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Latest Maharashtra Zilla Parishad Exam Question (Objective Questions), MCQ in English
Subjects : English, Marathi, General knowledge, IQ (Quantitative Aptitude/Reasoning), Civil
Question Bank Maharashtra Zilla Parishad Civil Exam - English
English
Q 1 :
I go to Madurai by —– Vaigai Express
A.a
B.an
C.some
D.the
Q 2 :
Have the car stolen!
A.Steal the car
B.You should have the stolen car
C.Get someone to steal the car
D.They have stolen the car
Q 3 :
The payment was collected by the hardworking salesman.
A.The hardworking salesman collected the payment.
B.the salesman who worked heard was able to collect the payment.
C.to collect the payment the salesman had to work hard.
D.The hardworking salesman was able to collect the payment.
Q 4 :
I had to stop all my work to complete this project.
A.All other work had to be stopped to complete this project by me
B.For completing this project all other work must be stopped
C.For completing this project I had to stop all my work
D.To complete this project all other work had been stopped by me
Q 5 :
They have published the names of all the successful candidates.
A.The candidates who have succeeded their names they had published.
B.The names of all the successful candidates have been published by them
C.The candidates who have succeeded their names have been published by them.
D.The names of all the successful candidate were published by them.
Q 6 :
The online shopping site lowered the prices.
A.Lowering of the prices was done by the online shopping site
B.The prices were lowered by the online shopping site
C.The prices had been lowered by the online shopping site
D.The prices have been lowered by the online shopping site
Q 7 :
Who taught you to drive a truck ?
A.To drive a truck by whom were you taught?
B.Driving a truck by who were you taught?
C.Driving a truck by who were you being taught?
D.By whom were you taught to drive a truck?
Q 8 :
We shall invite Suresh.
A.Suresh would be invited by us
B.Suresh would have been invited by us
C.Suresh will be invited by us
D.Suresh will have been invited by us
Q 9 :
Dark clouds have overcast the evening sky.
A.By the dark clouds the evening sky was overcast.
B.The evening sky has been overcast by the dark clouds.
C.Dark clouds overcastted the evening sky.
D.The sky of the evening was overcasted by dark clouds.
Q 10 :
The partners will celebrate their triumph tomorrow.
A.The triumph would be celebrated by the partners a day before
B.The triumph would be celebrated by the partners a day after
C.The triumph would have been celebrated by the partners a day after
D.The triumph will have been celebrated by the partners tomorrow
Q 11 :
The Finance Department has ……………a centralized online databank system for all statutory government bodies to …………an eye on their assets and liabilities.
A. presented , stay
B.introduced , keep
C.announce , make
D.created , let
E.proclaimed , hold
Q 12 :
Assets
A.liabilities
B.responsibilities
C.estates
D.profits
Q 13 :
Affidavit
A. Affirmation
B.Slander
C.Oath
D.Testimony
Q 14 :
Hollow
A.Alveolate
B.Cleft
C. Cavernous
D.Solid
Q 15 :
Cosset
A.Ignoreb
B.Close
C.Caress
D.Fondle
Marathi
Q 16 :
'अच्छा' शब्दाचा विरुद्धार्थी कोणता शब्द आहे ?
A. खराब
B. सुंदर
C. प्रेम
D. धन्यवाद
Q 17 :
'सुन्दर' शब्दाचा समानार्थी कोणता शब्द आहे ?
A. बुद्धिमता
B. खराब
C. प्रसन्न
D. भयानक
Q 18 :
'स्नेह' शब्दाचा विरुद्धार्थी कोणता शब्द आहे ?
A. द्वेष
B. आक्रोश
C. असहमत
D. समझौता
Q 19 :
'उदास' शब्दाचा समानार्थी कोणता शब्द आहे ?
A. आनंदी
B. निराश
C. प्रसन्न
D. उत्साही
Q 20 :
'अद्य' शब्दाचा समानार्थी कोणता शब्द आहे ?
A. कल
B. पुन्हा
C. आज
D. अब
Q 21 :
'दौर' शब्दाचा विरुद्धार्थी कोणता शब्द आहे ?
