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Latest MAHATRANSCO Additional Executive Engineer Exam Question (Objective Questions), MCQ in English
Subjects : Professional Knowledge (Civil), Reasoning, Quantitative Aptitude, Marathi Language
Question Bank MAHATRANSCO Additional Executive Engineer Exam (Civil) - English
Professional Knowledge (Civil)
Q 1 :
What will be the depth of penetration of the plunger in Vicat Apparatus (IS : 5513 - 1976) from the bottom of the Vicat Mould, when the cement paste is tested for standard consistency, according to IS 4031 – 1988 ?
A.11 to 15 mm
B.8 to 10 mm
C.15 to 17 mm
D.5 to 7 mm
Q 2 :
Two sewer pipelines A and B (having the same diameter and made of the same material) are laid at a bed slope of 1 in 225 and 1 in 625, respectively. Determine the ratio of their carrying capacities (QA to QB) .
C.1
Q 3 :
Select the correct statement with respect to an over - reinforced cement concrete section under the working stress method .
A.The compressive stress in steel reaches the allowable limit before the maximum tensile stress in concrete reaches the allowable limit
B.Tensile steel stress and maximum compressive stress in concrete simultaneously reach their allowable limits
C.The allowable limiting stress is reached in concrete before the steel stress reaches the limiting value
D.The tensile stress in steel reaches the allowable limit before the maximum compressive stress in concrete reaches the allowable limit
Q 4 :
A cantilever beam of span L is built - in at the support. It is restrained against lateral deflection and torsion at the free end. The effective length of compression flange for the beam as per IS 800 : 2007 is
A.​​0.5 L
B.0.85 L
C.2 L
D.0.75 L
Q 5 :
What is the principle of plane surveying ?
A.Working from part to whole
B.Working from point to area
C.Working from angle to volume
D.Working from whole to part
Q 6 :
According is IS 5968 : 1987, the minimum radius of radius of curve to be provided in the alignment of unlined canals carrying a discharge of less than 30 cumecs up to 15 cumecs is :
A.100 m
B.1000 m
C.600 m
D.150 m
Q 7 :
A Pelton wheel is to be designed for a pitch diameter of 1 m and jet diameter of 0.1 m. The number of buckets on the runner computed by Taygun’s formula is :
A.20
B.25
C.15
D.10
Q 8 :
What is the effect of fly ash in concrete ?
A.Reduces the secondary hydration process
B.Increases the heat of hydration
C.Increases the amount of air entrainment
D.Reduces the heat of hydration
Q 9 :
As per IS 456 : 2000, the minimum grade of concrete to be used for plain concrete and reinforced concrete, respectively, in concrete works exposed directly along the sea coast are :
A.M 20 and M 30
B.M 20 and M 25
C.M 22 and M 40
D.M 15 and M 25
Q 10 :
Identify the property that changes as a function of the geometrical dimensions of a section in structural materials :
A.Mass density
B.Moment of inertia
C.Poission’s ratio
D.Modulus of elasticity
Q 11 :
As per IRC (Indian Roads Congress) recommendation, what will be the designed stopping sight distance (in metres) at the vehicle speed of 80 km/h on a rural highway ?
A.120
B.140
C.70
D.60
Q 12 :
No deduction is made in the quantity estimation for plastering work in cement mortar for openings having size up to :
A.0.5 m2
B.1.0 m2
C.3 m2
D.0.75 m2
Q 13 :
What is the height of slump cone mould used for testing the workability of the concrete ?
A.20 cm
B.10 cm
C.30 cm
D.25 cm
Q 14 :
Select the correct option with regard in the following statements (S1, S2) pertaining to pavements .
S1 : Present serviceability index is used for the functional evaluation of pavement surface condition
S2 : Rigid pavements are less affected by temperature variations than flexible pavements
A.Statements S1 is true and Statement S2 is false
B.Both statements S1 and S2 are false
C.Statements S1 is false and Statement S2 is true
D.Both statements S1 and S2 are true
Q 15 :
If the quadrantal bearing of a line AB is S 31'35' E, then its whole circle bearing is equal in :
A.121o25'
B.148o25'
C.58o25'
D.211o25'
Q 16 :
The overflowing sheet of water on a weir is called :
A.creek
B.crest
C.limp
D.nappe
Q 17 :
According to IS 456 - 2000, what is the slump of a medium degree of workability of concrete if planed in heavily reinforced sections like slabs, beams, walls, columns ?
