As the boat ……………….all those on board fortunately managed to reach the bank of the river………………with the help of the life boats.
 

Every six months, the swans would leave a golden feather as a           for using the lake. The soldiers of the kingdom in which the lake was, would collect the feathers and deposit them in the royal treasury.

Direction :  Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The error, if any, will be in one part of the sentence. The number of that part is the answer. If there is no error, the answer (5) i.e., 'No Error’. (Ignore errors of punctuations, if any).

Direction : Question below, four words printed in bold type are given. These are numbered (1), (2), (3) and (4). One of these words printed in bold might either be wrongly spelt or inappropriate in the context of the sentence. Find out the word that is inappropriate or wrongly spelt, if any. The number of the word is your answer. If the words printed in bold are correctly spelt and appropriate in the context of the sentence then mark (5) i.e., 'All correct' as your answer.

Direction : Question below, four words printed in bold type are given. These are numbered (1), (2), (3) and (4). One of these words printed in bold might either be wrongly spelt or inappropriate in the context of the sentence. Find out the word that is inappropriate or wrongly spelt, if any. The number of the word is your answer. If the words printed in bold are correctly spelt and appropriate in the context of the sentence then mark (5) i.e., 'All correct' as your answer.

Direction :  Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The error, if any, will be in one part of the sentence. The number of that part is the answer. If there is no error, the answer (5) i.e., 'No Error’. (Ignore errors of punctuations, if any).

Direction :  Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The error, if any, will be in one part of the sentence. The number of that part is the answer. If there is no error, the answer (5) i.e., 'No Error’. (Ignore errors of punctuations, if any).

Direction : question below, four words printed in bold type are given. These are numbered (1), (2), (3) and (4). One of these words printed in bold might either be wrongly spelt or inappropriate in the context of the sentence. Find out the word that is inappropriate or wrongly spelt, if any. The number of the word is your answer. If the words printed in bold are correctly spelt and appropriate in the context of the sentence then mark (5) i.e., 'All correct' as your answer.

Direction : question below, four words printed in bold type are given. These are numbered (1), (2), (3) and (4). One of these words printed in bold might either be wrongly spelt or inappropriate in the context of the sentence. Find out the word that is inappropriate or wrongly spelt, if any. The number of the word is your answer. If the words printed in bold are correctly spelt and appropriate in the context of the sentence then mark (5) i.e., 'All correct' as your answer.

Direction :  Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The error, if any, will be in one part of the sentence. The number of that part is the answer. If there is no error, the answer (5) i.e., 'No Error’. (Ignore errors of punctuations, if any).

Direction :  Read each sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The error, if any, will be in one part of the sentence. The number of that part is the answer. If there is no error, the answer (5) i.e., 'No Error’. (Ignore errors of punctuations, if any).

Veteran

Direction :  Read each sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The error, if any, will be in one part of the sentence. The number of that part is the answer. If there is no error, the answer is (5) i.e., No Error. (Ignore errors of punctuations, if any)

Direction : In each question below, four words printed in bold type are given in each sentence. These are numbered (1), (2), (3) and (4). One of these words printed in bold, might either be wrongly spelt or inappropriate in the context of the sentence. Find out the word that is inappropriate or wrongly spelt, if any. The number of the word is your answer. If the words printed in bold are correctly spelt and appropriate in the context of the sentence then mark (5) i.e., 'All correct' as your answer.

Direction : In each question below, four words printed in bold type are given in each sentence. These are numbered (1), (2), (3) and (4). One of these words printed in bold, might either be wrongly spelt or inappropriate in the context of the sentence. Find out the word that is inappropriate or wrongly spelt, if any. The number of the word is your answer. If the words printed in bold are correctly spelt and appropriate in the context of the sentence then mark (5) i.e., 'All correct' as your answer.

Direction :  Read each sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The error, if any, will be in one part of the sentence. The number of that part is the answer. If there is no error, the answer is (5) i.e., No Error. (Ignore errors of punctuations, if any)

Direction :  Read each sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The error, if any, will be in one part of the sentence. The number of that part is the answer. If there is no error, the answer is (5) i.e., No Error. (Ignore errors of punctuations, if any)

Direction : In each question below, four words printed in bold type are given in each sentence. These are numbered (1), (2), (3) and (4). One of these words printed in bold, might either be wrongly spelt or inappropriate in the context of the sentence. Find out the word that is inappropriate or wrongly spelt, if any. The number of the word is your answer. If the words printed in bold are correctly spelt and appropriate in the context of the sentence then mark (5) i.e., 'All correct' as your answer.

