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Question Bank

Question for Manipal Entrance Test - Quiz / Questions / MCQ in English

Last Update on : October 11, 2026

Duration: 120 · Questions: 60 · Max Marks: 60

View MET 2026 Exam Page

To boost your performance in Manipal Entrance Test exam, practice each question regularly and with focus. Every question tests your subject understanding, so solve them one at a time. Taking a quiz improves your speed and accuracy. Practicing topic-wise MCQs. Students benefit greatly from reviewing questions with answer keys, which help clarify concepts and strengthen Questions knowledge for success in Manipal Entrance Test exams.

Latest Manipal Entrance Test Exam Question (Objective Questions), MCQ in English

Subjects : Physics, Chemistry, Mathematics, English

Question Bank Manipal Entrance Test Exam - English

Physics

Q 1 :
In ruby laser, the stimulated emission is due to transition from
  1. A.metastable state to any lower state
  2. B.any higher state of lower state
  3. C.metastable state to ground state
  4. D.any higher state to ground state
Q 2 :
A direct current I flows along the length of an infinitely long straight thin walled pipe, then the magnetic field is
  1. A.uniform throughout the pipe not zero
  2. B.zero only along the axis of the pipe
  3. C.zero at any point inside the pipe
  4. D.maximum at the centre and minimum at the edge
Q 3 :
convex lens made of glass has focal length 0.15m in air. If the refractive index of glass is 3/2, and that of water is 4/3 the focal length of lens when immersed in water is
  1. A.0.45 m    
  2. B.0.15 m
  3. C.0.30 m       
  4. D.0.6 m
Q 4 :
Two sources are said to be coherent if they produce waves
  1. A.having a constant phase difference
  2. B.of equal wavelength
  3. C.of equal speed
  4. D.having same shape of wavefront
Q 5 :
Three resistors 1 Ω, 2 Ω, 3Ω resistor a 3 V battery is connected. The current through 3 Ω resistor is -
  1. A.0.75 A     
  2. B.1 A
  3. C.2 A         
  4. D.1.5 A
Q 6 :
Temperature can be expressed as derived quantity in terms of
  1. A.length and mass
  2. B.mass and time
  3. C.length, mass and time
  4. D.None of these
Q 7 :
Electron volt is a unit of
  1. A.potential difference
  2. B.charge
  3. C.energy
  4. D.capacity
Q 8 :
Dimensions of impulse are
  1. A.[MLT –1]
  2. B.[MLT²]
  3. C.[MT–2]
  4. D.[ML–1T–3]
Q 9 :
Potential is measured in
  1. A.joule/coulomb
  2. B.watt/coulomb
  3. C.newton–second
  4. D.None of these
Q 10 :
One Nanometer is equal to
  1. A.10–9m
  2. B.10–6m
  3. C.10–10m
  4. D.10–3m
Q 11 :
Maxwell is the unit of
  1. A.magnetic susceptibility
  2. B.intensity of Magnetisation
  3. C.magnetic Flux
  4. D.magnetic Permeability
Q 12 :
Which of the following is derived physical quantity ?
  1. A.Mass
  2. B.Velocity
  3. C.Length
  4. D.Time
Q 13 :
What are the units of magnetic permeability ?
  1. A.Wb A–1 m–1
  2. B.Wb–1 Am
  3. C.Wb A m–1
  4. D.Wb A–1 m
Q 14 :
The dimensions of pressure gradient are
  1. A.[ML–2 T–2]
  2. B.[ML–2 T–1]
  3. C.[ML–1 T–1]
  4. D.[ML–1 T–2]
Q 15 :
The dimensions of Rydberg's constant are
  1. A.[M0L–1T]
  2. B.[MLT–1]
  3. C.[M0 L–1T0]
  4. D.[ML0 T2]

Chemistry

Q 16 :
10-6 M NaOH is diluted 100 times. The pH of the diluted base is
  1. A.between 7 and 8
  2. B.between 5 and 6
  3. C.between 6 and 7
  4. D.between 10 and 11
Q 17 :
In the electrolysis of acidulated water, it is desired to obtain 1.12 cc of hydrogen per second under STP condition. The current to be passed is
  1. A.1.93 A         
  2. B.9.65 A
  3. C.19.3 A        
  4. D.0.965 A
Q 18 :
The one which decreases with dilution is
  1. A.molar conductance
  2. B.conductance
  3. C.specific conductance
  4. D.equivalent conductance
Q 19 :
Vapour pressure of pure ‘A’ is 70 mm of Hg at 25oC. It forms an ideal solution with ‘B’ in which mole fraction of A is 0.8. if the vapour pressure of the solution is 84 mm of Hg at 25oC, the vapour pressure of pure ‘B’ at 25oC is
  1. A.28 mm   
  2. B.56 mm
  3. C.70 mm    
  4. D.140 mm
Q 20 :
A 6% solution of urea is isotonic with
  1. A.1 M solution of glucose
  2. B.0.05 M solution of glucose
  3. C.6% solution of glucose
  4. D.25% solution of glucose
Q 21 :
Which of the following is not a synthetic fibre:
  1. A.Anygora
  2. B.Rayon
  3. C.Nylon
  4. D.Polyster
Q 22 :
Which one of the following is not contained in Portland cement ?
  1. A.Ca3Al2O6
  2. B.Ca3SiO5
  3. C.Ca2Si­O4
  4. D.Ca3(PO4)2
Q 23 :
What is the reson for white cement to be white ?
  1. A.It does not contain carbon
  2. B.It does not contain silicon
  3. C.It does not contain iron
  4. D.It does not contain calcium
Q 24 :
Which fertilizer is assimilated directly by the plant ?
  1. A.Super phosphate
  2. B.Nitrolim
  3. C.Muriate of Potash
  4. D.Humus
Q 25 :
Which of the following chemicals is used in foam fire extinguishers ?
  1. A.Aluminium sulphate
  2. B.Copper sulphate
  3. C.Cobalt sulphate
  4. D.Nickel sulphate 
Q 26 :
What is a mixture of potassium nitrate, powdered charcoal and sulphur called ?
  1. A.Glass
  2. B.Cement
  3. C.paint
  4. D.Gun powder
Q 27 :
Which one of the following chemicals is used in beauty parlours for hair – setting ?
  1. A.Sulphur based
  2. B.Phosphorus based
  3. C.Silicon based
  4. D.Iron based 
Q 28 :
Which one of the following is used as a mordant in dyeing and tanning industry ?
  1. A.Magnesium oxide
  2. B.Magnesium carbonate
  3. C.Magnesium chloride
  4. D.Magnesium sulphate
Q 29 :
Which one of the following substances is used in the manufacture of safety matches ?
  1. A.Red phosphorus
  2. B.White phosphorus
  3. C.Phosphorus trioxide (P2O3)
  4. D.Black phosphorus
Q 30 :
Which one of the following polymeric materials is used for making bullet proof jacket ?
  1. A.Nylon –6, 6
  2. B.Rayon
  3. C.Kevlar
  4. D.Dacron