A.10 - 25 mm
B.25 - 50 mm
C.0 - 10 mm
D.50 - 100 mm
Q 18 :
Which of the following is Kharif season in India ?
A.March / April to June / July
B.December / January to April / May
C.May / June to October / November
D.October / November to April / May
Q 19 :
The estimated value of a built - up property at the end of its useful life without dismantled is called :
A.market value
B.book value
C.scrap value
D.salvage value
Q 20 :
The amount of cement required for 100 m2 area, of damp proof course with 2.5 cm thinkness, in with proportion of 1: 2 : 4 (cement : sand : aggregate) will be :
A.2.5 m2
B.0.55 m2
C.1.10 m2
D.0.25 m2
Q 21 :
Select the correct statement related to increasing the carbon content in steel from 0.2 to 0.9 percent .
A.Increasing the carbon content in steel decreases the yield stress and increases the ductility
B.Increasing the carbon content in steel increases the yield stress and reduces the ductility
C.Increasing the carbon content in steel decreases the yield stress and does not affect the ductility
D.Increasing the carbon content in steel does not have any effect on the yield stress or ductility
Q 22 :
Which of the following laws states that pressure or intensity of pressure at a point is static fluid is equal in all directions ?
A.Newton's law
B.Pascal's law
C.Darcy's law
D.Hydrostatic law
Q 23 :
The determination of plasticity index and the percentage by weight of clay mineral finer than 2 µ present in the soil were done for two soil samples A and B. The ratio of plasticity index to the percentage of clay size particle for the samples A and B are given in the table .
Soil sample Ratio of plasticity index to percentage of clay size particle
Sample A Less than 0.75
Sample B Greater than 1.25 The two soil sample A and B are classified as
A.Sample A : Inactive; Sample B : Active
B.Sample A : Active; Sample B : Normal
C.Sample A : Active; Sample B : Inactive
D.Sample A : Normal ; Sample B : Inactive
Q 24 :
Which of the following compounds of cement is responsible for early strength ?
A.C4AF
B.C3S
C.C3A
D.C2A
Q 25 :
According to SP : 27 - 1984, the thickness of slab or RC slab shall be measured to the nearest of :
A.0.0002 m
B.0.005 m
C.0.0001 m
D.0.01 m
Q 26 :
Classify the following pollutants as primary pollutants (PP) and secondary pollutants (SP). Ozone, Carbon monoxide, Particulate matter, photochemical smog, Nitrogen oxides, Aerosol/mist, Hydrocarbons, Perory - Acetyl - Nitrate, Sulphur dioxide.
A.bulk unit weight of a soil when it is fully saturated
B.saturated bulk unit weight to total void
C.total void to saturated bulk unit weight
D.total void to saturated bulk unit weight
Q 28 :
Identify the test to be conducted for the determination of the modulus of subgrade reaction in pavement design .
A.Plate bearing test
B.Triaxial test
C.CBR test
D.Direct shear test
Q 29 :
In limit state design, the design bond stress for deformed bars (conforming to IS 1786) for M20 concrete mentioned in IS 456 : 2000 is (in N/mm2 units) :
A.1.2
B.1.8
C.1.68
D.1.92
Q 30 :
Which of the following can be considered as a taking off point in road planning in India ?
A.Lucknow plan
B.Delhi plan
C.Bombay plan
D.Nagpur plan
Q 31 :
The following two statements pertain to a simply supported under reinforced concrete beam. Select the correct option with regard is these statements .
1. The failure of the beam takes place due to the yielding of steel .
2. The moment of resistance of the beam is more than that of the balanced section of the beam .
A.Statement 1 is true but Statement 2 is false
B.Statement 1 is false but Statement 2 is true
C.Both statement 1 and 2 are true
D.Both statement 1 and 2 are false
Q 32 :
A continuous beam ABC with span AB = BC = L is shown in the figure. Support A is fixed type, and supports B and C are roller type. The kinematic indeterminacy of the beam is :
A.2
B.3
C.5
D.4
Q 33 :
The soils transported and deposited by a river or a stream care called :
A.aeolian soils
B.alluvial soils
C.lacustrine soils
D.marine soils
Q 34 :
What is the mechanical extra widening required for a two-lane pavement of width 7 m on a horizontal curve of radius 250 m, if the longest wheel base of a vehicle expected on the road is 5 m with a design speed of 70 km/h ?
