Question for MCGM Sub Engineer 2026 - Quiz / Questions / MCQ

Objective Questions

Latest MCGM Sub Engineer Exam Question (Objective Questions), MCQ in English

Subjects : Logical Reasoning, General Awareness, General Knowledge, Civil

Question Bank MCGM Sub Engineer Exam (Civil) - English

Logical Reasoning

Question 1Single Answer

How many such pairs of letters are there in the word ‘CLEANLINESS’ each of the which has as many letters between them in the word as they have in the English alphabet, in the same sequence?

A
Two
B
Three
C
Five
D
Four
E
None of these

Question 2Single Answer

Team A has scored more goals than Team B
Team C has scored fewer goals than Team B
Team A has scored fewer goals than Team C .
If the first two statements are true, the third statement is

A
True
B
False
C
Uncertain
D
None

Question 3Single Answer

If it is possible to make only one meaningful word with the second, the third, the sixth and the eight letters of the word FRAGMENT using each only once, which of the following will be the third letter of that word ? If no such word can be formed, give ‘X’ as the answer and if more than one such word can be formed, give ‘Y’ as the answer.

Question 4Single Answer

How many such letters are there in the word ORIENTAL each of which is as far away from the beginning of the word as when they are arranged alphabetically?

A
None
B
One
C
Two
D
Three
E
More than three

Question 5Single Answer

How many such pairs of letters in the word CREDIT each of which has as many letters between them in the word as in the English alphabet?

A
None
B
One
C
Two
D
Three
E
More than three

Question 6Single Answer

How many meaningful words can be made from the letters ‘LMEA’ using each letter only once in each word?

A
None
B
One
C
Two
D
Three
E
More than three

Question 7Single Answer

If it is possible to make only one meaningful word with the first, the second, the seventh and the eighth letters of the word TEMPORAL, which of the following will be the first letter of that word? If more than one such word can be made, give ‘Y’ as the answer and if no such word can be made, give ‘X’ as the answer.

Question 8Single Answer

If the letters of the word HANDOVER are arranged alphabetically from left to right how many letters will remain at the same position?

A
None
B
One
C
Two
D
Three
E
More than three

Question 9Single Answer

How many such pairs of letters are there in the word EXCURSION, each of which has as many letters between them in the word as they have in the English alphabet?

A
None
B
One
C
Two
D
Three
E
More than three

Question 10Single Answer

If it is possible to make only one meaningful word with the first, the second, the third, the sixth and the eighth letters of the word DEVIATION first letter of that word is your answer? If more than one such word can be made formed your answer is ‘A’ and if no such word can be formed your answer is ‘B’.

Question 11Single Answer

Passage :

A B C D E F G H I J K L M N O P Q R S T U V W X Y Z .

Which letter in this alphabet is the eighth letter to the right of the letter and which is tenth letter to the left of the last but one letter of the alphabet ?

Question 12Single Answer

Passage :

Direction : The following question is based on the five words given below:
AND FOR THE BIG SUM (The new words formed after performing the mentioned operations may or may not necessarily the meaningful English words.)

If the third alphabet of each of the words is changed to the next alphabet in the English alphabetical series, which of the following will form a meaningful English word?

A
SUM
B
BIG
C
Both BIG and THE
D
FOR
E
Both FOR and BIG

Question 13Single Answer

Passage :

Direction : The following question is based on the five words given below:
AND FOR THE BIG SUM (The new words formed after performing the mentioned operations may or may not necessarily the meaningful English words.)

If the given words are arranged in the order as they would appear in a dictionary from left to right, which of the following will be second from the right ?

A
AND
B
FOR
C
THE
D
BIG
E
SUM

Question 14Single Answer

Passage :

Direction: The following question is based on the five words given below:
AND FOR THE BIG SUM (The new words formed after performing the mentioned operations may or may not necessarily the meaningful English words.)

If second alphabet in each of the words is changed to next alphabet in the English alphabetical order, how many words having two vowels (same or different vowels) will be formed ?

