Question for Meghalaya PSC Assistant Engineer 2027 - Quiz / Questions / MCQ

Objective Questions

Latest Meghalaya PSC AE Exam Question (Objective Questions), MCQ in English

Subjects : General Knowledge, General English, Technical Subject (Civil)

Question Bank Meghalaya PSC AE Exam (Civil) - English

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General Knowledge

Question 1Single Answer

Yojna a weekly journal

A
Ministry of Finance
B
Ministry of Information and Broadcastin
C
Ministry of Rural Development
D
Planning Commission

Question 2Single Answer

Kurukshetra a journal on rural development is published by

A
Ministry of Finance
B
Ministry of Information and Broadcastin
C
Ministry of Rural Development
D
Planning Commission

Question 3Single Answer

Devaluation of a currency means

A
Fixing the value of the currency in conjuction with the movement in the value of a basket of predetermined currencies
B
Reduction in the value of a currency vis-à-vis major internationally traded currencies
C
Fixing the value of currency in multilateral consultaion with the IMF the World Bank and major trading partners
D
Permitting the currency to seek its worth in the international market

Question 4Single Answer

In India rural incomes are generally lower than the urban incomes, which of the following reasons account for this
1. a large number of farmers are illiterate and know little about scientific agriculture
2. prices of primary products are lower than those of manufactured products
3. Investments in agriculture has been low when compared to investment in industry

A
1 and 3
B
2 and 3
C
1 and 2
D
1,2 and 3

Question 5Single Answer

Which of the following programmes aims at the promotion of savings among rural women

A
Rashtriya Mahila Kosh
B
Indira Mahila Yojna
C
Jawahar Rozgar Yojna
D
Mahila Samridhi Yojna

Question 6Single Answer

What is Net National Product

A
the money value of final goods and services produced annually in the economy
B
the money value of annual service generation in the economy
C
the money value of tangible goods produced annually in the economy
D
The money value of tangible goods available in the economy

Question 7Single Answer

National income is the

A
net national product at market price
B
net national product at factor cost
C
net domestic product at market price
D
net domestic product at factor cost

Question 8Single Answer

Chelliah Committee of 1992 deals with the overhauling of our

A
financial system
B
tax system
C
patents and copyrights
D
Public sector undertakings

Question 9Single Answer

During which Five Year Plan was the annual growth rate of National Income the lowest

A
2^nd plan
B
3^rd plan
C
5^th plan
D
6^th plan

Question 10Single Answer

Which of the following taxes is a progressive tax

A
sales tax
B
custom tax
C
excise tax
D
income tax

Question 11Single Answer

Which of the following estimates the National Income in India

A
National Income Committee
B
Planning Commission
C
Reserve Bank Of India
D
Central Statistical Organisation

Question 12Single Answer

India changed over to the decimal system, coinage in

A
April 1951
B
April 1955
C
April 1957
D
April 1978

Question 13Single Answer

11^th Five Year Plan aim at achieving 10% rural tele density in India from the present 1.9% by the year

A
2008
B
2009
C
2010
D
2012

Question 14Single Answer

Which one of the following statements Monitorable Socio Economic Target of the 11^th Five Year Plan under the head Environment is not correct

A
treat urban waste water by 2011-12
B
Increase energy efficiency by 20% points by 2016-17
C
attain WHO standards of air quality in all major cities by 2011-12
D
increase forest and tree cover by 15% points

Question 15Single Answer

Total number of Lok Sabha seats in Meghalaya is .

A
Two
B
Five
C
Six
D
None of these

Question 16Single Answer

District headquarters of West Garo Hills is .

A
Ampati
B
Tura
C
Baghmara
D
Jowai

Question 17Single Answer

Which is the Meghalaya state animal ?

A
Blackbuck
B
One-horned rhinoceros
C
Asiatic lion
D
Clouded leopard

Question 18Single Answer

How many Districts are in Meghalaya ?

A
12
B
14
C
16
D
18

Question 19Single Answer

Who was the first chief Minister of Meghalaya ?

A
Darwing Diengdoh Pugh
B
Williamson A. Sangma
C
B. B. Lyngdoh
D
P.A. Sangma

Question 20Single Answer

Sattriya dance form is famous in which of these states ?

A
Assam
B
Himachal Pradesh
C
Punjab
D
Tamil Nadu

Question 21Single Answer

Which of the following statements is true ?
Statement I: Indian techniques such as Rasa and Bhawa in classical dances have their origins in Bharatmuni's Natyashastra.
Statement II: Bharatanatyam has its origin in Odisha.

A
Only Statement II is true
B
Both Statement I and Statement II are true
C
Neither Statement I nor Statement II is true
D
Only Statement I is true

Question 22Single Answer

Padma Bhushan, Guru Vempati Chinna Satyam is renowned for having trained hundreds of students in which of the following dance forms ?

A
Kuchipudi
B
Odissi
C
Bharatnatyam
D
Kathak

Question 23Single Answer

"Who said, 'India was a parrot unto itself'?

A
Malik Muhammad Joyce
B
Raskhan
C
Rich Khusrow
D
Rich Hasan

Question 24Single Answer

What was the real name of Amir Khusro?

A
Muhammad Hasan
B
Muhammad Hussain
C
Muhammad Khusrow
D
Muhammad Mine

Question 25Single Answer

Who is considered the founder of the Sufi movement in India?

A
Qutubuddin Bakhtiar Aunty
B
Nizamuddin Awliya
C
muinuddin Chishti
D
Naseeruddin Mahmud

Question 26Single Answer

Which is the national game of Bhutan ?

A
badminton
B
basketball
C
football
D
archery

Question 27Single Answer

What is the national game of the United States of America ?

A
water polo
B
Rugby
C
Polo
D
baseball

Question 28Single Answer

What is considered the national game of India ?

A
Field hockey
B
cricket
C
Chess
D
Kabaddi

Question 29Single Answer

When was the Constituent Assembly of India formed?

A
1946
B
1947
C
1948
D
1950

Question 30Single Answer

Who was the Chairman of the Drafting Committee of the Indian Constitution?

A
Dr. Rajendra Prasad
B
Dr. B.R. Ambedkar
C
Jawaharlal Nehru
D
Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel

Question 31Single Answer

The idea of the Constituent Assembly was first put forward by:

A
Mahatma Gandhi
B
M.N. Roy
C
Jawaharlal Nehru
D
Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel

Question 32Single Answer

Who is known as the "Father of the Indian Renaissance" ?

A
Raja Ram Mohan Roy
B
Swami Vivekananda
C
Rabindranath Tagore
D
Mahatma Gandhi

Question 33Single Answer

Which classical dance form is associated with Tamil Nadu ?

A
Kathak
B
Kuchipudi
C
Bharatanatyam
D
Odissi

Question 34Single Answer

Which of the following is a famous festival of Kerala ?

A
Pongal
B
Onam
C
Baisakhi
D
Makar Sankranti

Question 35Single Answer

What is the study of ethics primarily concerned with ?

A
Economic behavior
B
Human values and moral principles
C
Physical health
D
Political systems

Question 36Single Answer

Which of the following is a branch of ethics that deals with the philosophical study of morality ?