Direction : In each question below, four words printed in bold type are given in each sentence. These are numbered (1), (2), (3) and (4). One of these words printed in bold, might either be wrongly spelt or inappropriate in the context of the sentence. Find out the word that is inappropriate or wrongly spelt, if any. The number of the word is your answer. If the words printed in bold are correctly spelt and appropriate in the context of the sentence then mark (5) i.e., 'All correct' as your answer.

Direction :  Read each sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The error, if any, will be in one part of the sentence. The number of that part is the answer. If there is no error, the answer is (5) i.e., No Error. (Ignore errors of punctuations, if any)

Direction :  Read each sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The error, if any, will be in one part of the sentence. The number of that part is the answer. If there is no error, the answer is (5) i.e., No Error. (Ignore errors of punctuations, if any)

Direction : In each question below, four words printed in bold type are given in each sentence. These are numbered (1), (2), (3) and (4). One of these words printed in bold, might either be wrongly spelt or inappropriate in the context of the sentence. Find out the word that is inappropriate or wrongly spelt, if any. The number of the word is your answer. If the words printed in bold are correctly spelt and appropriate in the context of the sentence then mark (5) i.e., 'All correct' as your answer.

Rajeev was upset because he………forgotten his best friend's birthday.

Raj was…introvert and would prefer to sit in the library rather than go out with friends.

Shanku was born………. a silver spoon in his mouth and was very proud of his wealth.

Laxmi lost an important file and rather than confessing her………….she blamed Sandra for losing it.

Jacob was a rich old man who lived……alone in a huge house because his children did not care about him.

These are numbered as (1), (2), (3) and (4). One of these four words printed in bold ma) be either wrongly spelt or inappropriate in the context of the sentence. Find out the word, which u wrongly spelt or inappropriate, if any. The number of that word is your answer. If all the words printed ir bold are correctly spelt and also appropriate in the context of the sentence, mark (5) i.e. ‘All Correct’ cu your answer.

The error, if any, willbe in one part of the sentence. The number of that part is the answer. If there is no error, the answer is (5). (Ignore errors of punctuation, if any).

These are numbered as (1), (2), (3) and (4). One of these four words printed in bold ma) be either wrongly spelt or inappropriate in the context of the sentence. Find out the word, which u wrongly spelt or inappropriate, if any. The number of that word is your answer. If all the words printed ir bold are correctly spelt and also appropriate in the context of the sentence, mark (5) i.e. ‘All Correct’ cu your answer.

Read the sentence to find out whether there is any error in it. The error, if any, willbe in one part of the sentence. The number of that part is the answer. If there is no error, the answer is (5). (Ignore errors of punctuation, if any).

The error, if any, willbe in one part of the sentence. The number of that part is the answer. If there is no error, the answer is (5). (Ignore errors of punctuation, if any).

Direction :  Read each sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error or idiomatic error in it The error, if any, will be in one part of the sentence the number of that part is the answer. If there is ‘No Error’ the answer is (5). (Ignore errors of punctuation if any).

Direction :  Read each sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error or idiomatic error in it The error, if any, will be in one part of the sentence the number of that part is the answer. If there is ‘No Error’ the answer is (5). (Ignore errors of punctuation if any).

Direction :  Read each sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error or idiomatic error in it The error, if any, will be in one part of the sentence the number of that part is the answer. If there is ‘No Error’ the answer is (5). (Ignore errors of punctuation if any).

Direction :  Read each sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error or idiomatic error in it The error, if any, will be in one part of the sentence the number of that part is the answer. If there is ‘No Error’ the answer is (5). (Ignore errors of punctuation if any).

Direction :  Read each sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error or idiomatic error in it The error, if any, will be in one part of the sentence the number of that part is the answer. If there is ‘No Error’ the answer is (5). (Ignore errors of punctuation if any).

The error, if any, willbe in one part of the sentence. The number of that part is the answer. If there is no error, the answer is (5). (Ignore errors of punctuation, if any).