A. स्थान
B. प्रकार
C. वेग
D. आवृत्ति
Q 22 :
'खुशी' शब्दाचा समानार्थी कोणता शब्द आहे ?
A. गुस्सा
B. निराशा
C. आनंद
D. स्वागत
Q 23 :
'अगला' शब्दाचा विरुद्धार्थी कोणता शब्द आहे ?
A. पिछला
B. भविष्य
C. सबसे
D. अन्य
Q 24 :
'दुःख' शब्दाचा समानार्थी कोणता शब्द आहे ?
A. सुख
B. आनंद
C. प्रसन्नता
D. शोक
Q 25 :
'विचार' शब्दाचा विरुद्धार्थी कोणता शब्द आहे ?
A. स्थापना
B. स्थान
C. निरीक्षण
D. आविष्कार
Q 26 :
'अनुभव' शब्दाचा समानार्थी कोणता शब्द आहे ?
A. नजर
B. आलोचना
C. अनुशासन
D. अनुभव
Q 27 :
'सुरक्षा' शब्दाचा विरुद्धार्थी कोणता शब्द आहे ?
A. खतरा
B. धैर्य
C. भय
D. आत्मा
Q 28 :
'स्पष्ट' शब्दाचा समानार्थी कोणता शब्द आहे ?
A. अस्पष्ट
B. सुंदर
C. दृढ
D. उत्कृष्ट
Q 29 :
'दृढ' शब्दाचा विरुद्धार्थी कोणता शब्द आहे ?
A. अतिक्रमण
B. दुर्बल
C. दुर्बलीकरण
D. अस्थिर
Q 30 :
'यथार्थ' शब्दाचा समानार्थी कोणता शब्द आहे ?
A. अशीच
B. अव्यवस्थित
C. अप्रमाणिक
D. विपरीत
General knowledge
Q 31 :
Yojna a weekly journal
A.Ministry of Finance
B.Ministry of Information and Broadcastin
C.Ministry of Rural Development
D.Planning Commission
Q 32 :
Kurukshetra a journal on rural development is published by
A.Ministry of Finance
B.Ministry of Information and Broadcastin
C.Ministry of Rural Development
D.Planning Commission
Q 33 :
Devaluation of a currency means
A.Fixing the value of the currency in conjuction with the movement in the value of a basket of predetermined currencies
B.Reduction in the value of a currency vis-à-vis major internationally traded currencies
C.Fixing the value of currency in multilateral consultaion with the IMF the World Bank and major trading partners
D.Permitting the currency to seek its worth in the international market
Q 34 :
In India rural incomes are generally lower than the urban incomes, which of the following reasons account for this
1. a large number of farmers are illiterate and know little about scientific agriculture
2. prices of primary products are lower than those of manufactured products
3. Investments in agriculture has been low when compared to investment in industry
A.1 and 3
B.2 and 3
C.1 and 2
D.1,2 and 3
Q 35 :
Which of the following programmes aims at the promotion of savings among rural women
A.Rashtriya Mahila Kosh
B.Indira Mahila Yojna
C.Jawahar Rozgar Yojna
D.Mahila Samridhi Yojna
Q 36 :
In Which year, Maharashtra came into existence ?
A.1960
B.1965
C.1955
D.None of these
Q 37 :
In which year, Shivaji was crowned as Chhatrapati ?
A.1560
B.1674
C.1660
D.None of these
Q 38 :
Who started Peshwa Dynasty ?
A.Balaji Vishwanath
B.Narayanrao Peshwo
C.Nanasaheb Peshwa
D.None of these
Q 39 :
Shivaji was died in the year
A.1680
B.1685
C.1690
D.None of these
Q 40 :
Name of the capital of the Peshwa rule was -
A.Pune
B.Ahmedabad
C.Indore
D.None of these
Q 41 :
In ruby laser, the stimulated emission is due to transition from
A.metastable state to any lower state
B.any higher state of lower state
C.metastable state to ground state
D.any higher state to ground state
Q 42 :
10-6 M NaOH is diluted 100 times. The pH of the diluted base is
A.between 7 and 8
B.between 5 and 6
C.between 6 and 7
D.between 10 and 11
Q 43 :
The respiratory quotient during cellular respiration would depend on
A.the nature of enzymes involved
B.the nature of the substrate
C.the amount of carbon dioxide released
D.the amount of oxygen utilised
Q 44 :
Which Indian state launched the ‘Green Energy Villages’ initiative in 2025 to promote renewable energy?