A
Metaphysics
B
Aesthetics
C
Normative ethics
D
Epistemology

Question 37Single Answer

Which ethical theory focuses on the consequences of actions to determine right from wrong ?

A
Deontology
B
Virtue ethics
C
Utilitarianism
D
Ethical egoism

Question 38Single Answer

Which is the longest river in India?

A
Yamuna
B
Ganges
C
Brahmaputra
D
Godavari

Question 39Single Answer

The Western Ghats are also known as:

A
Sahyadris
B
Vindhyas
C
Satpuras
D
Aravallis

Question 40Single Answer

Which river is known as the ‘Sorrow of Bihar’?

A
Ganges
B
Kosi
C
Son
D
Gandak

Question 41Single Answer

What is the name of the next phase of India’s semiconductor programme notified by the Government in August 2026?

A
Chip India 3.0
B
India Chip Mission
C
Semicon 2.0
D
Semiconductor Bharat

Question 42Single Answer

Which country conferred its highest honour for foreign leaders, the ‘Oliy Darajali Do‘stlik Order’, on Prime Minister Narendra Modi?

A
Kazakhstan
B
Kyrgyzstan
C
Uzbekistan
D
Tajikistan

Question 43Single Answer

Where was the 2026 SCO Leaders’ Summit held?

A
Tashkent
B
Bishkek
C
Dushanbe
D
Astana

Question 44Single Answer

India and Uzbekistan recently upgraded their bilateral relationship to which level?

A
Strategic Partnership
B
Economic Partnership
C
Comprehensive Strategic Partnership
D
Defence Partnership

Question 45Single Answer

Which two organisations signed an MoU to promote smart domestic PNG meters?

A
ONGC and IOCL
B
GAIL and NTPC
C
PNGRB and EESL
D
HPCL and BPCL

Question 46Single Answer

In which state was a National Centre of Excellence for Swimming established by the Sports Authority of India?

A
Kerala
B
Manipur
C
Assam
D
Odisha

Question 47Single Answer

What is the proposed special feature of Bihar’s new Mahila Vishwavidyalaya?

A
Only online education
B
All students and staff will be women
C
Only foreign students
D
It will focus only on engineering

Question 48Single Answer

How many PM Jan Dhan Yojana accounts had been opened as of 28 August 2026?

A
39.09 crore
B
59.09 crore
C
49.09 crore
D
69.09 crore

Question 49Single Answer

How much did India’s coconut product exports rise to in FY 2025–26?

A
₹4,349 crore
B
₹5,038 crore
C
₹7,038 crore
D
₹6,038 crore

Question 50Single Answer

Which company announced an investment of up to ₹18,268 crore in Jio Credit Limited?

A
Bank of America
B
Goldman Sachs
C
HSBC
D
Morgan Stanley

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General English

Question 51Single Answer

I go to Madurai by —– Vaigai Express

A
a
B
an
C
some
D
the

Question 52Single Answer

Have the car stolen!

A
Steal the car
B
You should have the stolen car
C
Get someone to steal the car
D
They have stolen the car

Question 53Single Answer

The payment was collected by the hardworking salesman.

A
The hardworking salesman collected the payment.
B
the salesman who worked heard was able to collect the payment.
C
to collect the payment the salesman had to work hard.
D
The hardworking salesman was able to collect the payment.

Question 54Single Answer

I had to stop all my work to complete this project.

A
All other work had to be stopped to complete this project by me
B
For completing this project all other work must be stopped
C
For completing this project I had to stop all my work
D
To complete this project all other work had been stopped by me

Question 55Single Answer

They have published the names of all the successful candidates.

A
The candidates who have succeeded their names they had published.
B
The names of all the successful candidates have been published by them
C
The candidates who have succeeded their names have been published by them.
D
The names of all the successful candidate were published by them.

Question 56Single Answer

The online shopping site lowered the prices.

A
Lowering of the prices was done by the online shopping site
B
The prices were lowered by the online shopping site
C
The prices had been lowered by the online shopping site
D
The prices have been lowered by the online shopping site

Question 57Single Answer

Who taught you to drive a truck ?

A
To drive a truck by whom were you taught?
B
Driving a truck by who were you taught?
C
Driving a truck by who were you being taught?
D
By whom were you taught to drive a truck?

Question 58Single Answer

We shall invite Suresh.

A
Suresh would be invited by us
B
Suresh would have been invited by us
C
Suresh will be invited by us
D
Suresh will have been invited by us

Question 59Single Answer

Dark clouds have overcast the evening sky.

A
By the dark clouds the evening sky was overcast.
B
The evening sky has been overcast by the dark clouds.
C
Dark clouds overcastted the evening sky.
D
The sky of the evening was overcasted by dark clouds.

Question 60Single Answer

The partners will celebrate their triumph tomorrow.

A
The triumph would be celebrated by the partners a day before
B
The triumph would be celebrated by the partners a day after
C
The triumph would have been celebrated by the partners a day after
D
The triumph will have been celebrated by the partners tomorrow

Question 61Single Answer

Why did break the vase?

A
why is the vase broken by him
B
why was the vase broken by him
C
why had been the vase broken by him
D
why has been the vase broken by him

Question 62Single Answer

Mariam was writing a note to her boss.

A
A note was written to her boss by Mariam
B
A note was wrote by Mariam to her boss
C
A note was being written by Mariam to her boss
D
A note was written by Mariam to her boss

Question 63Single Answer

The baby really enjoys that music.

A
That music was really enjoyed by the baby.
B
That music was really being enjoyed by the baby.
C
That music is really enjoyed by the baby.
D
This music was really enjoyed by the baby.

Question 64Single Answer

The weather disrupted the final match.

A
The final match has been disrupted by the weather.
B
The final match had been disrupted by the weather.
C
The final match was disrupted by the weather.
D
The final match was being disrupted by the weather.

Question 65Single Answer

The management committee is required to publish a report every year.

A
report would be published by the management committee every year.
B
A report would have been published by the management committee every year.
C
A report requires to be published by the management committee every year.
D
Every year the report would be published by the management committee.

Question 66Single Answer

Preeti ran the race in record time.

A
In record time Preeti ran the race.
B
The race was run by Preeti in record time
C
The race was being run by Preeti in record time
D
The race had been run by Preeti in record time

Question 67Single Answer

I shall have written the full thesis by December

A
By December I shall have wrote the full thesis.
B
The full thesis will have been written by me by December.
C
The full Thesis will be wrote by me by December
D
By December the full thesis must have been wrote by me.

Question 68Single Answer

One must keep one’s promises.

A
One’s promises must be kept by one.
B
One’s promises had to be kept.
C
Promises must be kept.
D
Promises have to be kept by one.

Question 69Single Answer

I read the story in one night.

A
The story had been read by me in one night.
B
The story has been read by me in one night
C
n one night the story has been read by me.
D
the story was read by me in one night

Question 70Single Answer

We must take care of the old.

A
Those who are old need to be taken care of by us.
B
The old must be taken care of by us.
C
Those who are old need care by us
D
The old should be taken care of by us.