A.0.155 m
B.0.225 m
C.0.100 m
D.0.552 m
Q 35 :
The following are some of the errors that area associated with a total station survey work. Vertical collimation error, Centering error, Horizontal collimation error, Eccentricity error Categorize the given errors as those due to temporary adjustments (T) and permanent adjustments (P).
According to IS 800 : 2007, identify the property which is considered as a mechanical property of structural steel, important in design .
A.Unit mass
B.Maximum percent elongation on a standard gauge length
C.Co - efficient of thermal expansion
D.Poisson ration
Q 37 :
Which of the following methods is NOT used for measuring air content in fresh concrete ?
A.Blaine air permeability method
B.Gravimetric method
C.Pressure method
D.Volumetric method
Q 38 :
Which of the following methods is NOT used for the calculation of depreciation of a structure ?
A.Straight line method
B.Quantity survey method
C.Geometric projection method
D.Declining balance method
Q 39 :
The failure of an over reinforced concrete beam is due to :
A.compression failure
B.mid failure
C.shear failure
D.tension failure
Q 40 :
In which type of estimate is 'Court yard' NOT considered ?
A.Unit rate estimate
B.Plinth area estimate
C.Lump sum estimate
D.Cub rate estimate
Q 41 :
Match the items in List 1 (name of quantities) with those in List 2 (unit of quantities in the SI system). Use codes in List for matching .
​ List 1 List 2
M. Dynamic viscosity 1. N/m
N. Kinematic viscosity 2. N.m
O. Surface tension 3. N.s/m2
P. Energy 4. m2/s
A.M-3, N-4, O-2, P-1
B.M-3, N-4, O-1, P-2
C.M-4, N-3, O-1, P-2
D.M-2, N-4, O-1, P-3
Q 42 :
A reinforced concrete beam is subjected to the following bending moments .
Moment due to dead load = 50 kNm
Moment due to live load = 50 kNm
Moment due to seismic load = 20 kNm
The design bending moment for limit state of collapse is :
A.120 kNm
B.180 kNm
C.144 kNm
D.150 kNm
Q 43 :
In a workshop shade, trusses are spaced at 4 m centre to centre. The purlins are spaced at 1.4 m centre to centre along the slope of 300. The (Dead Load + Live load) is 3 kNm2 and the wind load in 5 kNm2. The vertical and the inclined point loads, respectively, will be :
A.14.54 kN and 28 kN
B.17.8 kN and 48 kN
C.20 kN and 24 kN
D.18 kN and 21 kN
Q 44 :
What will be the percentage of passing aggregate for the grading zone 1 of sieve size 1.18 mm ?
A.100%
B.10% - 20%
C.7% - 25%
D.30% - 70%
Q 45 :
The annual or periodical payment for repayment of the capital amount invested on a property for a specified period is known as :
A.depreciation
B.obsolescence
C.amortization
D.annuity
Q 46 :
Among the following river training works, which are aligned either parallel or at an angle to the banks, identify the one having a difference in alignment when compared to others :
A.Flood walls
B.Guide banks
C.Groynes
D.Levees
Q 47 :
The test commonly to determine the grade of bitumen in terms of its hardness is :
A.the penetration test
B.the ductility test
C.the softening point test
D.the flash and fire point test
Q 48 :
A level section has formation width of 10 m, side slope of 1 : 2 (vertical : horizontal) and central height of 2 m. Determine the quantity of earthwork required for a 1 km length of formation (in m3) .
A.24,000
B.20,000
C.18,000
D.28,000
Q 49 :
Which type of odour characteristic is NOT used for classifying odour of a given water sample as per IS 3025 (part-5) 1983 ?
A.Degree of sweetness
B.Degree of turbidity
C.Degree of pungency
D.Degree of smokiness
Q 50 :
The liquid limit and plastic limit of clay materials is 45% and 25% respectively, what is the activity of clay materials if 20% by weight of particles of size less than 2 microns ?
A.0
B.2
C.3
D.1
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MAHATRANSCO Additional Executive Engineer Exam (Civil) Question Bank Book - English
How many such pairs of letters are there in the word ‘CLEANLINESS’ each of the which has as many letters between them in the word as they have in the English alphabet, in the same sequence?