These are numbered as (1), (2), (3) and (4). One of these four words printed in bold ma) be either wrongly spelt or inappropriate in the context of the sentence. Find out the word, which u wrongly spelt or inappropriate, if any. The number of that word is your answer. If all the words printed ir bold are correctly spelt and also appropriate in the context of the sentence, mark (5) i.e. ‘All Correct’ cu your answer.

These are numbered as (1), (2), (3) and (4). One of these four words printed in bold ma) be either wrongly spelt or inappropriate in the context of the sentence. Find out the word, which u wrongly spelt or inappropriate, if any. The number of that word is your answer. If all the words printed ir bold are correctly spelt and also appropriate in the context of the sentence, mark (5) i.e. ‘All Correct’ cu your answer.

After carefully………the situation, the farmer sympathized………..the mule.

  

The Oak tree always/thought that/ he was strong/ than the other trees.
 

Once there lived a cunning fox who always……… to…………others with his awful acts.
     

We asked her that how she got time to write all these books.

Which of the following should be FIFTH sentence after the rearrangement?
     

One night, friddle the fox was/ prowling around/ an actor's house when he/ found an open window.
 

The opponents of Rama used which of the following a; an opportunity to poison the king’s mind against him?
 

Once there was a lake which was          to many golden swans. 

Which of the following sentence should be the THIRD after rearrangement?

Organizations should implement some  practices that the army follows……..younger staff with important conclusions.

For a slider crank mechanism, the velocity and acceleration of the piston at inner dead centre will be : Where ‘  ÏŽ ‘ is angular velocity of the crank and ‘r’ its radius .

----------------------------------------------
Activity      Duration
----------------------------------------------
1-2                 3
2-3                 2
4-3                 3
1-4                 3
2-5                 2
3-5                 2
4-5                 4
-----------------------------------------------
A project has following activities and durations. Then critical path is

A simple mechanism has :

Oldham’s coupling is inversion of -

CNC machine interpolator controls

In arc welding process heat input per unit length is inversely proportional to

Mohr’s circle may be used to determine following stress on a inclined plane

In a pipe with constant flow rate, if diameter of pipe is halved and length of pipe is doubled, then the head loss due to friction will be increased by what amount of initial value?

Principle mechanism of material removal in ECM?

Which of the following is not the unit of distance ?

At x = 0, the function f (x) = |x| will be

The unit of work is  :

In a pipe with constant flow rate, if diameter of pipe is halved and length of pipe is doubled, then the head loss due to friction will be increased by what amount of initial value?

Ratio of solidification time f a cylindrical casting (height = radius) to the cubic casting of side two times the height of cylindrical casting is __________
 

Closely same meaning to word Awkward

An orthogonal turning operation is carried out under the following conditions: rake angle = 5^o, spindle  rotational speed  = 400rpm, axial feed = 0.4 m/min and radial depth of cut = 5 mm. The chip thickness tc i9s found to be 3 mm. The shear angle (in degree) in this turning process is __________

Packing factor for BCC structure is (numerical type) ____________

In insulated turbine, expansion takes place isentropically from State 1 and 20% of mass bleed at 20 kPa and remaining expanded to State 3, 9 kPa. At  state 1, m = 100 kg/s h1 = 3486 kJ/kg State 2, steam is dry saturated with h2 = 2776 kJ/kg and State 3, P = 9 kPa, hf, hg, sf, sg, then total work output of turbine (in MW) is _________

A venturimeter is attached to pipe of 80 mm diameter has throat of 40 mm diameter. It is found that pressure in the pipe and at throat is 400 kPa and 130 kPa, respectively. Velocity of the flow in the pipe (in m/s) is _________

A column of length 1 m is hinged at both ends has cross-section (10x20)mm2. Young’s modulus of  elasticity is 200GPa. The maximum permissible axial compressive load can apply (in N) is ___________

In a spring mass system, the mass is m and spring constant is k. The critical damping coefficient of the system is 0.1 kg/s. In another spring mass system, the mass is 2m and the spring constant is 8k. The critical damping coefficient of the system (in kg/s) is  __________

Annual demand of a product is 50000 and ordering  cost is Rs. 7000 per order and EOQ is 10000 units. At  optimum annual inventory, total yearly holding cost is _________Rs. 