Question 71Single Answer

Passage :

Direction : Question below has two blanks, each blank indicting that some thing has been omitted. Choose the word for each blank which best fits the meaning of the sentence as a whole.

The Finance Department has ……………a centralized online databank system for all statutory government bodies to …………an eye on their assets and liabilities.

A
presented , stay
B
introduced , keep
C
announce , make
D
created , let
E
proclaimed , hold

Question 72Single Answer

Passage :

Direction : The five items in this section consists of a word or group of words followed by four words as (a), (b), (c) and (d). Select the word which is nearly opposite to the meaning of the original word or group of words and mark your response as (a), (b), (c) and (d), as the case may be, in your Answer Sheet.

Assets

A
liabilities
B
responsibilities
C
estates
D
profits

Question 73Single Answer

Passage :

Direction : In the question, out of the four alternatives, choose the word which is opposite in meaning to the given word and click the button corresponding to it

Affidavit

A
Affirmation
B
Slander
C
Oath
D
Testimony

Question 74Single Answer

Passage :

Direction: In the following question, out of the four alternatives, choose the word which is opposite in meaning to the given word and click the button corresponding to it

Hollow

A
Alveolate
B
Cleft
C
Cavernous
D
Solid

Question 75Single Answer

Passage :

Directions: In the following question, out of the four alternatives, choose the word which is opposite in meaning to the given word and click the button corresponding to it

Cosset

A
Ignoreb
B
Close
C
Caress
D
Fondle

Question 76Single Answer

Passage :

Directions: In the following question, out of the four alternatives, choose the word which is opposite in meaning to the given word and click the button corresponding to it

Ogle

A
Leer
B
Gaze
C
Ignore
D
Gawk

Question 77Single Answer

Passage :

Directions:In the following question, out of the four alternatives, choose the word which is opposite in meaning to the given word and click the button corresponding to it

Intrinsic

A
Elemental
B
Innate
C
Connate
D
Acquired

Question 78Single Answer

Passage :

Direction : In the following question, out of the four alternatives, choose the word which is opposite in meaning to the given word and click the button corresponding to it

Coalesce

A
Separate
B
Adhere
C
Cleave
D
Amalgamate

Question 79Single Answer

Passage :

Directions: In the following question, out of the four alternatives, choose the word which is opposite in meaning to the given word and click the button corresponding to it

Loiter

A
lag
B
Hasten
C
Amble
D
Loii

Question 80Single Answer

Passage :

Direction : Question below has two blanks, blank indicating that something has been omitted. Choose the set of words for blank which best fits the meaning of the sentence as a whole.

The protests were......... at ......... awareness among the elite and the educated.

A
held, generating
B
aimed, creating
C
targeted, awakening
D
focused, building
E
concentrated, producing

Question 81Single Answer

Passage :

Directions:In the following question, out of the four alternatives, choose the word which is opposite in meaning to the given word and click the button corresponding to it

Deep-seated

A
Chronic
B
Temporary
C
inbred
D
Subconscious

Question 82Single Answer

Passage :

Directions: In the following question, out of the four alternatives, choose the word which is opposite in meaning to the given word and click the button corresponding to it

Vibrant

A
Drab
B
Gaudy
C
Jazzy
D
Vivid

Question 83Single Answer

Passage :

Directions: In the following question, out of the four alternatives, choose the word which is opposite in meaning to the given word and click the button corresponding to it

To scowl

A
To glower
B
To smirk
C
To Grimace
D
To grin

Question 84Single Answer

Passage :

In the following questions, one part of the sentence may have an error. Find out which part of the sentence has an error .

I used (A)/ a pair of black trousers (B) / for a week (C)/ No error (D)

Question 85Single Answer

Passage :

Direction: In the following question, out of the four alternatives, choose the word which is opposite in meaning to the given word and click the button corresponding to it

Atheist

A
Skeptic
B
Pagan
C
Disciple
D
Agnostic

Question 86Single Answer

Passage :

Directions: in the following question, out of the four alternatives, choose the word which is opposite in meaning to the given word and click the button corresponding to it

Abdicate

A
Forgo
B
Usurp
C
Waive
D
Cede

Question 87Single Answer

Passage :

Direction: A passage is given with question following it. Read the passage carefully and choose the best answer to question out of the four alternatives and click the button corresponding to it.
Some languages are used by a few people. Others, such a Mandarin Chinese and English, are spoken by millions. Many people speak two or more languages. They may use one language at home with family and friends and other at work or school. Regional variations of language are known as dialects. The Anglo-Saxons, who conquered Britain at the end of the Roman Empire, spoke a Germanic language include Danish, Dutch, German and Swedish. English also contains Drench-derived words after it was ruled by French-speaking king following the Norman Conquest.

Mandarin Chinese is spoken by people.

A
Little
B
Few
C
Many
D
Big

Question 88Single Answer

Passage :

Direction: A passage is given with question following it. Read the passage carefully and choose the best answer to question out of the four alternatives and click the button corresponding to it.
Passage
Some languages are used by a few people. Others, such a Mandarin Chinese and English, are spoken by millions. Many people speak two or more languages. They may use one language at home with family and friends and other at work or school. Regional variations of language are known as dialects. The Anglo-Saxons, who conquered Britain at the end of the Roman Empire, spoke a Germanic language include Danish, Dutch, German and Swedish. English also contains Drench-derived words after it was ruled by French-speaking king following the Norman Conquest.

A person who is good at foreign languages is known as-

A
Virtuoso
B
Linguist
C
Ventriloquist
D
Scholar

Question 89Single Answer

Passage :

Directions:In the following question, out of the four alternatives, choose the word which is opposite in meaning to the given word and click the button corresponding to it

Astringe

A
Liberate
B
Constringe
C
Circumscribe
D
Tauten

Question 90Single Answer

Passage :

Direction: A passage is given with question following it. Read the passage carefully and choose the best answer to question out of the four alternatives and click the button corresponding to it.
Passage
The………of gurudakshina is very ancient and it is ……… to the Indian culture and tradition. If you are absolutely ……… about India, then it’s advisable that you first try to understand the meaning of a guru and the …………. of his presence in you to understand what gurudakshina is in ancient India, a teacher or a guru was a spiritually …………. Guide.

The ………..of gurudakshina is very ancient.

A
habit
B
approach
C
perception
D
concept

Question 91Single Answer

Passage :

Direction: A passage is given with question following it. Read the passage carefully and choose the best answer to each question out of the four alternatives and click the button corresponding to it.
Passage
Some languages are used by a few people. Others, such a Mandarin Chinese and English, are spoken by millions. Many people speak two or more languages. They may use one language at home with family and friends and other at work or school. Regional variations of language are known as dialects. The Anglo-Saxons, who conquered Britain at the end of the Roman Empire, spoke a Germanic language include Danish, Dutch, German and Swedish. English also contains Drench-derived words after it was ruled by French-speaking king following the Norman Conquest.

are regional variations of a language.

