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MJP Maharashtra Junior Engineer (Civil) Exam - English

Duration: 120 · Questions: 100 · Max Marks: 100 · Language: 1

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Marathi

1
पुढील शब्दाच्या कोणत्या भागाने "नामपद" शब्द सांगा?
  1. A. प्रयोगपद
  2. B. सर्वनाम
  3. C.  क्रियापद
  4. D. विशेषण
2
"आपल्या शिक्षकाने आमच्या विद्यालयातील पुस्तकांना सुंदर नाम" - या वाक्यात, कोणत्या शब्दाच्या भागाने "नाम" असा अर्थ आहे?
  1. A. सर्वनाम
  2. B. क्रियापद
  3. C. विशेषण
  4. D. नामपद
3
"रामला आपलं पुस्तकाचं अंगूठ नकलायला आहे" - या वाक्यात, कोणत्या शब्दाच्या भागाने "पुस्तकाचं" असा अर्थ आहे ?
  1. A. सर्वनाम
  2. B. क्रियापद
  3. C. विशेषण
  4. D. नामपद
4
"तुम्ही आपल्या मित्राला काय प्रेम करता?" - या वाक्यात, कोणत्या शब्दाच्या भागाने "मित्राला" असा अर्थ आहे ?
  1. A. सर्वनाम
  2. B. क्रियापद
  3. C. विशेषण
  4. D. नामपद
5
"सर्व विद्यार्थ्यांना आवश्यक गोड अभ्यास करावा" - या वाक्यात, कोणत्या शब्दाच्या भागाने "विद्यार्थ्यांना" असा अर्थ आहे ?
  1. A. सर्वनाम
  2. B. क्रियापद
  3. C. विशेषण
  4. D. नामपद
6
"उपास्य देवतांच्या पूजेसाठी फूल घालता येतात" - या वाक्यात, कोणत्या शब्दाच्या भागाने "उपास्य" असा अर्थ आहे ?
  1. A. सर्वनाम
  2. B. क्रियापद
  3. C. विशेषण
  4. D. नामपद
7
"रामाने गुलाब लावलं" - या वाक्यात, कोणत्या शब्दाच्या भागाने "रामाने" असा अर्थ आहे ?
  1. A. सर्वनाम
  2. B. क्रियापद
  3. C. विशेषण
  4. D. नामपद
8
"माझ्या आवडत्या पुस्तकात सर्व वस्तूंची फोटो आहे" - या वाक्यात, कोणत्या शब्दाच्या भागाने "माझ्या" असा अर्थ आहे ?
  1. A. सर्वनाम
  2. B. क्रियापद
  3. C. विशेषण
  4. D. नामपद
9
"हा पुस्तक तुम्हाला किती आवडला?" - या वाक्यात, कोणत्या शब्दाच्या भागाने "तुम्हाला" असा अर्थ आहे ?
  1. A. सर्वनाम
  2. B. क्रियापद
  3. C. विशेषण
  4. D. नामपद
10
"माझ्या आवडत्या फुलाच्या रंगात तुम्ही त्याचा उपयोग कसा करता?" - या वाक्यात, कोणत्या शब्दाच्या भागाने "तुम्ही" असा अर्थ आहे ?
  1. A. सर्वनाम
  2. B. क्रियापद
  3. C. विशेषण
  4. D. नामपद

English

1
I go to Madurai by —– Vaigai Express
  1. A.a
  2. B.an
  3. C.some
  4. D.the
2
Have the car stolen!
  1. A.Steal the car
  2. B.You should have the stolen car
  3. C.Get someone to steal the car
  4. D.They have stolen the car
3
The payment was collected by the hardworking salesman.
  1. A.The hardworking salesman collected the payment.
  2. B.the salesman who worked heard was able to collect the payment.
  3. C.to collect the payment the salesman had to work hard.
  4. D.The hardworking salesman was able to collect the payment.
4
I had to stop all my work to complete this project.
  1. A.All other work had to be stopped to complete this project by me
  2. B.For completing this project all other work must be stopped
  3. C.For completing this project I had to stop all my work
  4. D.To complete this project all other work had been stopped by me
5
The Finance Department has ……………a centralized online databank system for all statutory government bodies to …………an eye on their assets and liabilities.
  1. A. presented , stay
  2. B.introduced , keep
  3. C.announce , make
  4. D.created , let
  5. E.proclaimed , hold
6
Assets
  1. A.liabilities
  2. B.responsibilities
  3. C.estates
  4. D.profits
7
Affidavit
  1. A. Affirmation
  2. B.Slander
  3. C.Oath
  4. D.Testimony
8
Hollow
  1. A.Alveolate
  2. B.Cleft
  3. C. Cavernous
  4. D.Solid
9
Cosset 
  1. A.Ignoreb
  2. B.Close
  3. C.Caress
  4. D.Fondle
10
Ogle
  1. A.Leer
  2. B.Gaze
  3. C.Ignore
  4. D.Gawk