A
None
B
One
C
Two
D
Three
E
Four

Question 15Single Answer

Passage :

How many letters are there in the English alphabetical series between the second letter of the word which is second from the right and the second letter of the word which is second from the left of the given words?

A
Two
B
Five
C
Six
D
Nine
E
Three

Question 16Single Answer

Passage :

Direction: The following question is based on the five words given below:
AND FOR THE BIG SUM (The new words formed after performing the mentioned operations may or may not necessarily the meaningful English words.)

If in each of the given words, each of the consonant is changed to previous letter and each vowel is changed to next letter in the English alphabetical series, in how many words thus formed will no vowels appear?

A
None
B
One
C
Two
D
Three
E
More than three

Question 17Single Answer

Passage :

Direction : Following question is based on five words given below:
BRU LEGINKCATOWN
(The new words formed after performing the mentioned operations may or may not necessarily be meaningful English words)

If the third alphabet in each of the words is changed to the next alphabet in the English alphabetical order, how many words having two vowels (same or different vowels) will be formed?

A
None
B
One
C
Two
D
Three
E
Four

Question 18Single Answer

Passage :

If the position of the first and the second alphabets of each of the words are interchanged, which of the following will form a meaningful English word?

A
Both CAT and OWN
B
Both BRU and INK
C
Only CAT
D
Only INK
E
Only LEG

Question 19Single Answer

Passage :

Direction: Following question is based on five words given below:
BRU LEGINKCATOWN
(The new words formed after performing the mentioned operations may or may not necessarily be meaningful English words)

If the given words are arranged in the order as they would appear in a dictionary from left to right, which of the following will be exactly in the middle of the five words?

A
OWN
B
LEG
C
BRU
D
CAT
E
INK

Question 20Single Answer

Passage :

Direction: Following question is based on five words given below:
BRU LEGINKCATOWN
(The new words formed after performing the mentioned operations may or may not necessarily be meaningful English words)

If in each of the given words, each of the consonants is changed to previous letter and each vowel is changed to next letter in the English alphabetical series, in how many words thus formed will the same alphabet appear twice?

A
None
B
One
C
Two
D
Three
E
More than three

General Knowledge

Question 21Single Answer

Yojna a weekly journal

A
Ministry of Finance
B
Ministry of Information and Broadcastin
C
Ministry of Rural Development
D
Planning Commission

Question 22Single Answer

Kurukshetra a journal on rural development is published by

A
Ministry of Finance
B
Ministry of Information and Broadcastin
C
Ministry of Rural Development
D
Planning Commission

Question 23Single Answer

Devaluation of a currency means

A
Fixing the value of the currency in conjuction with the movement in the value of a basket of predetermined currencies
B
Reduction in the value of a currency vis-à-vis major internationally traded currencies
C
Fixing the value of currency in multilateral consultaion with the IMF the World Bank and major trading partners
D
Permitting the currency to seek its worth in the international market

Question 24Single Answer

In India rural incomes are generally lower than the urban incomes, which of the following reasons account for this
1. a large number of farmers are illiterate and know little about scientific agriculture
2. prices of primary products are lower than those of manufactured products
3. Investments in agriculture has been low when compared to investment in industry

A
1 and 3
B
2 and 3
C
1 and 2
D
1,2 and 3

Question 25Single Answer

Which of the following programmes aims at the promotion of savings among rural women

A
Rashtriya Mahila Kosh
B
Indira Mahila Yojna
C
Jawahar Rozgar Yojna
D
Mahila Samridhi Yojna

Question 26Single Answer

What is Net National Product

A
the money value of final goods and services produced annually in the economy
B
the money value of annual service generation in the economy
C
the money value of tangible goods produced annually in the economy
D
The money value of tangible goods available in the economy

Question 27Single Answer

National income is the

A
net national product at market price
B
net national product at factor cost
C
net domestic product at market price
D
net domestic product at factor cost

Question 28Single Answer

Chelliah Committee of 1992 deals with the overhauling of our

A
financial system
B
tax system
C
patents and copyrights
D
Public sector undertakings

Question 29Single Answer

During which Five Year Plan was the annual growth rate of National Income the lowest

A
2^nd plan
B
3^rd plan
C
5^th plan
D
6^th plan

Question 30Single Answer

Which of the following taxes is a progressive tax

A
sales tax
B
custom tax
C
excise tax
D
income tax

General Awareness

Question 31Single Answer

Which city hosted the launch of Capital Radio in 1973?

