantive and Procedural Law
  4. D.None of the above
65
Law of evidence is
  1. A.A substantive law
  2. B.an adjective law
  3. C.Both (A) and (B)
  4. D.Neither (A) nor (B)
66
Indian Evidence Act, 1872 applies to
  1. A.Only civil proceedings
  2. B.Only criminal proceedings
  3. C.Civil and criminal Proceeding both
  4. D.None of the above
67
Indian Evidence Act, applies to both Civil and Criminal Proceedings before a Court is the statement :
  1. A.Not correct
  2. B.Correct
  3. C.Partly correct
  4. D.None of the above
68
Law of Evidence :
  1. A.Retrospective
  2. B.Effect the fundamental right of person
  3. C.Always have prospective effect
  4. D.Not a procedural law
69
Point out the correct answer
Law of Evidence is
  1. A.Lex Talionis
  2. B.Lex Fori
  3. C.Lex Loci
  4. D.Lex Situ
70
The meaning of 'Lex Loci' is :
  1. A.Law of the Land is Supreme
  2. B.Law of Land
  3. C.Local Laws
  4. D.Law of England
71
Who won the Best Actor award at the 2024 Oscars ?
  1. A.Leonardo DiCaprio
  2. B.Brendan Fraser
  3. C.Austin Butler
  4. D.Colin Farrell
72
Which Indian state the 'Mission Bhagirathi' initiative ?
  1. A.Uttar Pradesh
  2. B.Bihar
  3. C.West Bengal
  4. D.Madhya Pradesh
73
Which Indian spacecraft successfully landed on the Moon in ?
  1. A.Chandrayaan-1
  2. B.Chandrayaan-2
  3. C.Chandrayaan-3
  4. D.Mangalyaan
74
Which Indian organization is responsible for space research ?
  1. A.Indian Space Research Organization (ISRO)
  2. B.Indian Council of Agricultural Research (ICAR)
  3. C.Council for Scientific and Industrial Research (CSIR)
  4. D.Indian Institute of Technology (IIT)
75
Which Indian state is known for its tea production ?
  1. A.Kerala
  2. B.Assam
  3. C.Rajasthan
  4. D.Punjab
76
Which Indian state is famous for its handicrafts and textiles ?
  1. A.Gujarat
  2. B.Uttar Pradesh
  3. C.West Bengal
  4. D.Rajasthan
77
Which Indian dance form is known for its intricate footwork and mudras ?
  1. A.Bharatnatyam
  2. B.Kathak
  3. C.Kuchipudi
  4. D.Odissi
78
Which Indian festival celebrates the birth of Lord Krishna ?
  1. A.Janmashtami
  2. B.Diwali
  3. C.Holi
  4. D.Raksha Bandhan
79
Which Indian language is the most widely spoken in the country ?
  1. A.Hindi
  2. B.English
  3. C.Bengali
  4. D.Telugu
80
Which Indian festival celebrates the victory of good over evil ?
  1. A.Diwali
  2. B.Holi
  3. C.Dussehra
  4. D.Eid al-Fitr
81
According to the Act, what does 'attached to the earth' refer to?
  1. A.Trees and buildings
  2. B.Vehicles
  3. C.Roads
  4. D.Air
82
What is meant by 'actionable claim' under the Transfer of Property Act?
  1. A.A claim to moveable property
  2. B.A claim to future property
  3. C.A claim that can be enforced by legal action
  4. D.A claim to physical property only
83
'Transfer of property' includes transfer by way of:
  1. A.Sale
  2. B.Gift
  3. C.Exchange
  4. D.All of the above
84
Which of the following is not considered an immovable property?
  1. A.Land
  2. B.House
  3. C.Growing crops
  4. D.Minerals
85
'Immovable property' does not include:
  1. A.Buildings
  2. B.Land
  3. C.Standing timber
  4. D.Minerals beneath the land
86
The rights over intellectual property are considered:
  1. A.Movable property
  2. B.Immovable property
  3. C.Tangible property
  4. D.None of the above
87
Which of the following is an example of intangible property?
  1. A.Land
  2. B.Shares
  3. C.Car
  4. D.House
88
Movable property includes:
  1. A.Land
  2. B.Money
  3. C.House
  4. D.Buildings
89
Which of the following is considered 'intangible property'?
  1. A.Patents
  2. B.Vehicles
  3. C.Buildings
  4. D.Furniture
90
Intellectual property can be transferred through:
  1. A.Assignment
  2. B.Mortgage
  3. C.Gift
  4. D.All of the above
91
A contract is defined as:
  1. A.An agreement enforceable by law
  2. B.A mutual understanding between parties
  3. C.A promise without consideration
  4. D.A legal obligation without agreement
92
Which of the following is NOT an essential element of a valid contract?
  1. A.Offer and acceptance
  2. B.Free consent
  3. C.Registration
  4. D.Lawful consideration
93
The consideration in a contract must be:
  1. A.Adequate
  2. B.Lawful
  3. C.Uncertain
  4. D.Personal
94
An agreement without consideration is:
  1. A.Valid
  2. B.Void
  3. C.Voidable
  4. D.Enforceable
95
A void contract is:
  1. A.An agreement that is enforceable
  2. B.An agreement that cannot be enforced by law
  3. C.An agreement that can be enforced at the option of one party
  4. D.An agreement that is voidable at the option of the parties
96
Which of the following is an example of a voidable contract?
  1. A.A contract with a minor
  2. B.A contract entered into under a mistake of fact
  3. C.A contract for an illegal purpose
  4. D.A contract made in restraint of trade
97
A contract that is not enforceable by law is known as:
  1. A.Void contract
  2. B.Voidable contract
  3. C.Unenforceable contract
  4. D.Bilateral contract
98
An agreement made under duress is:
  1. A.Void
  2. B.Valid
  3. C.Voidable
  4. D.Unenforceable
99
Which of the following is true about a void contract?
  1. A.It can be ratified
  2. B.It cannot be ratified
  3. C.It is valid until revoked
  4. D.It has legal consequences
100
The essentials of a valid contract include:
  1. A.Capacity of parties
  2. B.Legality of object
  3. C.Free consent
  4. D.All of the above