General Knowledge

1
Yojna a weekly journal
  1. A.Ministry of Finance        
  2. B.Ministry of Information and Broadcastin
  3. C.Ministry of Rural Development
  4. D.Planning Commission
2
Kurukshetra a journal on rural development is published by
  1. A.Ministry of Finance 
  2. B.Ministry of Information and Broadcastin
  3. C.Ministry of Rural Development
  4. D.Planning Commission
3
Devaluation of a currency means
  1. A.Fixing the value of the currency in conjuction with the movement in the value of a basket of predetermined currencies
  2. B.Reduction in the value of a currency vis-à-vis major internationally traded currencies
  3. C.Fixing the value of currency in multilateral consultaion with the IMF the World Bank and major trading partners
  4. D.Permitting the currency to seek its worth in the international market
4
In India rural incomes are generally lower than the urban incomes, which of the following reasons account for this
            1. a large number of farmers are illiterate and know little about scientific agriculture
            2. prices of primary products are lower than those of manufactured products
            3. Investments in agriculture has been low when compared to investment in industry
  1. A.1 and 3
  2. B.2 and 3
  3. C.1 and 2
  4. D.1,2 and 3
5
In ruby laser, the stimulated emission is due to transition from
  1. A.metastable state to any lower state
  2. B.any higher state of lower state
  3. C.metastable state to ground state
  4. D.any higher state to ground state
6
10-6 M NaOH is diluted 100 times. The pH of the diluted base is
  1. A.between 7 and 8
  2. B.between 5 and 6
  3. C.between 6 and 7
  4. D.between 10 and 11
7
The respiratory quotient during cellular respiration would depend on
  1. A.the nature of enzymes involved
  2. B.the nature of the substrate
  3. C.the amount of carbon dioxide released
  4. D.the amount of oxygen utilised
8
On which date is Maharashtra Day celebrated ?
  1. A.May 1
  2. B.May 2
  3. C.May 3
  4. D.May 4
9
On which date is Shivaji Maharaj's birth anniversary celebrated ?
  1. A.February 19
  2. B.February 20
  3. C.February 2
  4. D.February 22
10
On which date is Chhatrapati Shivaji Maharaj Jayanti celebrated ?
  1. A.February 19
  2. B.February 20
  3. C.February 21
  4. D.February 22
11

"Who said, 'India was a parrot unto itself'?

  1. A.Malik Muhammad Joyce
  2. B.Raskhan
  3. C.Rich Khusrow
  4. D.Rich Hasan
12
Which is the national game of Bhutan ?
  1. A.badminton
  2. B.basketball
  3. C.football
  4. D.archery
13
What is the lithosphere composed of ?
  1. A.Water and gases
  2. B.Rocks and minerals
  3. C.Living organisms
  4. D.Air and gases
14
What major defence-related development was highlighted on 1 May 2026 involving India and Italy?
  1. A.Joint naval exercise in the Indian Ocean
  2. B.Purchase of Rafale jets
  3. C.Rajnath Singh-Italy Defence Pact
  4. D.Signing of a nuclear agreement
15
Which satellite was launched by ISRO around early May 2026?
  1. A.GSAT-31
  2. B.Chandrayaan-4
  3. C.INSAT-4CR
  4. D.GSAT-32