A.Uttar Pradesh
B.Rajasthan
C.Tamil Nadu
D.Gujarat
Q 45 :
Which organization developed the K-6 hypersonic Submarine-Launched Ballistic Missile (SLBM) tested in 2025?
A.ISRO
B.HAL
C.Bharat Dynamics Limited
D.DRDO
IQ (Quantitative Aptitude/Reasoning)
Q 46 :
How many such pairs of letters are there in the word ‘CLEANLINESS’ each of the which has as many letters between them in the word as they have in the English alphabet, in the same sequence?
A.Two
B.Three
C.Five
D.Four
E.None of these
Q 47 :
Team A has scored more goals than Team B
Team C has scored fewer goals than Team B
Team A has scored fewer goals than Team C .
If the first two statements are true, the third statement is
A.True
B.False
C.Uncertain
D.None
Q 48 :
If it is possible to make only one meaningful word with the second, the third, the sixth and the eight letters of the word FRAGMENT using each only once, which of the following will be the third letter of that word ? If no such word can be formed, give ‘X’ as the answer and if more than one such word can be formed, give ‘Y’ as the answer.
A.A
B.E
C.T
D.X
E.Y
Q 49 :
How many such letters are there in the word ORIENTAL each of which is as far away from the beginning of the word as when they are arranged alphabetically?
A.None
B.One
C.Two
D.Three
E.More than three
Q 50 :
Which letter in this alphabet is the eighth letter to the right of the letter and which is tenth letter to the left of the last but one letter of the alphabet ?
A.X
B.W
C.I
D.H
Important Questions Package
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IQ (Quantitative Aptitude/Reasoning)
Q 51 :
If the third alphabet of each of the words is changed to the next alphabet in the English alphabetical series, which of the following will form a meaningful English word?
A.SUM
B.BIG
C.Both BIG and THE
D.FOR
E.Both FOR and BIG
Q 52 :
If the given words are arranged in the order as they would appear in a dictionary from left to right, which of the following will be second from the right ?
A.AND
B.FOR
C.THE
D.BIG
E.SUM
Q 53 :
The cash difference between the selling prices of an article at a profit of 4% and 6% is Rs. 3. The ratio of the two selling prices is:__________ ?
A.51:52
B.52:53
C.51:53
D.52:55
Q 54 :
Which of the following numbers is irrational ?
A.√49
B.0.125
C.√2
D.22/7
Q 55 :
356 x 936 – 356 x 836 = ?
A.35600
B.34500
C.9630
D.93600
Q 56 :
Arrange in descending order: 5/8, 7/10, 3/4
A.3/4 > 7/10 > 5/8
B.7/10 > 3/4 > 5/8
C.3/4 > 5/8 > 7/10
D.5/8 > 7/10 > 3/4
Q 57 :
Chemistry but not in Physics.
A.318
B.198
C.213
D.206
Q 58 :
Physics or Maths but not in Chemistry.
A.558
B.718
C.628
D.None of these
Q 59 :
What is the percentage of persons who read all the three papers ?
A.20%
B.25%
C.30%
D.40%
Q 60 :
What is the percentage of persons who read only two papers?
A.19%
B.31%
C.44%
D.None of these
Civil
Q 61 :
What will be the depth of penetration of the plunger in Vicat Apparatus (IS : 5513 - 1976) from the bottom of the Vicat Mould, when the cement paste is tested for standard consistency, according to IS 4031 – 1988 ?
A.11 to 15 mm
B.8 to 10 mm
C.15 to 17 mm
D.5 to 7 mm
Q 62 :
Two sewer pipelines A and B (having the same diameter and made of the same material) are laid at a bed slope of 1 in 225 and 1 in 625, respectively. Determine the ratio of their carrying capacities (QA to QB) .