A
English
B
Mandarin Chinese
C
Home language
D
Dialects

Question 92Single Answer

Passage :

Direction: A passage is given with question following it. Read the passage carefully and choose the best answer to each question out of the four alternatives and click the button corresponding to it.
Passage
The………of gurudakshina is very ancient and it is ……… to the Indian culture and tradition. If you are absolutely ……… about India, then it’s advisable that you first try to understand the meaning of a guru and the …………. of his presence in you to understand what gurudakshina is in ancient India, a teacher or a guru was a spiritually …………. Guide.

It is ……… to the Indian culture and tradition.

A
unique
B
rare
C
different
D
particular

Question 93Single Answer

Passage :

Direction: A passage is given with question following it. Read the passage carefully and choose the best answer to each question out of the four alternatives and click the button corresponding to it.
Passage
Some languages are used by a few people. Others, such a Mandarin Chinese and English, are spoken by millions. Many people speak two or more languages. They may use one language at home with family and friends and other at work or school. Regional variations of language are known as dialects. The Anglo-Saxons, who conquered Britain at the end of the Roman Empire, spoke a Germanic language include Danish, Dutch, German and Swedish. English also contains Drench-derived words after it was ruled by French-speaking king following the Norman Conquest.

English also included French words the Norman Conquest.

A
After
B
Prior
C
Before
D
During

Question 94Single Answer

Select the wrongly spelt words .

A
career
B
callous
C
calander
D
carriage

Question 95Single Answer

Passage :

Directions:In the following question, out of the four alternatives, choose the word which is opposite in meaning to the given word and click the button corresponding to it

To spurn

A
To Accept
B
To flout
C
To Scorn
D
To rebuff

Question 96Single Answer

Passage :

Direction: A passage is given with question following it. Read the passage carefully and choose the best answer to each question out of the four alternatives and click the button corresponding to it.
Passage
Some languages are used by a few people. Others, such a Mandarin Chinese and English, are spoken by millions. Many people speak two or more languages. They may use one language at home with family and friends and other at work or school. Regional variations of language are known as dialects. The Anglo-Saxons, who conquered Britain at the end of the Roman Empire, spoke a Germanic language include Danish, Dutch, German and Swedish. English also contains Drench-derived words after it was ruled by French-speaking king following the Norman Conquest.

Is part of a Germanic language.

A
Britain
B
Anglo-Saxons
C
English
D
Roman Empire

Question 97Single Answer

Passage :

Direction: A passage is given with question following it. Read the passage carefully and choose the best answer to each question out of the four alternatives and click the button corresponding to it.
Passage
The………of gurudakshina is very ancient and it is ……… to the Indian culture and tradition. If you are absolutely ……… about India, then it’s advisable that you first try to understand the meaning of a guru and the …………. of his presence in you to understand what gurudakshina is in ancient India, a teacher or a guru was a spiritually …………. Guide.

If you are absolutely ……….. about India.

A
unknowing
B
unknowledgeable
C
naive
D
blind to

Question 98Single Answer

Passage :

Direction : In this test paper, Question is given in Direct speech followed by four alternatives in Indirect Speech. Select the one which best expresses the same sentence in Direct speech and mark your answer in answer sheet.

“ Do you know that all your friends have failed to pass the test?” jeered his angry mother.

A
The angry mother jeered and asked her son if he knew that all his friends had failed to pass the tests.
B
His angry mother jeered and asked if he did know that all his friends had failed to pass the test.
C
His angry mother jeered and told if he knew that all his friends had failed to pass
D
His angry mother jeered and asked if he had know that all his friends had failed to pass the test.

Question 99Single Answer

Passage :

Direction: A passage is given with question following it. Read the passage carefully and choose the best answer to each question out of the four alternatives and click the button corresponding to it.
Passage
My worries were increasing. The boy at the shop was becoming more clamorous. My sales were poor, as the railways were admitting more peddlers on the platforms. My cash receipts were going down and my credit sales alone flourished. The wholesale merchants who supplied me with goods stopped credit to me. The boy’s methods of account-keeping was so chaotic that I did not know whether I was moving forward or backward. He produced cash from the counter in a haphazard manner, and there were immense gaps on the shelves all that nothing one wanted was ever available. Suddenly the railways gave me notice to quit. I
pleaded with the old station master and porter, but they could do nothing; the order had come from high up. The shop was given to a new contractor.
I could not contemplate the prospect of being cut off from the railways. I grew respect and angry. I shed tears at seeing a new man in the place where I and my father had sat. I slapped the boy on the cheek and the cried, and his father, the porter, came down on me and said, ‘this is what he gets helping you! I’d always told the boy- He was not your paid servant, anyway.’

Why does the speaker say that his sales were poor?

A
Because his cash receipt were going down
B
Because the boy at the shop was becoming more clamorous
C
Because the railways were admitting more pedlars on the platform
D
Because there were no buyers

Question 100Single Answer

Passage :

Direction : The following question, select the related word/letters/number/figure from the given alternatives.

Soil : Erosion : : Forest : ?

A
Pollution
B
Degradation
C
Dense
D
Deforestation

Technical Subject (Civil)

Question 101Single Answer

A water supply distribution system for an averagely-populated township is to be designed for

A
Maximum daily demand
B
Maximum hourly demand and fire demand
C
Average demand
D
Maximum daily demand and fire demand or maximum hourly demand, whichever is higher

Question 102Single Answer

A combined sewerage system is more appropriate for developed areas where

A
Rainfall occurs for a very few days in a year
B
Rainfall occurs almost uniformly throughout the year
C
Air temperatures are nearly uniform throughout the year
D
Air temperatures through the year include extremes during certain runs of days

Question 103Single Answer

100 m³ of sludge holds a moisture content of 95%. If its moisture content chagnes to 90%, the volume of this sludge will then be

A
40.5m³
B
50m³
C
75m³
D
94.7m³

Question 104Single Answer

The design overflow rate of a sedimentation tank is chosen considering

A
Flow rate through the tank
B
Diameter of the particle intended to be removed
C
Volume of the sedimentation tank
D
Detention time in the tank

Question 105Single Answer

Consider the following statements in respect of flow equalization in a waste water treatment plant :
1. Biological treatment is enhanced because shock loadings are eliminated or minimized
2. Flow equalizations is an attractive option for upgrading the performance of overloaded treatment plants.
3. Inhibiting substances can be diluted and pH can be stabilized
4. Thickening performance of primary sedimentation tanks following grit removal is improved.
Which of the above statements are correct?

A
1, 2, 3 and 4
B
1, 2 and 3 only
C
1, 2 and 4 only
D
3 and 4 only

Question 106Single Answer

A drain carrying 5m³/s of wastewater with its BOD of 100mg/l joins a stream carrying 50 m³/ s flow with its BOD of 5mg/l. What will be the value of the BOD of the combined flow after complete mixing?

A
3.6 mg/l
B
13.6 mg/l
C
33.6 mg/l
D
53.6 mg/l

Question 107Single Answer

Consider the following statements in respect of aerated grit chamber:
1. The grit accumulates at the bottom in advancing spiral-flow aeration tanks, location ally preceded by grit chambers, led to the eventual development of aerated grit chambers.
2. The excessive wear on grit handling equipment is a major factor for the popularity of aerated grit chambers.
3. Aerated grit chambers are designed to provide detention period of 1 minute at maximum rate of flow.
4. Diffusers are located at 0.45 m to 0.6 m above the bottom of teh chamber.
Which of the above statements are correct?