Intelligence Test

1
How many such pairs of letters are there in the word ‘CLEANLINESS’ each of the which has as many letters between them in the word as they have in the English alphabet, in the same sequence?
  1. A.Two
  2. B.Three
  3. C.Five
  4. D.Four
  5. E.None of these
2
Team A has scored more goals than Team B
Team C has scored fewer goals than Team B
Team A has scored fewer goals than Team C .
If the first two statements are true, the third statement is
  1. A.True
  2. B.False
  3. C.Uncertain
  4. D.None
3
If it is possible to make only one meaningful word with the second, the third, the sixth and the eight letters of the word FRAGMENT using each only once, which of the following will be the third letter of that word ? If no such word can be formed, give ‘X’ as the answer and if more than one such word can be formed, give ‘Y’ as the answer.
  1. A.A
  2. B.E
  3. C.T
  4. D.X
  5. E.Y
4
Which letter in this alphabet is the eighth letter to the right of the letter and which is tenth letter to the left of the last but one letter of the alphabet ?
  1. A.X
  2. B.W
  3. C.I
  4. D.H
5
If the third alphabet of each of the words is changed to the next alphabet in the English alphabetical series, which of the following will form a meaningful English word?
  1. A.SUM
  2. B.BIG
  3. C.Both BIG and THE
  4. D.FOR
  5. E.Both FOR and BIG
6
If the given words are arranged in the order as they would appear in a dictionary from left to right, which of the following will be second from the right ?
  1. A.AND
  2. B.FOR
  3. C.THE
  4. D.BIG
  5. E.SUM
7
If second alphabet in each of the words is changed to next alphabet in the English alphabetical order, how many words having two vowels (same or different vowels) will be formed ?
  1. A.None
  2. B.One
  3. C.Two
  4. D.Three
  5. E.Four
8
How many letters are there in the English alphabetical series between the second letter of the word which is second from the right and the second letter of the word which is second from the left of the given words?
  1. A.Two
  2. B.Five
  3. C.Six
  4. D.Nine
  5. E.Three
9
The cash difference between the selling prices of an article at a profit of 4% and 6% is Rs. 3. The ratio of the two selling prices is:__________ ?
  1. A.51:52
  2. B.52:53
  3. C.51:53
  4. D.52:55
10
Which of the following numbers is irrational ?
  1. A.√49
  2. B.0.125
  3. C.√2
  4. D.22/7
11
356 x 936 – 356 x 836 = ?
  1. A.35600  
  2. B.34500
  3. C.9630
  4. D.93600
12
Arrange in descending order: 5/8, 7/10, 3/4
  1. A.3/4 > 7/10 > 5/8
  2. B.7/10 > 3/4 > 5/8
  3. C.3/4 > 5/8 > 7/10
  4. D.5/8 > 7/10 > 3/4
13
What is (3^{4} times 9^{2}) ?
  1. A.36
  2. B.38
  3. C.310
  4. D.96
     
14
Chemistry but not in Physics.
  1. A.318
  2. B.198
  3. C.213 
  4. D.206
15
Physics or Maths but not in Chemistry.
  1. A.558   
  2. B.718
  3. C.628  
  4. D.None of these

Junior Engineer (Civil)