A.Two
B.Three
C.Five
D.Four
E.None of these
Q 52 :
Team A has scored more goals than Team B
Team C has scored fewer goals than Team B
Team A has scored fewer goals than Team C .
If the first two statements are true, the third statement is
A.True
B.False
C.Uncertain
D.None
Q 53 :
If it is possible to make only one meaningful word with the second, the third, the sixth and the eight letters of the word FRAGMENT using each only once, which of the following will be the third letter of that word ? If no such word can be formed, give ‘X’ as the answer and if more than one such word can be formed, give ‘Y’ as the answer.
A.A
B.E
C.T
D.X
E.Y
Q 54 :
How many such letters are there in the word ORIENTAL each of which is as far away from the beginning of the word as when they are arranged alphabetically?
A.None
B.One
C.Two
D.Three
E.More than three
Q 55 :
How many such pairs of letters in the word CREDIT each of which has as many letters between them in the word as in the English alphabet?
A.None
B.One
C.Two
D.Three
E.More than three
Q 56 :
How many meaningful words can be made from the letters ‘LMEA’ using each letter only once in each word?
A.None
B.One
C.Two
D.Three
E.More than three
Q 57 :
If it is possible to make only one meaningful word with the first, the second, the seventh and the eighth letters of the word TEMPORAL, which of the following will be the first letter of that word? If more than one such word can be made, give ‘Y’ as the answer and if no such word can be made, give ‘X’ as the answer.
A.T
B.L
C.E
D.Y
E.X
Q 58 :
If the letters of the word HANDOVER are arranged alphabetically from left to right how many letters will remain at the same position?
A.None
B.One
C.Two
D.Three
E.More than three
Q 59 :
How many such pairs of letters are there in the word EXCURSION, each of which has as many letters between them in the word as they have in the English alphabet?
A.None
B.One
C.Two
D.Three
E.More than three
Q 60 :
If it is possible to make only one meaningful word with the first, the second, the third, the sixth and the eighth letters of the word DEVIATION first letter of that word is your answer? If more than one such word can be made formed your answer is ‘A’ and if no such word can be formed your answer is ‘B’.
A.V
B.T
C.E
D.A
E.B
Q 61 :
If each alternate letter beginning with the first in the word WORKING is replaced by the next letter in the English alphabet and each of the remaining letters is replaced by the previous letter in the English alphabet, which of the following will be the fourth from the right and after the replacement ?
A.N
B.Q
C.J
D.M
E.None of these
Q 62 :
How many pairs of letters are there in the word ‘SHIFTED’ each of which has as many letters between its two letters as there are between in the English alphabet?
A.None
B.One
C.Two
D.Three
E.None of these
Q 63 :
Statement: Is common currency a necessary ingredient for Europe’s growth ?
Arguments :
I. Yes, A common currency will enable entire Europe to market itself as one .
II. No, Similar experiments by Latin America countries have not affected their economies .
A.The only argument I is strong
B.Only argument II is strong
C.Either I or II is strong
D.Neither I nor II is strong
Q 64 :
If it is possible to make only one meaningful word with the first, the fifth, the sixth, the tenth and the eleventh letters of the word EXCEPTIONAL using each letter only once, first letter of that word is your answer. If no such word can be made formed your answer is ‘X’ and if more than one such word can be formed your answer is ‘Y’.
A.P
B.L
C.T
D.X
E.Y
Q 65 :
How many meaningful English words can be formed with the letters RAE using each letter only once in each word?
A.None
B.One
C.Two
D.Three
E.More than three
Q 66 :
How many such pairs of letters are there in the word WONDERS, each of which has as many letters between its two letters as there are between them in the English alphabet?
A.One
B.Two
C.Three
D.Four
E.More than four
Q 67 :
If it is possible to make only one meaningful English word from the second, the fifth, the seventh and the eighth letters of the word PHYSICAL, using each letter only once, second letter of that word is your answer. If more than one such word can be formed your answer is M. if no such word can be formed your answer is N.
A.I
B.A
C.L
D.M
E.N
Q 68 :
How many such pairs of letters are there in the word JUSTIFY, each of which have as many letters between them in the word as they have between them in the English alphabet?
A.None
B.One
C.Two
D.Three
E.More than three
Q 69 :
If the alphabets are assigned values as A=3, D=6, G=8, I=2, L=4 and T=5 then what is the sum of values of all the alphabets in the word DIGITAL?