Which one of the following configurations has thehighest fin effectiveness?

The maximum force F in kN that can be applied at C such that the axial stress in any of the truss member does not exceed 100 MPa is

Specific enthalpy and velocity of steam at inlet and exit of a steam turbine, running under steady state, are as given below. 

Steam Condition	Specific Enthalpy (kJ/kg)	Velocity (m/s)
Intel steam condition	3250	180
Exit steam condition	2360	5

The rate of heat loss from the turbine per kg of steam flow rate is 5 kW. Neglecting changes in potential energy of steam, the power developed in kW by the steam turbine per kg of steam flow rate, is

Which of the following options is the closest in meaning to the phrase underlined in the sentence below? It is fascinating to see life forms cope with varied environment conditions.

Determine the correctness or otherwise of the following Assertion and the Reason,Assertion fast decoupled load flow method gives approximate load flow solution because it uses several assumptions Reason Accuracy depends on the power mismatch vector tolerance.

The operational amplifier shown in the figure has a finite gain A = 1000 and an infinite at time t = 0 as shown. Assuming that the operational amplifier is not saturated the time constant (in ms) of the output voltage V₀ is

An 8-bit unipolar successive Approximational register type analog to digital converter is used to convert 3.5 V to digital equivalent output. The reference voltage is +5 V. the output of the analog to digital converter at the end of 3^rd clock pulse after the start of conversion is

Which one of the following combination is incorrect?                                                                                      

Of  the four characteristics given below, what are the major requirements for an instrumentation amplifier?
I. high common mode rejection ratio
II. high input impedance
III. high linearity
IV. high output impedance                    

Consider a discrete time signal given by X[n] = (-0.25)ⁿu[n] + (0.5)ⁿu [-n-1] The region of convergence of its Z-transform would be

The primary mmf is least affected by the secondary terminal conditions in a                                                                                                                    

In a synchronous machine, hunting is predominantly damped by                                                                     

x (t)  is non-zero only for T_x < t < T'_x and similarly,y(t)  is non-zero only for T_y < t< T'_y . Let z(t) be convolution of x(t) and y(t) . Which one of the following statements is true?

For a periodic square wave, which one of the following statements is true?

In a press meet on the recent scam the minister said, “The buck here”. What did the minister convey by the statement?

A two bus power system shown in the figure supplies load of 1.0+j0.5 pu

The value of V₁ in pu and  d₂ respectively are

A two bus power system shown in the figure supplies load of 1.0+j0.5 pu

The value of V₁ in pu and  d₂ respectively are

The primary mmf is least affected by the secondary terminal conditions in a

A 3-phase, 50 Hz, six pole induction motor has a rotor resistance of 0.1 Ω and reactance of 0.92 Ω. Neglect the voltage drop in stator and assume that the rotor resistance is constant. Given that the full load slip is 3%, the ratio of maximum torque to full load torque is

Consider a HVDC link which uses thyristor based line-commutated converters as shown in the figure. For a power flow of 750MW from system 1 to system 2, the voltage at the two ends are given by V₁ = 500 kV and V₂ = 485 kV and the current, I = 1.5 kA. If the direction of power flow is to be reversed (that is from system 2 to system 1) without changing the electrical connections, then which one of the following combinations is feasible?

The self inductance of the primary winding of a single phase 50 Hz, transformer is 800 mH, and that of the secondary winding is 600 mH. The mutual inductance between these two windings is 480 mH. The secondary winding of this transformer is short circuited and the primary winding is connected to a 50 Hz single phase, sinusoidal voltage source. The current flowing in both the windings is less than their respective rated currents. The resistance of both windings can be neglected. In this condition, what is the effective inductance (in mH) seen by the source?                        

The core loss of a single phase, 230/115 V, 50 Hz power transformer is measured from 230 V side by feeding the primary (230 V side) from a variable voltage variable frequency source while keeping the secondary open circuited.The core loss is measured to be 1050 W for 230 V, 50 Hz input. The core loss is again measured to be 500 W for 138 V, 30 Hz input. The hysteresis and eddy current losses of the transformer for 230 V, 50 Hz input are respectively.