A
1, 2 and 3 only
B
3 and 4 only
C
1, 2 and 4 only
D
1, 2, 3 and 4

Question 108Single Answer

Quick sand condition occurs when

A
the void ratio of the soil becomes 1.0
B
the upward seepage pressure in soil becomes zero
C
the upward seepage pressure in soil becones equal to the saturated unit weight of he soil
D
the upward seepage pressure in soil becomes equal to he submerged unit weight of the soil

Question 109Single Answer

The side of a square land was measured as 150 m and is in error by 0.05 m. What is the corresponding error in the computed area of the land.

A
5 m²
B
25 m²
C
10 m²
D
20 m²

Question 110Single Answer

Consider the following statements in respect of anaerobic sludge digester:
1. It is less expensive compared to several other methods available.
2. Processing of separable solids impacts the environment to a minimum
3. Quantity of separated solids requiring disposal is minimal
4. Digested sludge is very readily dewaterable.
Which of the above statements are correct?

A
1, 2, 3 and 4
B
1, 2 and 3 only
C
3 and 4 only
D
1, 2 and 4 only

Question 111Single Answer

Consider the following statements :
1. There will be no defects in select grade timbers.
2. The codal values for strength of grade-II timer without defects may be reduced by 37.5%.
3. For timber used as columns, the permissible stress in ungraded timbers is adopted with a multiplying factor of 0.50.
4. In case of wind force and earthquakes, a modification factor of 1.33 is adopted. Which of the above statements are correct ?

A
1 and 3 only
B
1 and 4 only
C
2 and 4 only
D
2 and 3 only

Question 112Single Answer

Consider the following statements regarding timber :
1. The strength of timber increases by Kiln seasoning.
2. Cutting of wood is to be done prior to treatment.
3. Water seasoning is good for prevention of warping.
4. ASCU treatment enhances the strength of wood. Which of the above statements are correct ?

A
1, 2 and 3 only
B
2, 3 and 4 only
C
1, 3 and 4 only
D
1, 2, 3 and 4

Question 113Single Answer

Gase(s) emitted during rotting or decomposition of timber is /are mainly

A
Methane and Hydrogen
B
Hydrogen Sulphide
C
Carbonic acid and Hydrogen
D
Ammonia

Question 114Single Answer

Efflorescence of bricks is due to

A
Excessive burning of bricks
B
High silt content in brick clay
C
High porosity of bricks
D
Soluble salts present in parent clay

Question 115Single Answer

Disintegration of bricks masonry walls is primarily due to
1. Efflorescence
2. Magnesium sulphate in brick
3. Calcined clay admixtures
4. Kankar nodules
Which of the a above statements are correct ?

A
1, 2 and 3 only
B
1, 2 and 4 only
C
3 and 4 only
D
1, 2, 3 and 4

Question 116Single Answer

Consider the following test :
1. Transverse strength test
2. Water absorption test
3. Impact test
4. Breaking strength test
Which of the above are relevant to testing of tiles ?

A
1, 2 and 3 only
B
1, 2 and 4 only
C
3 and 4 only
D
1, 2, 3 and 4

Question 117Single Answer

Which of the following statements is/are correct regarding the strength of cement ?
1. Particle sizes less than 3 m increases the viscous nature of the cement.
2. Finer particles in cement can be replaced by fly-ash to improve the strength.

A
1 only
B
2 only
C
Both 1 and 2
D
Neither 1 nor 2

Question 118Single Answer

The constituent compound in Portland cement which reacts immediately with water, and also sets earliest, is

A
Tricalcium silicate
B
Dicalcium silicate
C
Tricalcium aluminate
D
Tetracalcium aluminoferrite

Question 119Single Answer

Which of the following statements are correct with regard to cement mortar ?
1. Workability of cement mortar can be improved by addition of lime.
2. Fly-ash cement is economical in plastering jobs.
3. Addition of saw dust improves workability.
4. Sand in mortar can be replaced by finely crushed fire bricks.

A
1, 2, 3 and 4
B
1, 2 and 3 only
C
3 and 4 only
D
1, 2 and 4 only

Question 120Single Answer

In a concrete mix of proportion 1 : 3 : 6, the actual quantity of sand, which is judged to have undergone 15% bulking, per unit volume of cement, will be

A
3.00
B
3.45
C
4.50
D
6.00

Question 121Single Answer

Consider the following statements:
1. IS 3583 refers to Burnt Clay Paving Bricks.
2. IS 5779 refers to Burnt Clay Soling Bricks.
3. IS 3952 refers to Burnt Clay Hollow Bricks.
4. IS 2222 refers to Burnt Clay Lay Bricks.
Which of the above statements are correct?

A
1, 2 and 3 only
B
1, 2 and 4 only
C
3 and 4 only
D
1, 2, 3 and 4

Question 122Single Answer

Consider the following statements:
1. A high aggregate impact value indicates strong aggregates.
2. A low aggregate crushing value indicates high crushing strength of aggregates.
3. Aggregates having elongation index values greater than 15% are generally considered suitable for pavement construction.
4. Flakiness index of aggregates should not be less than 25% for use in road construction.
Which of the above statements are correct?

A
2 and 3 only
B
2 and 4 only
C
1 and 3 only
D
1 and 4 only

Question 123Single Answer

Consider the following statements regarding refractory bricks in furnaces:
1. The furnace is fired at temperatures more than 1700°C.
2. Silica content in the soil should be less than 40%.
3. Water absorption of bricks should not exceed 10%
4. Chrome bricks are known as basic bricks. Which of the above statements are correct?

A
1 and 2 only
B
2 and 4 only
C
1 and 3 only
D
3 and 4 only

Question 124Single Answer

Consider the following statements about lime:
1. Calcination of limestone results in quick lime.
2. Lime produced from pure variety of chalk is hydraulic lime.
3. Hydrated lime is obtained by treating quick lime with water.
Which of the above statements are correct?

A
1, 2 and 3
B
1 and 2 only
C
2 and 3 only
D
1 and 3 only

Question 125Single Answer

Consider the following statements:
1. If more water is added to concrete for increasing its workability, it results into concrete of low strength.
2. No slump is an indication of a good workable concrete.
3. Higher the slump of concrete, lower will be its workability.
4. Workability of concrete is affected by water content as well as water-cement ratio.
Which of the above statements are correct?

A
1 and 3 only
B
2 and 3 only
C
1 and 4 only
D
2 and 4 only

Question 126Single Answer

Pozzolana used as an admixture in concrete has the following advantages:
1. It improves workability with lesser amount of water.
2. It increases the heat of hydration and so lets the concrete set quickly.
3. It increases the resistance of concrete to attack by salts and sulphates.
4. It leaches out calcium hydroxide.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

A
1, 2 and 3 only
B
1, 2 and 4 only
C
1, 3 and 4 only
D
2, 3 and 4 only

Question 127Single Answer

Consider the following statements regarding Cyclopean Concrete:
1. Size of aggregate is more than 150 mm.
2. Size of aggregate is less than 150 mm.
3. High slump.
4. High temperature rise due to heat of hydration.
Which of the above statements are correct?