A
Manchester
B
London
C
Birmingham
D
Glasgow

Question 32Single Answer

The brand "Flora," introduced in 1964, is associated with which product?

A
Cheese
B
Margarine
C
Yogurt
D
Bread

Question 33Single Answer

Which Caribbean country, where French is widely spoken, is considered the home of voodoo?

A
Jamaica
B
Haiti
C
Martinique
D
Guadeloupe

Question 34Single Answer

In the 1984 film "The Bounty," which character was portrayed by Anthony Hopkins?

A
Fletcher Christian
B
William Bligh
C
James Cook
D
Edward Edwards

Question 35Single Answer

Pre-eclampsia is a medical condition that typically develops after how many weeks of pregnancy?

A
12 weeks
B
20 weeks
C
28 weeks
D
36 weeks

Question 36Single Answer

Which future Labor prime minister served as mayor of Stepney in 1919?

A
Harold Wilson
B
Clement Attlee
C
James Callaghan
D
Ramsay MacDonald

Question 37Single Answer

Which acid reacts with sodium hydroxide to produce salt and water?

A
Sulfuric acid
B
Nitric acid
C
Hydrochloric acid
D
Acetic acid

Question 38Single Answer

Emma Watson is the ambassador for which Italian fashion house's perfume "Paradoxes’"?

A
Gucci
B
Prada
C
Versace
D
Dolce & Gabbana

Question 39Single Answer

"Best Worst Thing That Ever Could Have Happened" is a 2016 documentary about which Stephen Sondheim musical that was initially unsuccessful?

A
Into the Woods
B
Merrily We Roll Along
C
Company
D
Follies

Question 40Single Answer

Which country is the host of the biennial multinational air exercise INIOCHOS?

A
France
B
Greece
C
Australia
D
India

Civil

Question 41Single Answer

What will be the depth of penetration of the plunger in Vicat Apparatus (IS : 5513 - 1976) from the bottom of the Vicat Mould, when the cement paste is tested for standard consistency, according to IS 4031 – 1988 ?

A
11 to 15 mm
B
8 to 10 mm
C
15 to 17 mm
D
5 to 7 mm

Question 42Single Answer

Two sewer pipelines A and B (having the same diameter and made of the same material) are laid at a bed slope of 1 in 225 and 1 in 625, respectively. Determine the ratio of their carrying capacities (Q_A to Q_B) .

Question 43Single Answer

Select the correct statement with respect to an over - reinforced cement concrete section under the working stress method .

A
The compressive stress in steel reaches the allowable limit before the maximum tensile stress in concrete reaches the allowable limit
B
Tensile steel stress and maximum compressive stress in concrete simultaneously reach their allowable limits
C
The allowable limiting stress is reached in concrete before the steel stress reaches the limiting value
D
The tensile stress in steel reaches the allowable limit before the maximum compressive stress in concrete reaches the allowable limit

Question 44Single Answer

A cantilever beam of span L is built - in at the support. It is restrained against lateral deflection and torsion at the free end. The effective length of compression flange for the beam as per IS 800 : 2007 is

A
0.5 L
B
0.85 L
C
2 L
D
0.75 L

Question 45Single Answer

What is the principle of plane surveying ?

A
Working from part to whole
B
Working from point to area
C
Working from angle to volume
D
Working from whole to part

Question 46Single Answer

According is IS 5968 : 1987, the minimum radius of radius of curve to be provided in the alignment of unlined canals carrying a discharge of less than 30 cumecs up to 15 cumecs is :

A
100 m
B
1000 m
C
600 m
D
150 m

Question 47Single Answer

A Pelton wheel is to be designed for a pitch diameter of 1 m and jet diameter of 0.1 m. The number of buckets on the runner computed by Taygun’s formula is :

A
20
B
25
C
15
D
10

Question 48Single Answer

What is the effect of fly ash in concrete ?