Of  the four characteristics given below, what are the major requirements for an instrumentation amplifier?
I. high common mode rejection ratio
II. high input impedance
III. high linearity
IV. high output impedance

The self inductance of the primary winding of a single phase 50 Hz, transformer is 800 mH, and that of the secondary winding is 600 mH. The mutual inductance between these two windings is 480 mH. The secondary winding of this transformer is short circuited and the primary winding is connected to a 50 Hz single phase, sinusoidal voltage source. The current flowing in both the windings is less than their respective rated currents. The resistance of both windings can be neglected. In this condition, what is the effective inductance (in mH) seen by the source?

A cascade of three identical module-5 counters has an overall modulus of

In an oscilloscope screen, linear sweep is applied at the

The impedance looking into nodes 1 and 2 in the given circuit is

In the formation of Routh-Hurtwiz array for a polynominal, all the elements of a row have zero values. This premature termination of the array indicates the presence of

Let the signal f(t) = 0 outside the interval T₁, T₂, where T₁ and T₂ are finite. Furthermore |f(t)| < ∞ The region of convergence (RoC) of the signal’s bilateral Laplace transform F(s) is
1. A parallel strip containing the j axis
2. A parallel strip not containing the j∩ axis
3. The entire s-plane
4. A half plane containing the j axis

A unity negative feedback system has an open- loop transfer function . The gain K for the system to have a damping ratio of 0.25 is _______.

A mod-n counter using a synchronous binary up-counter with synchronous clear input is shown in the figure. The value of n is ______.

By performing cascading and/or summing differencing operations using transfer function blocks G₁(s) and G₂(s), one CANNOT realize a transfer function of the form

The electric field of a uniform plane electromagnetic wave is

The polarization of the wave is

A piece of silicon is doped uniformly with phosphorous with a doping concentration of 10¹⁶/cm³. The expected value of mobility versus doping concentration for silicon assuming full dopant ionization is shown below. The charge of an electron is 1.6 × 10^–19C. The conductivity (in S cm^–1) of the silicon sample at 300 K is ________.

In the figure shown, the output Y is required to be . The gates G₁ and G₂ must be, respectively,

In the bistable circuit shown, the ideal opamp has saturation level of ± 5V. The value of RL (in k) that gives a hysteresis width of 500 mV is _______
.

Two causal discrete-time signal x[n] and y [n] are related as  It the z-transform of y[n] is , the value of x[2] is _______.

The bilateral Laplace transform of a function

The 2-port admittance matrix of the circuit shown is given by

The value of x for which all the eigen-values of the matrix given below are real is

The signal  is ideally sampled at a sampling frequency of 15 Hz. The sampled signal is passed through a filter with impulse response  . The filter output is

A sinusoidal signal of amplitude A is quantized by a uniform quantizer Assume that the signal utilizes all the representation levels of the quantizer. If the signal to quantization noise ratio is 31.8 dB, the number of levels in the quantizer is ________.

The magnitude and phase of the complex Fourier series coefficients a_k of a periodic signal x(t) are shown in the figure. Choose the correct statement form the four choices given. Notation : C is the set of complex numbers, R is the set of purely real numbers, and P is the set purely imaginary numbers.

The general solution of the differential equation  is

An n-type silicon sample is uniformly illuminated with light which generates 10²⁰ electron hole pairs per cm³ per second. The minority carrier lifetime in the sample is 1ms. Int eh steady state, the hole concentration in the sample is approximately 10^x, where x is an integer. The value of x is _______.

In a source free region in vacuum, if the electrostatic potential , the value of constant c must be _______.

In an 8085 microprocessor, which one of the following instructions changes the content of the accumulator?

If the circuit shown has to function as a clamping circuit, which one of the following conditions should be satisfied for sinusoidal signal of period T?

In the circuit shown the average value of the voltage V_ab (in Volts) in steady state condition is _________.

The voltage (V_C) across the capacitor (in Volts) in the network shown is

For the signal flow graph snown in the figure, the value  is

Let . If (fz₁) = f(z₂) for all z₁ ≠ z₂, a = 2, b = 4 and c = 5, then d should be equal to ________.