1
A water supply distribution system for an averagely-populated township is to be designed for
  1. A.Maximum daily demand 
  2. B.Maximum hourly demand and fire demand 
  3. C.Average demand 
  4. D.Maximum daily demand and fire demand or maximum hourly demand, whichever is higher
2
 A combined sewerage system is more appropriate for developed areas where
  1. A.Rainfall occurs for a very few days in a year 
  2. B.Rainfall occurs almost uniformly throughout the year 
  3. C.Air temperatures are nearly uniform throughout the year 
  4. D.Air temperatures through the year include extremes during certain runs of days 
3
100 m3 of sludge holds a moisture content of 95%. If its moisture content chagnes to 90%, the volume of this sludge will then be
  1. A.40.5m3
  2. B.50m3
  3. C.75m3
  4. D.94.7m3
4
The design overflow rate of a sedimentation tank is chosen considering
  1. A.Flow rate through the tank 
  2. B.Diameter of the particle intended to be removed 
  3. C.Volume of the sedimentation tank 
  4. D.Detention time in the tank
5
Consider the following statements in respect of flow equalization in a waste water treatment plant : 
1. Biological treatment is enhanced because shock loadings are eliminated or minimized
2. Flow equalizations is an attractive option for upgrading the performance of overloaded treatment plants.
3. Inhibiting substances can be diluted and pH can be stabilized
4. Thickening performance of primary sedimentation tanks following grit removal is improved.
 Which of the above statements are correct? 
  1. A.1, 2, 3 and 4 
  2. B.1, 2 and 3 only 
  3. C.1, 2 and 4 only 
  4. D.3 and 4 only   
6
Consider the following statements :
1. There will be no defects in select grade timbers.
2. The codal values for strength of grade-II timer without defects may be reduced by 37.5%.
3. For timber used as columns, the permissible stress in ungraded timbers is adopted with a multiplying factor of 0.50.
4. In case of wind force and earthquakes, a modification factor of 1.33 is adopted. Which of the above statements are correct ? 
  1. A.1 and 3 only
  2. B.1 and 4 only
  3. C.2 and 4 only
  4. D.2 and 3 only
7
Consider the following statements regarding timber :
1. The strength of timber increases by Kiln seasoning.
 2. Cutting of wood is to be done prior to treatment.
3. Water seasoning is good for prevention of warping.
4. ASCU treatment enhances the strength of wood. Which of the above statements are correct ?
  1. A.1, 2 and 3 only
  2. B.2, 3 and 4 only
  3. C.1, 3 and 4 only
  4. D.1, 2, 3 and 4
8
Gase(s) emitted during rotting or decomposition of timber is /are mainly
  1. A.Methane and Hydrogen
  2. B.Hydrogen Sulphide
  3. C.Carbonic acid and Hydrogen
  4. D.Ammonia
9
Efflorescence of bricks is due to
  1. A.Excessive burning of bricks
  2. B.High silt content in brick clay
  3. C.High porosity of bricks
  4. D.Soluble salts present in parent clay
10
Disintegration of bricks masonry walls is primarily due to
1. Efflorescence
2. Magnesium sulphate in brick  
3. Calcined clay admixtures
4. Kankar nodules
Which of the a above statements are correct ? 
  1. A.1, 2 and 3 only
  2. B.1, 2 and 4 only
  3. C.3 and 4 only
  4. D.1, 2, 3 and 4
11
Consider the following statements:
1. IS 3583 refers to Burnt Clay Paving Bricks.
2. IS 5779 refers to Burnt Clay Soling Bricks.
3. IS 3952 refers to Burnt Clay Hollow Bricks.
4. IS 2222 refers to Burnt Clay Lay Bricks.
Which of the above statements are correct?
  1. A.1, 2 and 3 only
  2. B.1, 2 and 4 only
  3. C.3 and 4 only
  4. D.1, 2, 3 and 4
12
Consider the following statements:
1. A high aggregate impact value indicates strong aggregates.
2. A low aggregate crushing value indicates high crushing strength of aggregates.
3. Aggregates having elongation index values greater than 15% are generally considered suitable for pavement construction.
4. Flakiness index of aggregates should not be less than 25% for use in road construction.
Which of the above statements are correct?
  1. A.2 and 3 only
  2. B.2 and 4 only
  3. C.1 and 3 only
  4. D.1 and 4 only
13
Consider the following statements regarding refractory bricks in furnaces:
1. The furnace is fired at temperatures more than 1700°C.
2. Silica content in the soil should be less than 40%.
3. Water absorption of bricks should not exceed 10%
4. Chrome bricks are known as basic bricks. Which of the above statements are correct?