A
Reduces the secondary hydration process
B
Increases the heat of hydration
C
Increases the amount of air entrainment
D
Reduces the heat of hydration

Question 49Single Answer

As per IS 456 : 2000, the minimum grade of concrete to be used for plain concrete and reinforced concrete, respectively, in concrete works exposed directly along the sea coast are :

A
M 20 and M 30
B
M 20 and M 25
C
M 22 and M 40
D
M 15 and M 25

Question 50Single Answer

Identify the property that changes as a function of the geometrical dimensions of a section in structural materials :

A
Mass density
B
Moment of inertia
C
Poission’s ratio
D
Modulus of elasticity

Important Questions Package

MCGM Sub Engineer Exam Online Question Bank Package

Buy MCGM Sub Engineer Important Questions, MCQ, question answer in Hindi & English. It will help you to score high marks in MCGM Sub Engineer question bank 2026 in Online, PDF & Print study material.

+ Free Monthly Current Affairs, GK & more PDF Download

Sr.	Package Name	Amount
1.	MCGM Sub Engineer Exam (Civil) - Hindi Description : 1000 Question with Answer	₹101 ~~[₹500]~~
2.	MCGM Sub Engineer Exam (Civil) - Hindi Description : 2000 Question with Answer	₹151 ~~[₹500]~~
3.	MCGM Sub Engineer Exam (Civil) - English Description : 1000 Question with Answer	₹101 ~~[₹500]~~
4.	MCGM Sub Engineer Exam (Civil) - English Description : 2000 Question with Answer	₹151 ~~[₹500]~~
5.	MCGM Sub Engineer Exam (Civil) - Hindi Description : 1000 Question & Answer Download in PDF (Send by Email)	₹151 ~~[₹450]~~
6.	MCGM Sub Engineer Exam (Civil) - English Description : 1000 Question & Answer Download in PDF (Send by Email)	₹151 ~~[₹450]~~
7.	MCGM Sub Engineer Exam (Civil) Question Bank Book - Hindi Description : 1000 Question with Answer (Printed Material)	₹450 ~~[₹800]~~
8.	MCGM Sub Engineer Exam (Civil) Question Bank Book - English Description : 1000 Question with Answer (Printed Material)	₹390 ~~[₹600]~~

Civil

Question 51Single Answer

As per IRC (Indian Roads Congress) recommendation, what will be the designed stopping sight distance (in metres) at the vehicle speed of 80 km/h on a rural highway ?

A
120
B
140
C
70
D
60

Question 52Single Answer

No deduction is made in the quantity estimation for plastering work in cement mortar for openings having size up to :

A
0.5 m²
B
1.0 m²
C
3 m²
D
0.75 m²

Question 53Single Answer

What is the height of slump cone mould used for testing the workability of the concrete ?

A
20 cm
B
10 cm
C
30 cm
D
25 cm

Question 54Single Answer

Select the correct option with regard in the following statements (S1, S2) pertaining to pavements .
S1 : Present serviceability index is used for the functional evaluation of pavement surface condition
S2 : Rigid pavements are less affected by temperature variations than flexible pavements

A
Statements S1 is true and Statement S2 is false
B
Both statements S1 and S2 are false
C
Statements S1 is false and Statement S2 is true
D
Both statements S1 and S2 are true

Question 55Single Answer

If the quadrantal bearing of a line AB is S 31'35' E, then its whole circle bearing is equal in :

A
121^o25'
B
148^o25'
C
58^o25'
D
211^o25'

Question 56Single Answer

The overflowing sheet of water on a weir is called :

A
creek
B
crest
C
limp
D
nappe

Question 57Single Answer

According to IS 456 - 2000, what is the slump of a medium degree of workability of concrete if planed in heavily reinforced sections like slabs, beams, walls, columns ?

A
10 - 25 mm
B
25 - 50 mm
C
0 - 10 mm
D
50 - 100 mm

Question 58Single Answer

Which of the following is Kharif season in India ?