A.26
B.28
C.30
D.32
E.None of these
Q 70 :
How many such pairs of letters are there in the word EDUCATION, each of which has as many letters between them in the word as they have in the English alphabet?
A.None
B.One
C.Two
D.Three
E.More than three
Q 71 :
Which letter in this alphabet is the eighth letter to the right of the letter and which is tenth letter to the left of the last but one letter of the alphabet ?
A.X
B.W
C.I
D.H
Q 72 :
If the third alphabet of each of the words is changed to the next alphabet in the English alphabetical series, which of the following will form a meaningful English word?
A.SUM
B.BIG
C.Both BIG and THE
D.FOR
E.Both FOR and BIG
Q 73 :
If the given words are arranged in the order as they would appear in a dictionary from left to right, which of the following will be second from the right ?
A.AND
B.FOR
C.THE
D.BIG
E.SUM
Q 74 :
If second alphabet in each of the words is changed to next alphabet in the English alphabetical order, how many words having two vowels (same or different vowels) will be formed ?
A.None
B.One
C.Two
D.Three
E.Four
Q 75 :
How many letters are there in the English alphabetical series between the second letter of the word which is second from the right and the second letter of the word which is second from the left of the given words?
A.Two
B.Five
C.Six
D.Nine
E.Three
Q 76 :
If in each of the given words, each of the consonant is changed to previous letter and each vowel is changed to next letter in the English alphabetical series, in how many words thus formed will no vowels appear?
A.None
B.One
C.Two
D.Three
E.More than three
Q 77 :
If the third alphabet in each of the words is changed to the next alphabet in the English alphabetical order, how many words having two vowels (same or different vowels) will be formed?
A.None
B.One
C.Two
D.Three
E.Four
Q 78 :
If the position of the first and the second alphabets of each of the words are interchanged, which of the following will form a meaningful English word?
A.Both CAT and OWN
B.Both BRU and INK
C.Only CAT
D.Only INK
E.Only LEG
Q 79 :
If the given words are arranged in the order as they would appear in a dictionary from left to right, which of the following will be exactly in the middle of the five words?
A.OWN
B.LEG
C.BRU
D.CAT
E.INK
Q 80 :
If in each of the given words, each of the consonants is changed to previous letter and each vowel is changed to next letter in the English alphabetical series, in how many words thus formed will the same alphabet appear twice?
A.None
B.One
C.Two
D.Three
E.More than three
Q 81 :
3, 5, 5, 19, 7, 41, 9, ?
A.71
B.61
C.79
D.69
Q 82 :
If the positions of the first and the third alphabets of each of the words are interchanged, which of the following would form meaningful words with the new arrangement?
A.HID
B.SON
C.Both LAP and BUT
D.CAR
E.Both CAR and LAP
Q 83 :
If the given words are arranged in the order as they would appear in a dictionary from left to right, which of the following will be fourth from the left?
A.LAP
B.BUT
C.CAR
D.SON
E.HID
Q 84 :
If in each of given words, each of the consonants is changed to previous letter and each vowel is changed to next letter in the English alphabetical series, in how many words thus formed will at least one vowel appear?
A.None
B.One
C.Two
D.Three
E.More than three
Q 85 :
How many letters are there in the English alphabetical series between the third letter of the word which is third from the right and the first letter of the word which is first from the left of the given word?
A.Two
B.Five
C.Six
D.Nine
E.Three
Q 86 :
If second alphabet in each of the words is changed to next alphabet in the English alphabetical order, how many words having no vowels will be formed?
A.None
B.One
C.Two
D.Three
E.More than three
Q 87 :
If all the letters in each of the words are arranged alphabetically (within the word), how many words will remain unchanged?
A.One
B.Two
C.Three
D.More than three
E.None
Q 88 :
According to the English alphabetical series how many letters are there between the first letter of the third word and the first letter of the fifth word?
A.Two
B.One
C.None
D.Three
E.More than three
Q 89 :
If the first letter of all the words is changed to the previous letter of the English alphabetical series, how many words will have more than one vowel?
A.One
B.Two
C.Three
D.More than three
E.None
Q 90 :
If all the vowels (in all the words) are changed to the next letter of the English alphabetical series, how many words will form meaningful English words?