  1. A.1 and 2 only
  2. B.2 and 4 only
  3. C.1 and 3 only
  4. D.3 and 4 only
14
Consider the following statements about lime:
1. Calcination of limestone results in quick lime.
2. Lime produced from pure variety of chalk is hydraulic lime.
3. Hydrated lime is obtained by treating quick lime with water.
Which of the above statements are correct?
  1. A.1, 2 and 3
  2. B.1 and 2 only
  3. C.2 and 3 only
  4. D.1 and 3 only
15
Consider the following statements:
1. If more water is added to concrete for increasing its workability, it results into concrete of low strength.
2. No slump is an indication of a good workable concrete.
3. Higher the slump of concrete, lower will be its workability.
4. Workability of concrete is affected by water content as well as water-cement ratio.
Which of the above statements are correct?
  1. A.1 and 3 only
  2. B.2 and 3 only
  3. C.1 and 4 only
  4. D.2 and 4 only
16
One bag of Portland cement, 50 kg in weight, would normally have a bulk volume of
  1. A.30 l 
  2. B.35 l
  3. C.40 l
  4. D.45 l
17
AsCu, a preservative for wood, developed by the Forest Research Institute, Dehradun, comprises of chemicals:
  1. A.1 : 1 : 1
  2. B.1 : 2 : 3
  3. C.1 : 2 : 4
  4. D.1 : 3 : 4
18
Consider the following statements related to autoclave bricks:
1.Less water absorption compared to other bricks.
2.Noise reduction
3.It is cheap compared to other types of bricks.
4.Requirement of bulk volume of mortar in joints being relatively less compared to other types of brick masonry.
5.Not recommended for outer walls. 
Which of the above statements are relevant to the use of ‘autoclave’ bricks? 
  1. A.1, 2 and 4
  2. B.1, 3 and 5
  3. C.2, 3 and 4
  4. D.2, 4 and 5
19
The minimum number of annular rings to be seen in every 2.54 cm in the radial direction from the core for timber to be classified as ‘Dense’ is
  1. A.10
  2. B.20
  3. C.25
  4. D.30
20
If the actual thickness of a brick masonry wall is 19 cm, its effective length is 2.70 m, its effective height is 2.82 m and its code specified stiffening coefficient is 1.2 then, for design considerations, the slenderness ratio of the wall will be taken as
  1. A.11.8
  2. B.12.4
  3. C.14.2 
  4. D.14.8
21
Consider the following forms of water in a hydrated cement paste:
1.Capillary water
2.Chemically combined water
3.Interlayer water
4.Adsorbed water 
Which of the above forms of water will, on its/their removal, cause shrinkage of the paste? 
  1. A.1, 2 and 3
  2. B.1, 2 and 4
  3. C.2, 3 and 4
  4. D.1, 3 and 4
22
Consider the following statements:High early strength of cement is obtained as a result of
1.Fine grinding.
2.Decreasing the lime content
3.Burning at higher temperature
4.Increasing the quality of gypsum. 
Which of the above statements are correct? 
  1. A.1 and 2
  2. B.1 and 3
  3. C.2 and 3
  4. D.3 and 4
23
Consider the following statements related to ‘composite mortar’:
1.Addition of lime to cement mortar improves its workability
2.Composite mortar is obtained by adding 10% by weight of cement and mixing with water.
3.Composite mortar is not preferred in tall buildings.
4.Mechanical grinding is essential for developing composite mortar.Which of the above statements are true in this case? 
  1. A.1, 2 and  3 only
  2. B.1, 3 and  4 only
  3. C.2, 3 and  4 only
  4. D.1, 2, 3 and 4
24
Consider the following statements related to ‘non-destructive testing’ of concrete:
1.Indentation test is used to assess the quality of concrete.
2.Resonant Frequency Method is based on a laboratory test.
3.Compressive strength of concrete is estimated through Pulse Velocity Measurement.
4.Dynamic modulus of Elasticity is determined by a Sonometer Test.
5.Thickness of concrete can be estimated by in-situ Rebound Hammer Test. 
Which of the above statements are correct? 
  1. A.1, 2 and 3 only
  2. B.1, 2 and 5 only
  3. C.1, 2, 3 and 4 only
  4. D.1, 2, 3, 4 and 5 
25
What is the amount of water required for a workable RC of mix 1 : 2: 4 by weight., when W/C is 0-60 and unit weight of concrete is 2400 kg/m3?
  1. A.165 l
  2. B.205 l
  3. C.245 l
  4. D.285 l 
26
Which IS code is used for classification of timber for seasoning purposes?
  1. A.IS : 4970-1973
  2. B.IS : 1708-1969
  3. C.IS : 1141-1958
  4. D.IS : 399-1963 
27
Consider the following with regard to the application of preservation of timber:
1.Increase in the life span of the member