A
1 and 3 only
B
1 and 4 only
C
2 and 3 only
D
2 and 4 only

Question 128Single Answer

A chain, working a crane, has sectional area of 625 mm² and transmits a load of 10 kN. When the load is being lowered at a uniform rate of 40 m/min, the chain gets jammed suddenly at which time the length of the chain unwound is 10m. Assuming E = 200 GPa, the stress induced in the chain due to this sudden jamming is

A
100.6 N/mm²
B
120.4 N/mm²
C
140.2 N/mm²
D
160.0 N/mm²

Question 129Single Answer

In mild steel specimens subjected to tensile test cycle, the elastic limit in tension is raised and the elastic limit in compression is lowered, This is called

A
Annealing effect
B
Bauschinger effect
C
Strain rate effect
D
Fatigue effect

Question 130Single Answer

Consider the following statements :
1. The shear stress distribution across the section of a circular shaft subjected to twisting varies parabolically.
2. The shear stress at the centre of a circular shaft under twisting moment is zero
3. The shear stress at the extreme fibres of a circular shaft under twisting moment is maximum.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?

A
1, 2 and 3
B
1 only
C
2 only
D
3 only

Question 131Single Answer

One bag of Portland cement, 50 kg in weight, would normally have a bulk volume of

A
30 l
B
35 l
C
40 l
D
45 l

Question 132Single Answer

AsCu, a preservative for wood, developed by the Forest Research Institute, Dehradun, comprises of chemicals:

A
1 : 1 : 1
B
1 : 2 : 3
C
1 : 2 : 4
D
1 : 3 : 4

Question 133Single Answer

Consider the following statements related to autoclave bricks:
1.Less water absorption compared to other bricks.
2.Noise reduction
3.It is cheap compared to other types of bricks.
4.Requirement of bulk volume of mortar in joints being relatively less compared to other types of brick masonry.
5.Not recommended for outer walls.
Which of the above statements are relevant to the use of ‘autoclave’ bricks?

A
1, 2 and 4
B
1, 3 and 5
C
2, 3 and 4
D
2, 4 and 5

Question 134Single Answer

The minimum number of annular rings to be seen in every 2.54 cm in the radial direction from the core for timber to be classified as ‘Dense’ is

A
10
B
20
C
25
D
30

Question 135Single Answer

If the actual thickness of a brick masonry wall is 19 cm, its effective length is 2.70 m, its effective height is 2.82 m and its code specified stiffening coefficient is 1.2 then, for design considerations, the slenderness ratio of the wall will be taken as

A
11.8
B
12.4
C
14.2
D
14.8

Question 136Single Answer

Consider the following forms of water in a hydrated cement paste:
1.Capillary water
2.Chemically combined water
3.Interlayer water
4.Adsorbed water
Which of the above forms of water will, on its/their removal, cause shrinkage of the paste?

A
1, 2 and 3
B
1, 2 and 4
C
2, 3 and 4
D
1, 3 and 4

Question 137Single Answer

Consider the following statements:High early strength of cement is obtained as a result of
1.Fine grinding.
2.Decreasing the lime content
3.Burning at higher temperature
4.Increasing the quality of gypsum.
Which of the above statements are correct?

A
1 and 2
B
1 and 3
C
2 and 3
D
3 and 4

Question 138Single Answer

Consider the following statements related to ‘composite mortar’:
1.Addition of lime to cement mortar improves its workability
2.Composite mortar is obtained by adding 10% by weight of cement and mixing with water.
3.Composite mortar is not preferred in tall buildings.
4.Mechanical grinding is essential for developing composite mortar.Which of the above statements are true in this case?

A
1, 2 and 3 only
B
1, 3 and 4 only
C
2, 3 and 4 only
D
1, 2, 3 and 4

Question 139Single Answer

Consider the following statements related to ‘non-destructive testing’ of concrete:
1.Indentation test is used to assess the quality of concrete.
2.Resonant Frequency Method is based on a laboratory test.
3.Compressive strength of concrete is estimated through Pulse Velocity Measurement.
4.Dynamic modulus of Elasticity is determined by a Sonometer Test.
5.Thickness of concrete can be estimated by in-situ Rebound Hammer Test.
Which of the above statements are correct?

A
1, 2 and 3 only
B
1, 2 and 5 only
C
1, 2, 3 and 4 only
D
1, 2, 3, 4 and 5

Question 140Single Answer

What is the amount of water required for a workable RC of mix 1 : 2: 4 by weight., when W/C is 0-60 and unit weight of concrete is 2400 kg/m³?

A
165 l
B
205 l
C
245 l
D
285 l

Question 141Single Answer

Which IS code is used for classification of timber for seasoning purposes?

A
IS : 4970-1973
B
IS : 1708-1969
C
IS : 1141-1958
D
IS : 399-1963

Question 142Single Answer

Consider the following with regard to the application of preservation of timber:
1.Increase in the life span of the member
2.Increase in the strength of the timber
3.Removal of moisture
4.Prevention of growth of fungi by killing them
Which of the above are correct?

A
1, 2, 3 and 4
B
2 and 4 only
C
1 and 4 only
D
2 and 3 only

Question 143Single Answer

The plies in plywood are so placed that the grains of each ply are

A
Parallel to each other
B
At right angle to one another
C
45° oblique to adjacent grain
D
Not constrained by any consideration

Question 144Single Answer

Which of the following is an ODD one as regards ‘requirement of good brick-earth’?

A
It must be free from lumps of lime
B
It should not be mixed with salty water
C
It must be non-homogeneous
D
It should not contain vegetable and organic matter

Question 145Single Answer

The compressive strength of heavy-duty bricks, as per IS : 2980-1962, should not be less than

A
440 kg/cm²
B
175 kg/cm²
C
100kg/cm²
D
75kg/cm²

Question 146Single Answer

Consider the following statements:
1.Brickwork will have high water tightness.
2.Brickwork is preferred for monument structures.
3.Bricks resist fire better than stones
4.Bricks of good quality shall have thin mortar bonds.
Which of the above statements are correct?

A
1 and 2
B
3 and 4
C
2 and 3
D
1 and 4

Question 147Single Answer

Consider the following statements:A good soil for making bricks should contain
1.30% alumina
2.10% lime nodules
3.Only small quantity of iron oxides
4.15% magnesia
Which of the above statements are correct?

A
1 and 2 only
B
1 and 3
C
1, 2 and 4
D
2, 3 and 4

Question 148Single Answer

Which compound of cement is responsible for strength of cement?

A
Magnesium oxide
B
Silica
C
Alumina
D
Calcium sulphate

Question 149Single Answer

Which type of cement is recommended in large mass concrete works such as a dam?

A
Ordinary Portland
B
High Alumina
C
Low-heat Portland
D
Portland Cement

Question 150Single Answer

Consider the following statements regarding ‘setting of cement’:
1.Low-heat cement sets faster than OPC.
2.Final setting time decides the strength of cement
3.Initial setting time of Portland Pozzollona is 30 minutes
4.Air-induced setting is observed when stored under damp conditions.
4.Addition of gypsum retards the setting time.
Which of the above statements are correct?