C.1
Q 63 :
Select the correct statement with respect to an over - reinforced cement concrete section under the working stress method .
A.The compressive stress in steel reaches the allowable limit before the maximum tensile stress in concrete reaches the allowable limit
B.Tensile steel stress and maximum compressive stress in concrete simultaneously reach their allowable limits
C.The allowable limiting stress is reached in concrete before the steel stress reaches the limiting value
D.The tensile stress in steel reaches the allowable limit before the maximum compressive stress in concrete reaches the allowable limit
Q 64 :
A cantilever beam of span L is built - in at the support. It is restrained against lateral deflection and torsion at the free end. The effective length of compression flange for the beam as per IS 800 : 2007 is
A.​​0.5 L
B.0.85 L
C.2 L
D.0.75 L
Q 65 :
What is the principle of plane surveying ?
A.Working from part to whole
B.Working from point to area
C.Working from angle to volume
D.Working from whole to part
Q 66 :
According is IS 5968 : 1987, the minimum radius of radius of curve to be provided in the alignment of unlined canals carrying a discharge of less than 30 cumecs up to 15 cumecs is :
A.100 m
B.1000 m
C.600 m
D.150 m
Q 67 :
A Pelton wheel is to be designed for a pitch diameter of 1 m and jet diameter of 0.1 m. The number of buckets on the runner computed by Taygun’s formula is :
A.20
B.25
C.15
D.10
Q 68 :
What is the effect of fly ash in concrete ?
A.Reduces the secondary hydration process
B.Increases the heat of hydration
C.Increases the amount of air entrainment
D.Reduces the heat of hydration
Q 69 :
As per IS 456 : 2000, the minimum grade of concrete to be used for plain concrete and reinforced concrete, respectively, in concrete works exposed directly along the sea coast are :
A.M 20 and M 30
B.M 20 and M 25
C.M 22 and M 40
D.M 15 and M 25
Q 70 :
Identify the property that changes as a function of the geometrical dimensions of a section in structural materials :
A.Mass density
B.Moment of inertia
C.Poission’s ratio
D.Modulus of elasticity
Q 71 :
As per IRC (Indian Roads Congress) recommendation, what will be the designed stopping sight distance (in metres) at the vehicle speed of 80 km/h on a rural highway ?
A.120
B.140
C.70
D.60
Q 72 :
No deduction is made in the quantity estimation for plastering work in cement mortar for openings having size up to :
A.0.5 m2
B.1.0 m2
C.3 m2
D.0.75 m2
Q 73 :
What is the height of slump cone mould used for testing the workability of the concrete ?
A.20 cm
B.10 cm
C.30 cm
D.25 cm
Q 74 :
Select the correct option with regard in the following statements (S1, S2) pertaining to pavements .
S1 : Present serviceability index is used for the functional evaluation of pavement surface condition
S2 : Rigid pavements are less affected by temperature variations than flexible pavements
A.Statements S1 is true and Statement S2 is false
B.Both statements S1 and S2 are false
C.Statements S1 is false and Statement S2 is true
D.Both statements S1 and S2 are true
Q 75 :
If the quadrantal bearing of a line AB is S 31'35' E, then its whole circle bearing is equal in :
A.121o25'
B.148o25'
C.58o25'
D.211o25'
Q 76 :
The overflowing sheet of water on a weir is called :
A.creek
B.crest
C.limp
D.nappe
Q 77 :
According to IS 456 - 2000, what is the slump of a medium degree of workability of concrete if planed in heavily reinforced sections like slabs, beams, walls, columns ?
A.10 - 25 mm
B.25 - 50 mm
C.0 - 10 mm
D.50 - 100 mm
Q 78 :
Which of the following is Kharif season in India ?
A.March / April to June / July
B.December / January to April / May
C.May / June to October / November
D.October / November to April / May
Q 79 :
The estimated value of a built - up property at the end of its useful life without dismantled is called :
A.market value
B.book value
C.scrap value
D.salvage value
Q 80 :
The amount of cement required for 100 m2 area, of damp proof course with 2.5 cm thinkness, in with proportion of 1: 2 : 4 (cement : sand : aggregate) will be :
A.2.5 m2
B.0.55 m2
C.1.10 m2
D.0.25 m2
Q 81 :
Select the correct statement related to increasing the carbon content in steel from 0.2 to 0.9 percent .