Mathematics

Q 31 :
The elements of the set {x : x is an integer, x2 : 4} can be represent as .....Z..... . Here, Z refers to
  1. A.{–2, 2} 
  2. B.{–1, 0, 1}
  3. C.{–2, –1, 0, 1, 2}
  4. D.{0, 1, 2}
Q 32 :
  1. D.None of these
Q 33 :
If Y = {x : x is a positive factor of the number 2p – 1(2p – 1), where 2p – 1 is a prime number}, then Y can be represent in roster form as
  1. A.{2}
  2. B.{1, 2}  
  3. C.{1, 2, 22, ....., 2p – 1}
  4. D.{1, 2, 22, 23,.... 2p – 1, (2p – 1)}
Q 34 :
The set {x : x is a positive integer less than 6 and 3x – 1 is an even number} in roster form is
  1. A.{1, 2, 3, 4, 5}
  2. B.{1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6}  
  3. C.{2, 4, 6}
  4. D.{1, 3, 5}
Q 35 :
If A B and A B, then
  1. A.A is called a proper subset of B
  2. B.A is called a super set of B
  3. C.A is not a subset of B 
  4. D.B is a subset of A
Q 36 :
The number of non-empty subsets of the set{1, 2, 3, 4} is
  1. A.15
  2. B.14
  3. C.16
  4. D.17
Q 37 :
The number of elements of the power set of a set containing m elements is
  1. A.2m – 1
  2. B.m 
  3. C.m2
  4. D.2m
Q 38 :
If A = {x : x = n2, n = 1, 2, 3}, then number of proper subsets is
  1. A.3
  2. B.8
  3. C.7
  4. D.None of these
Q 39 :
If A = {x : x = 4n + 1, 2 £ n £ 5},then number of subsets of A is
  1. A.16
  2. B.15  
  3. C.4 
  4. D.None of these 
Q 40 :
Let A and B be two non-empty subsets of a set X such that A is not a subset of B, then
  1. A.A is always a subset of the complement of B
  2. B.B is always a subset of A  
  3. C.A and B are always disjoint
  4. D.A and the complement of B are always non-disjoint  
Q 41 :
Which of the following is/are empty set? 
A = {x : x2 + x + 1 = 0 and x Î Z}   B = {x : x is a prime number and 19 < x < 23}
  1. A.A
  2. B.B  
  3. C.Both A and B
  4. D.None of the above 
Q 42 :
The set {x : x4 = 1 and x R} is .....X.... set. Here, X refers to
  1. A.empty
  2. B.finite
  3. C.infinite
  4. D.singleton 
Q 43 :
The universal set for the sets   
A = {x : x2 – 5x + 6 = 0} and   
B = {x : x2 – 3x + 2 = 0} having least number of elements is
  1. A.{1, 2}
  2. B.{1, 3}
  3. C.{1, 2, 3}
  4. D.{0, 1, 2, 3}
Q 44 :
If A = {1, 2, 3}, B = {x € R : x2 – 2x + 1 = 0}, 
C = {1, 2, 2, 3} and 
D = {x € R : x3 – 6x2 + 11x – 6 = 0}, then the equal sets are
  1. A.A and B
  2. B.A and C  
  3. C.A, B and C 
  4. D.A, C and D
Q 45 :
If A = (–3, 5) and  B = [–7, 9], then
  1. A.A = B
  2. B.A B 
  3. C.B A
  4. D.None of these 
Q 46 :
Two finite sets have m and n elements, respectively. The total number of subsets of first set is 56 more than the total number of subsets of the second set. The value of m and n respectively are
  1. A.7, 6
  2. B.5, 1
  3. C.6, 3
  4. D.8, 7
Q 47 :
Combine terms: 12a + 26b  - 4b – 16a .
  1. A.4a + 22b
  2. B.-28a + 30b
  3. C.-4a + 22b
  4. D.28a + 30b
Q 48 :
The average of first 50 natural numbers is ………… .
  1. A.25.30
  2. B.25.5
  3. C.25.00
  4. D.12.25
Q 49 :
60 Times of 8 Equals to
  1. A.480
  2. B.300
  3. C.250
  4. D.400
Q 50 :
Consider the sets
A = {x : x is a real number and x2 + 1 = 0}
B = {x : x is a real number and x2 – 16 = 0}
C = {x : x is a real number and x2 = x + 2}
Which of the following is are null set ?
  1. A.A
  2. B.A and B
  3. C.A and C
  4. D.A, B and C

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