A
March / April to June / July
B
December / January to April / May
C
May / June to October / November
D
October / November to April / May

Question 59Single Answer

The estimated value of a built - up property at the end of its useful life without dismantled is called :

A
market value
B
book value
C
scrap value
D
salvage value

Question 60Single Answer

The amount of cement required for 100 m²area, of damp proof course with 2.5 cm thinkness, in with proportion of 1: 2 : 4 (cement : sand : aggregate) will be :

A
2.5 m²
B
0.55 m²
C
1.10 m²
D
0.25 m²

Question 61Single Answer

Select the correct statement related to increasing the carbon content in steel from 0.2 to 0.9 percent .

A
Increasing the carbon content in steel decreases the yield stress and increases the ductility
B
Increasing the carbon content in steel increases the yield stress and reduces the ductility
C
Increasing the carbon content in steel decreases the yield stress and does not affect the ductility
D
Increasing the carbon content in steel does not have any effect on the yield stress or ductility

Question 62Single Answer

Which of the following laws states that pressure or intensity of pressure at a point is static fluid is equal in all directions ?

A
Newton's law
B
Pascal's law
C
Darcy's law
D
Hydrostatic law

Question 63Single Answer

The determination of plasticity index and the percentage by weight of clay mineral finer than 2 µ present in the soil were done for two soil samples A and B. The ratio of plasticity index to the percentage of clay size particle for the samples A and B are given in the table .
Soil sample Ratio of plasticity index to percentage of clay size particle
Sample A Less than 0.75
Sample B Greater than 1.25 The two soil sample A and B are classified as

A
Sample A : Inactive; Sample B : Active
B
Sample A : Active; Sample B : Normal
C
Sample A : Active; Sample B : Inactive
D
Sample A : Normal ; Sample B : Inactive

Question 64Single Answer

Which of the following compounds of cement is responsible for early strength ?

A
C₄AF
B
C₃S
C
C₃A
D
C₂A

Question 65Single Answer

According to SP : 27 - 1984, the thickness of slab or RC slab shall be measured to the nearest of :

A
0.0002 m
B
0.005 m
C
0.0001 m
D
0.01 m

Question 66Single Answer

Classify the following pollutants as primary pollutants (PP) and secondary pollutants (SP). Ozone, Carbon monoxide, Particulate matter, photochemical smog, Nitrogen oxides, Aerosol/mist, Hydrocarbons, Perory - Acetyl - Nitrate, Sulphur dioxide.

A
PP : Ozone, Photochemical smog, Aerosol/mist, Peroxy – Acetyl - Nitrate
SP : Carbon monoxide, Particulate matter, Nitrogen oxides, Hydrocarbons, Sulphur dioxide
B
SP : Carbon monoxide, Particulate matter, Aerosol/mist, Peroxy - Acetyl - Nitrate
SP : Nitrogen oxides, Hydrocarbons, Sulphur dioxide, Ozone, Photochemical smog
C
PP : Carbon monoxide, Particulate matter, Hydrocarbons, Sulphur dioxide
SP : Ozone, Photochemical smog, Aerosol/mist, Peroxy - Acetyl - Nitrate
D
PP : Ozone, Photochemical smog, Carbon monoxide, Particulate matter, Nitrogen oxides
SP : Aerosol/mist, Peroxy - Acetyl - Nitrate, Hydrocarbons, Sulphur dioxide

Question 67Single Answer

Saturated unit weight of soil is the ratio of :

A
bulk unit weight of a soil when it is fully saturated
B
saturated bulk unit weight to total void
C
total void to saturated bulk unit weight
D
total void to saturated bulk unit weight

Question 68Single Answer

Identify the test to be conducted for the determination of the modulus of subgrade reaction in pavement design .

A
Plate bearing test
B
Triaxial test
C
CBR test
D
Direct shear test

Question 69Single Answer

In limit state design, the design bond stress for deformed bars (conforming to IS 1786) for M20 concrete mentioned in IS 456 : 2000 is (in N/mm² units) :

A
1.2
B
1.8
C
1.68
D
1.92

Question 70Single Answer

Which of the following can be considered as a taking off point in road planning in India ?