In the circuit shown, V₀ = V0A for switch SW in position A and V₀ = V_0B SW in position B. Assume that the opamp is ideal. The value of 

The spot speeds (expressed in km/hr) observed at a road section are 66,62,45,79,32,51,56,60 53,and40. The median speed (expressed in km /hr )is ___________
(Note : answer with one decimal accuracy )

The optimum value of the function
F(x)=² – 4 + 2 is 

The kinematic indeterminacy of the place truss shown in the figure is 

An elastic isotropic body is in a hydrostatic state of stress as shown in the figure. For on change in the volume to occur, what should be its Poisson’s ratio ?


                                      

A motorist traveling at 100 km/h on a highway needs to take the next exit, which had a speed limit of 50 km/h. The section of the roadway before the ramp entry has a downgrade of 3% and coefficient of friction (f) is 0.35 . In order to enter the ramp at the maximum allowable speed limit the braking distance (expressed in m ) from the exit ramp is ___________

The critical flow rations for a three-phase signal are found to be 0.30, 0.25 and 0.25. The total time lost in the cycle is 10s. Pedestrian crossings at this junction are not significant .The respective Green times (expressed in seconds and rounded off to the neatest integer) for the three phases are

As per IS 456 -2000 for the design of reinforced concrete beam, the maximum allowable shear stress (j_cmax) depends on the

A water supply board is responsible for treating 1500m³/day of water. A settling column analysis indicates that an overflow rate of 20m/day will produce satisfactory removal for a depth of 3.1 m . It is decided to have two circular settling tanks in parallel . The required diameter (expressed in m) of the settling tanks is ___________.

As per  Indian standards for bricks , minimum acceptable compressive strength of any class of burnt  clay bricks in dry state is

A strip footing  is resting on the surface of a purely clayey soil deposit , if the width of he footing is doubled , the ultimate beating capacity of the soil

The relationship between the specific gravity of sand (G) and the hydraulic gradients (i) to initiate quick condition in the sand layer having porosity of 30% is.

The results of a consolidation test on an undisturbed soil , sampled at a depth of 10m below the ground level are as follows :
Saturated unit weight : 16 kN/m³
Pre –conslidation pressure : 90 kPa
The ware table was encountered at the ground level. Assuming the unit weight of water as 10kN/m³ , the over –consolidation ratio of the soil is

A sample of water has been analyzed for common ions and results are presented in the form of a bar diagram ad shown

           
The non-carbonate hardness (expressed in mg/L as Ca₃) of the sample is 
 

Water table fo an aquifer drops by 100 cm over an area of 1000 Km²  The porosity and specific retention of the aquifer material are 25% and 5% respectively. The amount of water (expressed in Km² ) drained out from the area is _________

A tracer takes 100 days to travel from well -1 to Well -2 which are 100m apart. The elevation of water surface I Well -2 is 3m below that in Well-1. Assuming porosity equal to 15% the coefficient of permeability (expressed in m/day) is

The atmospheric layer closest to the earth surface is

A water supply board is responsible for treating 1500m³/day of water. A settling column analysis indicates that an overflow rate of 20m/day will produce satisfactory removal for a depth o 3.1 m . It is decided to have two circular settling tanks in parallel . The required diameter (expressed in m) of the settling tanks is ___________.

The hardness of a ground  water sample was found to be 420 mg/L as CaCO_{3 .}A softener containing ion exchange resins was installed to reduce the total hardness to 75 mg/L as CaCO ₃  before supplying to 4 households Each household gets treated water at a rate of 540 L/day. If the efficiency of the softener is 100% ,the bypass flow rate (expressed in L/day )is___________

The sound pressure (expressed in µPa) of the faintest sound that a normal healthy individual can hear is

In the context of the IRC 58 -2011 guidelines for rigid pavement design, consider the following pair of statements .
I . Radius of relative stiffness is directly related to modulus of elasticity of concrete and inversely related to Poisson’s ratio
II . Radius of relative stiffness is directly related to thickness of slab and modulus of sugared raction.
Which one of the following combination s is correct ?

If the total number of commercial vehicles per day ranges from 3000 to 6000 ,the minimum percentage of commercial traffic to be surveyed for axle load is

Optimal flight planning  for a photogrammetric survey should be carried out considering

The reduced bearing of a 10m long line is N30⁰ E .The departure of the line is

A circular curve of radius R connects two straights with a deflection 60⁰  .The tangent length is

Consider the following linear system
X+2y-3z=a
2x+3y+3z=b
5x+9y-6z=c
This system is consistent if a, b, and c satisfy the equation