A
1, 2 and 3
B
2, 3 and 4
C
3, 4 and 5
D
2, 3 and 5

Question 151Single Answer

What will be the depth of penetration of the plunger in Vicat Apparatus (IS : 5513 - 1976) from the bottom of the Vicat Mould, when the cement paste is tested for standard consistency, according to IS 4031 – 1988 ?

A
11 to 15 mm
B
8 to 10 mm
C
15 to 17 mm
D
5 to 7 mm

Question 152Single Answer

Two sewer pipelines A and B (having the same diameter and made of the same material) are laid at a bed slope of 1 in 225 and 1 in 625, respectively. Determine the ratio of their carrying capacities (Q_A to Q_B) .

Question 153Single Answer

Select the correct statement with respect to an over - reinforced cement concrete section under the working stress method .

A
The compressive stress in steel reaches the allowable limit before the maximum tensile stress in concrete reaches the allowable limit
B
Tensile steel stress and maximum compressive stress in concrete simultaneously reach their allowable limits
C
The allowable limiting stress is reached in concrete before the steel stress reaches the limiting value
D
The tensile stress in steel reaches the allowable limit before the maximum compressive stress in concrete reaches the allowable limit

Question 154Single Answer

A cantilever beam of span L is built - in at the support. It is restrained against lateral deflection and torsion at the free end. The effective length of compression flange for the beam as per IS 800 : 2007 is

A
0.5 L
B
0.85 L
C
2 L
D
0.75 L

Question 155Single Answer

What is the principle of plane surveying ?

A
Working from part to whole
B
Working from point to area
C
Working from angle to volume
D
Working from whole to part

Question 156Single Answer

According is IS 5968 : 1987, the minimum radius of radius of curve to be provided in the alignment of unlined canals carrying a discharge of less than 30 cumecs up to 15 cumecs is :

A
100 m
B
1000 m
C
600 m
D
150 m

Question 157Single Answer

A Pelton wheel is to be designed for a pitch diameter of 1 m and jet diameter of 0.1 m. The number of buckets on the runner computed by Taygun’s formula is :

A
20
B
25
C
15
D
10

Question 158Single Answer

What is the effect of fly ash in concrete ?

A
Reduces the secondary hydration process
B
Increases the heat of hydration
C
Increases the amount of air entrainment
D
Reduces the heat of hydration

Question 159Single Answer

As per IS 456 : 2000, the minimum grade of concrete to be used for plain concrete and reinforced concrete, respectively, in concrete works exposed directly along the sea coast are :

A
M 20 and M 30
B
M 20 and M 25
C
M 22 and M 40
D
M 15 and M 25

Question 160Single Answer

Identify the property that changes as a function of the geometrical dimensions of a section in structural materials :

A
Mass density
B
Moment of inertia
C
Poission’s ratio
D
Modulus of elasticity

Question 161Single Answer

As per IRC (Indian Roads Congress) recommendation, what will be the designed stopping sight distance (in metres) at the vehicle speed of 80 km/h on a rural highway ?

A
120
B
140
C
70
D
60

Question 162Single Answer

No deduction is made in the quantity estimation for plastering work in cement mortar for openings having size up to :

A
0.5 m²
B
1.0 m²
C
3 m²
D
0.75 m²

Question 163Single Answer

What is the height of slump cone mould used for testing the workability of the concrete ?

A
20 cm
B
10 cm
C
30 cm
D
25 cm

Question 164Single Answer

Select the correct option with regard in the following statements (S1, S2) pertaining to pavements .
S1 : Present serviceability index is used for the functional evaluation of pavement surface condition
S2 : Rigid pavements are less affected by temperature variations than flexible pavements

A
Statements S1 is true and Statement S2 is false
B
Both statements S1 and S2 are false
C
Statements S1 is false and Statement S2 is true
D
Both statements S1 and S2 are true

Question 165Single Answer

If the quadrantal bearing of a line AB is S 31'35' E, then its whole circle bearing is equal in :

A
121^o25'
B
148^o25'
C
58^o25'
D
211^o25'

Question 166Single Answer

The overflowing sheet of water on a weir is called :

A
creek
B
crest
C
limp
D
nappe

Question 167Single Answer

According to IS 456 - 2000, what is the slump of a medium degree of workability of concrete if planed in heavily reinforced sections like slabs, beams, walls, columns ?

A
10 - 25 mm
B
25 - 50 mm
C
0 - 10 mm
D
50 - 100 mm

Question 168Single Answer

Which of the following is Kharif season in India ?

A
March / April to June / July
B
December / January to April / May
C
May / June to October / November
D
October / November to April / May

Question 169Single Answer

The estimated value of a built - up property at the end of its useful life without dismantled is called :

A
market value
B
book value
C
scrap value
D
salvage value

Question 170Single Answer

The amount of cement required for 100 m²area, of damp proof course with 2.5 cm thinkness, in with proportion of 1: 2 : 4 (cement : sand : aggregate) will be :

A
2.5 m²
B
0.55 m²
C
1.10 m²
D
0.25 m²

Question 171Single Answer

Select the correct statement related to increasing the carbon content in steel from 0.2 to 0.9 percent .

A
Increasing the carbon content in steel decreases the yield stress and increases the ductility
B
Increasing the carbon content in steel increases the yield stress and reduces the ductility
C
Increasing the carbon content in steel decreases the yield stress and does not affect the ductility
D
Increasing the carbon content in steel does not have any effect on the yield stress or ductility

Question 172Single Answer

Which of the following laws states that pressure or intensity of pressure at a point is static fluid is equal in all directions ?

A
Newton's law
B
Pascal's law
C
Darcy's law
D
Hydrostatic law

Question 173Single Answer

The determination of plasticity index and the percentage by weight of clay mineral finer than 2 µ present in the soil were done for two soil samples A and B. The ratio of plasticity index to the percentage of clay size particle for the samples A and B are given in the table .
Soil sample Ratio of plasticity index to percentage of clay size particle
Sample A Less than 0.75
Sample B Greater than 1.25 The two soil sample A and B are classified as

A
Sample A : Inactive; Sample B : Active
B
Sample A : Active; Sample B : Normal
C
Sample A : Active; Sample B : Inactive
D
Sample A : Normal ; Sample B : Inactive

Question 174Single Answer

Which of the following compounds of cement is responsible for early strength ?

A
C₄AF
B
C₃S
C
C₃A
D
C₂A

Question 175Single Answer

According to SP : 27 - 1984, the thickness of slab or RC slab shall be measured to the nearest of :

A
0.0002 m
B
0.005 m
C
0.0001 m
D
0.01 m

Question 176Single Answer

Classify the following pollutants as primary pollutants (PP) and secondary pollutants (SP). Ozone, Carbon monoxide, Particulate matter, photochemical smog, Nitrogen oxides, Aerosol/mist, Hydrocarbons, Perory - Acetyl - Nitrate, Sulphur dioxide.