A.One
B.Two
C.Three
D.More than three
E.None
Quantitative Aptitude
Q 91 :
The cash difference between the selling prices of an article at a profit of 4% and 6% is Rs. 3. The ratio of the two selling prices is:__________ ?
A.51:52
B.52:53
C.51:53
D.52:55
Q 92 :
Which of the following numbers is irrational ?
A.√49
B.0.125
C.√2
D.22/7
Q 93 :
356 x 936 – 356 x 836 = ?
A.35600
B.34500
C.9630
D.93600
Q 94 :
Arrange in descending order: 5/8, 7/10, 3/4
A.3/4 > 7/10 > 5/8
B.7/10 > 3/4 > 5/8
C.3/4 > 5/8 > 7/10
D.5/8 > 7/10 > 3/4
Q 95 :
What is (3^{4} times 9^{2}) ?
A.36
B.38
C.310
D.96
Q 96 :
If 34X-2 = 729, then find the value of X.
A.4
B.3
C.2
D.5
Q 97 :
Convert 0.6 into fraction ?
A.3/5
B.2/3
C.4/5
Q 98 :
The no. plate of a bus had peculiarity. The bus number was a perfect square. It was also a perfect square when the plate numbers were reversed. The bus company had only five hundred buses numbered from 1 to 500. What was the number ?
A.169
B.36
C.196
D.Can not say
Q 99 :
If a and b are positive integers, such that ab = 125, then (a-b)a+b-4 = ?
A.16
B.25
C.28
D.30
Q 100 :
If x*y = x2 + y2 – xy, then value of 9*11 is
A.93
B.103
C.60.5
D.121
Q 101 :
Chemistry but not in Physics.
A.318
B.198
C.213
D.206
Q 102 :
Physics or Maths but not in Chemistry.
A.558
B.718
C.628
D.None of these
Q 103 :
What is the percentage of persons who read all the three papers ?
A.20%
B.25%
C.30%
D.40%
Q 104 :
What is the percentage of persons who read only two papers?
A.19%
B.31%
C.44%
D.None of these
Q 105 :
What is the percentage of persons who read only one paper ?
A.38%
B.48%
C.51%
D.None of these
Q 106 :
What is the percentage of persons who read only A but neither B nor C ?
A.4%
B.3%
C.1%
D.None of these
Q 107 :
If A and B are any two sets, then what is A á´– (A á´— B) equal to ?
A.Complement of A
B.Complement of B
C.B
D.A
Q 108 :
40% of the people read newspaper X, 50% read newspaper Y and 10% read both the papers. What percentage of the people read neither newspaper ?
A.10%
B.15%
C.20%
D.25%
Q 109 :
The passengers who like only coffee is greater than the passengers who like only lassi by
A.25%
B.100%
C.75%
D.0%
Q 110 :
The percentage of passengers who like both tea and lassi but not coffee, is
A.15
B.25
C.40
D.75
Marathi Language
Q 111 :
पुढील शब्दाच्या कोणत्या भागाने "नामपद" शब्द सांगा?
A. प्रयोगपद
B. सर्वनाम
C. क्रियापद
D. विशेषण
Q 112 :
"आपल्या शिक्षकाने आमच्या विद्यालयातील पुस्तकांना सुंदर नाम" - या वाक्यात, कोणत्या शब्दाच्या भागाने "नाम" असा अर्थ आहे?
A. सर्वनाम
B. क्रियापद
C. विशेषण
D. नामपद
Q 113 :
"रामला आपलं पुस्तकाचं अंगूठ नकलायला आहे" - या वाक्यात, कोणत्या शब्दाच्या भागाने "पुस्तकाचं" असा अर्थ आहे ?
A. सर्वनाम
B. क्रियापद
C. विशेषण
D. नामपद
Q 114 :
"तुम्ही आपल्या मित्राला काय प्रेम करता?" - या वाक्यात, कोणत्या शब्दाच्या भागाने "मित्राला" असा अर्थ आहे ?
A. सर्वनाम
B. क्रियापद
C. विशेषण
D. नामपद
Q 115 :
"सर्व विद्यार्थ्यांना आवश्यक गोड अभ्यास करावा" - या वाक्यात, कोणत्या शब्दाच्या भागाने "विद्यार्थ्यांना" असा अर्थ आहे ?