A.Increasing the carbon content in steel decreases the yield stress and increases the ductility
B.Increasing the carbon content in steel increases the yield stress and reduces the ductility
C.Increasing the carbon content in steel decreases the yield stress and does not affect the ductility
D.Increasing the carbon content in steel does not have any effect on the yield stress or ductility
Q 82 :
Which of the following laws states that pressure or intensity of pressure at a point is static fluid is equal in all directions ?
A.Newton's law
B.Pascal's law
C.Darcy's law
D.Hydrostatic law
Q 83 :
The determination of plasticity index and the percentage by weight of clay mineral finer than 2 µ present in the soil were done for two soil samples A and B. The ratio of plasticity index to the percentage of clay size particle for the samples A and B are given in the table .
Soil sample Ratio of plasticity index to percentage of clay size particle
Sample A Less than 0.75
Sample B Greater than 1.25 The two soil sample A and B are classified as
A.Sample A : Inactive; Sample B : Active
B.Sample A : Active; Sample B : Normal
C.Sample A : Active; Sample B : Inactive
D.Sample A : Normal ; Sample B : Inactive
Q 84 :
Which of the following compounds of cement is responsible for early strength ?
A.C4AF
B.C3S
C.C3A
D.C2A
Q 85 :
According to SP : 27 - 1984, the thickness of slab or RC slab shall be measured to the nearest of :
A.0.0002 m
B.0.005 m
C.0.0001 m
D.0.01 m
Q 86 :
Classify the following pollutants as primary pollutants (PP) and secondary pollutants (SP). Ozone, Carbon monoxide, Particulate matter, photochemical smog, Nitrogen oxides, Aerosol/mist, Hydrocarbons, Perory - Acetyl - Nitrate, Sulphur dioxide.
A.bulk unit weight of a soil when it is fully saturated
B.saturated bulk unit weight to total void
C.total void to saturated bulk unit weight
D.total void to saturated bulk unit weight
Q 88 :
Identify the test to be conducted for the determination of the modulus of subgrade reaction in pavement design .
A.Plate bearing test
B.Triaxial test
C.CBR test
D.Direct shear test
Q 89 :
In limit state design, the design bond stress for deformed bars (conforming to IS 1786) for M20 concrete mentioned in IS 456 : 2000 is (in N/mm2 units) :
A.1.2
B.1.8
C.1.68
D.1.92
Q 90 :
Which of the following can be considered as a taking off point in road planning in India ?
A.Lucknow plan
B.Delhi plan
C.Bombay plan
D.Nagpur plan
Q 91 :
The following two statements pertain to a simply supported under reinforced concrete beam. Select the correct option with regard is these statements .
1. The failure of the beam takes place due to the yielding of steel .
2. The moment of resistance of the beam is more than that of the balanced section of the beam .
A.Statement 1 is true but Statement 2 is false
B.Statement 1 is false but Statement 2 is true
C.Both statement 1 and 2 are true
D.Both statement 1 and 2 are false
Q 92 :
A continuous beam ABC with span AB = BC = L is shown in the figure. Support A is fixed type, and supports B and C are roller type. The kinematic indeterminacy of the beam is :
A.2
B.3
C.5
D.4
Q 93 :
The soils transported and deposited by a river or a stream care called :
A.aeolian soils
B.alluvial soils
C.lacustrine soils
D.marine soils
Q 94 :
What is the mechanical extra widening required for a two-lane pavement of width 7 m on a horizontal curve of radius 250 m, if the longest wheel base of a vehicle expected on the road is 5 m with a design speed of 70 km/h ?
A.0.155 m
B.0.225 m
C.0.100 m
D.0.552 m
Q 95 :
The following are some of the errors that area associated with a total station survey work. Vertical collimation error, Centering error, Horizontal collimation error, Eccentricity error Categorize the given errors as those due to temporary adjustments (T) and permanent adjustments (P).