A
PP : Ozone, Photochemical smog, Aerosol/mist, Peroxy – Acetyl - Nitrate
SP : Carbon monoxide, Particulate matter, Nitrogen oxides, Hydrocarbons, Sulphur dioxide
B
SP : Carbon monoxide, Particulate matter, Aerosol/mist, Peroxy - Acetyl - Nitrate
SP : Nitrogen oxides, Hydrocarbons, Sulphur dioxide, Ozone, Photochemical smog
C
PP : Carbon monoxide, Particulate matter, Hydrocarbons, Sulphur dioxide
SP : Ozone, Photochemical smog, Aerosol/mist, Peroxy - Acetyl - Nitrate
D
PP : Ozone, Photochemical smog, Carbon monoxide, Particulate matter, Nitrogen oxides
SP : Aerosol/mist, Peroxy - Acetyl - Nitrate, Hydrocarbons, Sulphur dioxide

Question 177Single Answer

Saturated unit weight of soil is the ratio of :

A
bulk unit weight of a soil when it is fully saturated
B
saturated bulk unit weight to total void
C
total void to saturated bulk unit weight
D
total void to saturated bulk unit weight

Question 178Single Answer

Identify the test to be conducted for the determination of the modulus of subgrade reaction in pavement design .

A
Plate bearing test
B
Triaxial test
C
CBR test
D
Direct shear test

Question 179Single Answer

In limit state design, the design bond stress for deformed bars (conforming to IS 1786) for M20 concrete mentioned in IS 456 : 2000 is (in N/mm² units) :

A
1.2
B
1.8
C
1.68
D
1.92

Question 180Single Answer

Which of the following can be considered as a taking off point in road planning in India ?

A
Lucknow plan
B
Delhi plan
C
Bombay plan
D
Nagpur plan

Question 181Single Answer

The following two statements pertain to a simply supported under reinforced concrete beam. Select the correct option with regard is these statements .
1. The failure of the beam takes place due to the yielding of steel .
2. The moment of resistance of the beam is more than that of the balanced section of the beam .

A
Statement 1 is true but Statement 2 is false
B
Statement 1 is false but Statement 2 is true
C
Both statement 1 and 2 are true
D
Both statement 1 and 2 are false

Question 182Single Answer

A continuous beam ABC with span AB = BC = L is shown in the figure. Support A is fixed type, and supports B and C are roller type. The kinematic indeterminacy of the beam is :

Question 183Single Answer

The soils transported and deposited by a river or a stream care called :

A
aeolian soils
B
alluvial soils
C
lacustrine soils
D
marine soils

Question 184Single Answer

What is the mechanical extra widening required for a two-lane pavement of width 7 m on a horizontal curve of radius 250 m, if the longest wheel base of a vehicle expected on the road is 5 m with a design speed of 70 km/h ?

A
0.155 m
B
0.225 m
C
0.100 m
D
0.552 m

Question 185Single Answer

The following are some of the errors that area associated with a total station survey work. Vertical collimation error, Centering error, Horizontal collimation error, Eccentricity error Categorize the given errors as those due to temporary adjustments (T) and permanent adjustments (P).

A
T : Vertical collimation error, Horizontal collimation error
P : Centering error, Eccentricity error
B
T : Centering error, Horizontal collimation error, Eccentricity error
P : Vertical collimation error
C
T : Eccentricity error, Horizontal collimation error
P : Centering error, Vertical collimation error, Eccentricity error
D
T : Centering error
P : Vertical collimation error, Horizontal collimation error, Eccentricity error

Question 186Single Answer

According to IS 800 : 2007, identify the property which is considered as a mechanical property of structural steel, important in design .

A
Unit mass
B
Maximum percent elongation on a standard gauge length
C
Co - efficient of thermal expansion
D
Poisson ration

Question 187Single Answer

Which of the following methods is NOT used for measuring air content in fresh concrete ?

A
Blaine air permeability method
B
Gravimetric method
C
Pressure method
D
Volumetric method

Question 188Single Answer

Which of the following methods is NOT used for the calculation of depreciation of a structure ?

A
Straight line method
B
Quantity survey method
C
Geometric projection method
D
Declining balance method

Question 189Single Answer

The failure of an over reinforced concrete beam is due to :

A
compression failure
B
mid failure
C
shear failure
D
tension failure

Question 190Single Answer

In which type of estimate is 'Court yard' NOT considered ?

A
Unit rate estimate
B
Plinth area estimate
C
Lump sum estimate
D
Cub rate estimate

Question 191Single Answer

Match the items in List 1 (name of quantities) with those in List 2 (unit of quantities in the SI system). Use codes in List for matching .
List 1 List 2
M. Dynamic viscosity 1. N/m
N. Kinematic viscosity 2. N.m
O. Surface tension 3. N.s/m²
P. Energy 4. m²/s

A
M-3, N-4, O-2, P-1
B
M-3, N-4, O-1, P-2
C
M-4, N-3, O-1, P-2
D
M-2, N-4, O-1, P-3

Question 192Single Answer

A reinforced concrete beam is subjected to the following bending moments .
Moment due to dead load = 50 kNm
Moment due to live load = 50 kNm
Moment due to seismic load = 20 kNm
The design bending moment for limit state of collapse is :

A
120 kNm
B
180 kNm
C
144 kNm
D
150 kNm

Question 193Single Answer

In a workshop shade, trusses are spaced at 4 m centre to centre. The purlins are spaced at 1.4 m centre to centre along the slope of 30⁰. The (Dead Load + Live load) is 3 kNm² and the wind load in 5 kNm². The vertical and the inclined point loads, respectively, will be :

A
14.54 kN and 28 kN
B
17.8 kN and 48 kN
C
20 kN and 24 kN
D
18 kN and 21 kN

Question 194Single Answer

What will be the percentage of passing aggregate for the grading zone 1 of sieve size 1.18 mm ?

A
100%
B
10% - 20%
C
7% - 25%
D
30% - 70%

Question 195Single Answer

The annual or periodical payment for repayment of the capital amount invested on a property for a specified period is known as :

A
depreciation
B
obsolescence
C
amortization
D
annuity

Question 196Single Answer

Among the following river training works, which are aligned either parallel or at an angle to the banks, identify the one having a difference in alignment when compared to others :

A
Flood walls
B
Guide banks
C
Groynes
D
Levees

Question 197Single Answer

The test commonly to determine the grade of bitumen in terms of its hardness is :

A
the penetration test
B
the ductility test
C
the softening point test
D
the flash and fire point test

Question 198Single Answer

A level section has formation width of 10 m, side slope of 1 : 2 (vertical : horizontal) and central height of 2 m. Determine the quantity of earthwork required for a 1 km length of formation (in m³) .

A
24,000
B
20,000
C
18,000
D
28,000

Question 199Single Answer

Which type of odour characteristic is NOT used for classifying odour of a given water sample as per IS 3025 (part-5) 1983 ?

A
Degree of sweetness
B
Degree of turbidity
C
Degree of pungency
D
Degree of smokiness

Question 200Single Answer

The liquid limit and plastic limit of clay materials is 45% and 25% respectively, what is the activity of clay materials if 20% by weight of particles of size less than 2 microns ?

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