A. सर्वनाम
B. क्रियापद
C. विशेषण
D. नामपद
Q 116 :
"उपास्य देवतांच्या पूजेसाठी फूल घालता येतात" - या वाक्यात, कोणत्या शब्दाच्या भागाने "उपास्य" असा अर्थ आहे ?
A. सर्वनाम
B. क्रियापद
C. विशेषण
D. नामपद
Q 117 :
"रामाने गुलाब लावलं" - या वाक्यात, कोणत्या शब्दाच्या भागाने "रामाने" असा अर्थ आहे ?
A. सर्वनाम
B. क्रियापद
C. विशेषण
D. नामपद
Q 118 :
"माझ्या आवडत्या पुस्तकात सर्व वस्तूंची फोटो आहे" - या वाक्यात, कोणत्या शब्दाच्या भागाने "माझ्या" असा अर्थ आहे ?
A. सर्वनाम
B. क्रियापद
C. विशेषण
D. नामपद
Q 119 :
"हा पुस्तक तुम्हाला किती आवडला?" - या वाक्यात, कोणत्या शब्दाच्या भागाने "तुम्हाला" असा अर्थ आहे ?
A. सर्वनाम
B. क्रियापद
C. विशेषण
D. नामपद
Q 120 :
"माझ्या आवडत्या फुलाच्या रंगात तुम्ही त्याचा उपयोग कसा करता?" - या वाक्यात, कोणत्या शब्दाच्या भागाने "तुम्ही" असा अर्थ आहे ?
A. सर्वनाम
B. क्रियापद
C. विशेषण
D. नामपद
Q 121 :
"माझ्या घरात नाचलंय" - या वाक्यात, कोणत्या शब्दाच्या भागाने "माझ्या" असा अर्थ आहे ?
A. सर्वनाम
B. क्रियापद
C. विशेषण
D. नामपद
Q 122 :
"आम्हाला विद्यापीठातील पुस्तके वाचायला आवश्यक आहेत" - या वाक्यात, कोणत्या शब्दाच्या भागाने "आम्हाला" असा अर्थ आहे ?
A. सर्वनाम
B. क्रियापद
C. विशेषण
D. नामपद
Q 123 :
"उन्हाळ्यातलं वातावरण मस्त आहे" - या वाक्यात, कोणत्या शब्दाच्या भागाने "उन्हाळ्यातलं" असा अर्थ आहे ?
A. सर्वनाम
B. क्रियापद
C. विशेषण
D. नामपद
Q 124 :
"मी तुमच्या मित्राला नमस्कार केलं" - या वाक्यात, कोणत्या शब्दाच्या भागाने "मी" असा अर्थ आहे ?
A. सर्वनाम
B. क्रियापद
C. विशेषण
D. नामपद
Q 125 :
"माझ्या दोन शिक्षकांनी फुलांचं अंगूठ नकललं" - या वाक्यात, कोणत्या शब्दाच्या भागाने "माझ्या" असा अर्थ आहे ?
A. सर्वनाम
B. क्रियापद
C. विशेषण
D. नामपद
Q 126 :
"अश्या मनोरंजनात जाऊन आलोस" - या वाक्यात, कोणत्या शब्दाच्या भागाने "अश्या" असा अर्थ आहे ?
A. सर्वनाम
B. क्रियापद
C. विशेषण
D. नामपद
Q 127 :
"त्याला सर्व काही चांगलं कसं करावं लागेल?" - या वाक्यात, कोणत्या शब्दाच्या भागाने "त्याला" असा अर्थ आहे ?
A. सर्वनाम
B. क्रियापद
C. विशेषण
D. नामपद
Q 128 :
"माझ्या शाळेतल्या शिक्षिकांनी जणांना मनापासून शिकवलं" - या वाक्यात, कोणत्या शब्दाच्या भागाने "माझ्या" असा अर्थ आहे ?
A. सर्वनाम
B. क्रियापद
C. विशेषण
D. नामपद
Q 129 :
"राम माझ्या विद्यापीठात वाचला" - या वाक्यात, कोणत्या शब्दाच्या भागाने "माझ्या" असा अर्थ आहे ?
A. सर्वनाम
B. क्रियापद
C. विशेषण
D. नामपद
Q 130 :
"तुमच्या विद्यालयातल्या शिक्षकांनी मनापासून शिकवलं" - या वाक्यात, कोणत्या शब्दाच्या भागाने "तुमच्या" असा अर्थ आहे ?