A
Lucknow plan
B
Delhi plan
C
Bombay plan
D
Nagpur plan

Question 71Single Answer

The following two statements pertain to a simply supported under reinforced concrete beam. Select the correct option with regard is these statements .
1. The failure of the beam takes place due to the yielding of steel .
2. The moment of resistance of the beam is more than that of the balanced section of the beam .

A
Statement 1 is true but Statement 2 is false
B
Statement 1 is false but Statement 2 is true
C
Both statement 1 and 2 are true
D
Both statement 1 and 2 are false

Question 72Single Answer

A continuous beam ABC with span AB = BC = L is shown in the figure. Support A is fixed type, and supports B and C are roller type. The kinematic indeterminacy of the beam is :

Question 73Single Answer

The soils transported and deposited by a river or a stream care called :

A
aeolian soils
B
alluvial soils
C
lacustrine soils
D
marine soils

Question 74Single Answer

What is the mechanical extra widening required for a two-lane pavement of width 7 m on a horizontal curve of radius 250 m, if the longest wheel base of a vehicle expected on the road is 5 m with a design speed of 70 km/h ?

A
0.155 m
B
0.225 m
C
0.100 m
D
0.552 m

Question 75Single Answer

The following are some of the errors that area associated with a total station survey work. Vertical collimation error, Centering error, Horizontal collimation error, Eccentricity error Categorize the given errors as those due to temporary adjustments (T) and permanent adjustments (P).

A
T : Vertical collimation error, Horizontal collimation error
P : Centering error, Eccentricity error
B
T : Centering error, Horizontal collimation error, Eccentricity error
P : Vertical collimation error
C
T : Eccentricity error, Horizontal collimation error
P : Centering error, Vertical collimation error, Eccentricity error
D
T : Centering error
P : Vertical collimation error, Horizontal collimation error, Eccentricity error

Question 76Single Answer

According to IS 800 : 2007, identify the property which is considered as a mechanical property of structural steel, important in design .

A
Unit mass
B
Maximum percent elongation on a standard gauge length
C
Co - efficient of thermal expansion
D
Poisson ration

Question 77Single Answer

Which of the following methods is NOT used for measuring air content in fresh concrete ?

A
Blaine air permeability method
B
Gravimetric method
C
Pressure method
D
Volumetric method

Question 78Single Answer

Which of the following methods is NOT used for the calculation of depreciation of a structure ?

A
Straight line method
B
Quantity survey method
C
Geometric projection method
D
Declining balance method

Question 79Single Answer

The failure of an over reinforced concrete beam is due to :

A
compression failure
B
mid failure
C
shear failure
D
tension failure

Question 80Single Answer

In which type of estimate is 'Court yard' NOT considered ?

A
Unit rate estimate
B
Plinth area estimate
C
Lump sum estimate
D
Cub rate estimate

Question 81Single Answer

Match the items in List 1 (name of quantities) with those in List 2 (unit of quantities in the SI system). Use codes in List for matching .
List 1 List 2
M. Dynamic viscosity 1. N/m
N. Kinematic viscosity 2. N.m
O. Surface tension 3. N.s/m²
P. Energy 4. m²/s

A
M-3, N-4, O-2, P-1
B
M-3, N-4, O-1, P-2
C
M-4, N-3, O-1, P-2
D
M-2, N-4, O-1, P-3

Question 82Single Answer

A reinforced concrete beam is subjected to the following bending moments .
Moment due to dead load = 50 kNm
Moment due to live load = 50 kNm
Moment due to seismic load = 20 kNm
The design bending moment for limit state of collapse is :

A
120 kNm
B
180 kNm
C
144 kNm
D
150 kNm

Question 83Single Answer

In a workshop shade, trusses are spaced at 4 m centre to centre. The purlins are spaced at 1.4 m centre to centre along the slope of 30⁰. The (Dead Load + Live load) is 3 kNm² and the wind load in 5 kNm². The vertical and the inclined point loads, respectively, will be :

A
14.54 kN and 28 kN
B
17.8 kN and 48 kN
C
20 kN and 24 kN
D
18 kN and 21 kN

Question 84Single Answer

What will be the percentage of passing aggregate for the grading zone 1 of sieve size 1.18 mm ?

A
100%
B
10% - 20%
C
7% - 25%
D
30% - 70%

Question 85Single Answer

The annual or periodical payment for repayment of the capital amount invested on a property for a specified period is known as :

A
depreciation
B
obsolescence
C
amortization
D
annuity

Question 86Single Answer

Among the following river training works, which are aligned either parallel or at an angle to the banks, identify the one having a difference in alignment when compared to others :

A
Flood walls
B
Guide banks
C
Groynes
D
Levees

Question 87Single Answer

The test commonly to determine the grade of bitumen in terms of its hardness is :

A
the penetration test
B
the ductility test
C
the softening point test
D
the flash and fire point test

Question 88Single Answer

A level section has formation width of 10 m, side slope of 1 : 2 (vertical : horizontal) and central height of 2 m. Determine the quantity of earthwork required for a 1 km length of formation (in m³) .

A
24,000
B
20,000
C
18,000
D
28,000

Question 89Single Answer

Which type of odour characteristic is NOT used for classifying odour of a given water sample as per IS 3025 (part-5) 1983 ?

A
Degree of sweetness
B
Degree of turbidity
C
Degree of pungency
D
Degree of smokiness

Question 90Single Answer

The liquid limit and plastic limit of clay materials is 45% and 25% respectively, what is the activity of clay materials if 20% by weight of particles of size less than 2 microns ?

Question 91Single Answer

Among the following corrections applied for tape measurement, identify the correction which is NOT always negative in sign :

A
Sag
B
Slope of taype
C
Pull
D
Wrong alignment

Question 92Single Answer

A village has a population of 200 with as average rate of water demand as 100 litre per capita per day. A rapid sand filter having an average filtration rate of 100 litre/hour/m² is to be designed for water treatment. The area of rapid sand filter required is : (Take the ratio of maximum demand to average demand as 1.5.)

A
8.00 m²
B
14.50 m²
C
10.00 m²
D
12.50 m²

Question 93Single Answer

If the bearing of the side AB of a regular hexagon traverse ABCDFFA shown in the figure is 36^o45', the bearing of the adjacent side BC of the traverse is :

A
216^o15'
B
96^o45'
C
83^o15'
D
156^o45'

Question 94Single Answer

Pigment volume concentration (PVC) of paint is defined as :

Question 95Single Answer

The Indian Roads Congress (IRC) was founded in the year :

A
1927
B
1934
C
1950
D
1982

Question 96Single Answer

In a leveling survey work, the first staff reading taken in a staff station after shifting the instrument and the last staff reading taken to a staff sation before the instrument in shifted are, respectively :

A
back sight and intermediate sight
B
intermediate sight and back sight
C
back sight and fore sight
D
fore sight and back sight

Question 97Single Answer

Which of the following Indian Standard Codes provides conservatively imposed loads for buildings and structures ?

A
IS 875 (part 4) – 1987
B
IS 875 (part 1) – 1987
C
IS 875 (part 3) – 1987
D
IS 875 (part 2) – 1987

Question 98Single Answer

Activity of soil is ratio of the plasticity index to :

A
percentage of compressive strength
B
percentage by weight of clay fraction
C
liquidity index
D
percentage of sensitivity

Question 99Single Answer

Kor watering in irrigation is defined as :

A
the first watering which is given to seeds sown in the plot for germination
B
the first watering which is given to a crop when the crop is a few centimeters high
C
the first watering which is given to a crop before transplanting
D
the first watering which is given to a plot when the crop is transplanted

Question 100Single Answer

What is a SI unit for dynamic viscosity ?

A
Pascal second
B
Pascal
C
Stoke
D
Newton

Back to Exam

Latest MCGM Sub Engineer Exam Question (Objective Questions), MCQ in English

Logical Reasoning

General Knowledge

General Awareness

Civil

MCGM Sub Engineer Exam Online Question Bank Package

Civil

Quick View