2.Increase in the strength of the timber
3.Removal of moisture
4.Prevention of growth of fungi by killing them 
Which of the above are correct?
  1. A.1, 2, 3 and 4
  2. B.2 and 4 only
  3. C.1 and 4 only
  4. D.2 and 3 only
28
The plies in plywood are so placed that the grains of each ply are
  1. A.Parallel to each other
  2. B.At right angle to one another
  3. C.45° oblique to adjacent grain
  4. D.Not constrained by any consideration
29
Which of the following is an ODD one as regards ‘requirement of good brick-earth’?
  1. A.It must be free from lumps of lime
  2. B.It should not be mixed with salty water
  3. C.It must be non-homogeneous
  4. D.It should not contain vegetable and organic matter 
30
The compressive strength of heavy-duty bricks, as per IS : 2980-1962, should not be less than
  1. A.440 kg/cm2
  2. B.175 kg/cm2
  3. C.100kg/cm2
  4. D.75kg/cm2 
31
What will be the depth of penetration of the plunger in Vicat Apparatus (IS : 5513 - 1976) from the bottom of the Vicat Mould, when the cement paste is tested for standard consistency, according to IS 4031 – 1988 ?
  1. A.11 to 15 mm
  2. B.8 to 10 mm
  3. C.15 to 17 mm
  4. D.5 to 7 mm
32
Two sewer pipelines A and B (having the same diameter and made of the same material) are laid at a bed slope of 1 in 225 and 1 in 625, respectively. Determine the ratio of their carrying capacities (QA to QB) .
  1. C.1
33
Select the correct statement with respect to an over - reinforced cement concrete section under the working stress method .
  1. A.The compressive stress in steel reaches the allowable limit before the maximum tensile stress in concrete reaches the allowable limit
  2. B.Tensile steel stress and maximum compressive stress in concrete simultaneously reach their allowable limits
  3. C.The allowable limiting stress is reached in concrete before the steel stress reaches the limiting value
  4. D.The tensile stress in steel reaches the allowable limit before the maximum compressive stress in concrete reaches the allowable limit
34
A cantilever beam of span L is built - in at the support. It is restrained against lateral deflection and torsion at the free end. The effective length of compression flange for the beam as per IS 800 : 2007 is
  1. A.​​0.5 L
  2. B.0.85 L
  3. C.2 L
  4. D.0.75 L
35
What is the principle of plane surveying ?
  1. A.Working from part to whole
  2. B.Working from point to area
  3. C.Working from angle to volume
  4. D.Working from whole to part
36
According is IS 5968 : 1987, the minimum radius of radius of curve to be provided in the alignment of unlined canals carrying a discharge of less than 30 cumecs up to 15 cumecs is :
  1. A.100 m
  2. B.1000 m
  3. C.600 m
  4. D.150 m
37
A Pelton wheel is to be designed for a pitch diameter of 1 m and jet diameter of 0.1 m. The number of buckets on the runner computed by Taygun’s formula is :
  1. A.20
  2. B.25
  3. C.15
  4. D.10
38
What is the effect of fly ash in concrete ?
  1. A.Reduces the secondary hydration process
  2. B.Increases the heat of hydration
  3. C.Increases the amount of air entrainment
  4. D.Reduces the heat of hydration
39
As per IS 456 : 2000, the minimum grade of concrete to be used for plain concrete and reinforced concrete, respectively, in concrete works exposed directly along the sea coast are :
  1. A.M 20 and M 30
  2. B.M 20 and M 25
  3. C.M 22 and M 40
  4. D.M 15 and M 25
40
Identify the property that changes as a function of the geometrical dimensions of a section in structural materials :
  1. A.Mass density
  2. B.Moment of inertia
  3. C.Poission’s ratio
  4. D.Modulus of elasticity
41
As per IRC (Indian Roads Congress) recommendation, what will be the designed stopping sight distance (in metres) at the vehicle speed of 80 km/h on a rural highway ?
  1. A.120
  2. B.140
  3. C.70
  4. D.60
42
No deduction is made in the quantity estimation for plastering work in cement mortar for openings having size up to :
  1. A.0.5 m2
  2. B.1.0 m2
  3. C.3 m2
  4. D.0.75 m2
43
What is the height of slump cone mould used for testing the workability of the concrete ?
  1. A.20 cm
  2. B.10 cm
  3. C.30 cm
  4. D.25 cm
44
Select the correct option with regard in the following statements (S1, S2) pertaining to pavements .
S1 : Present serviceability index is used for the functional evaluation of pavement surface condition
S2 : Rigid pavements are less affected by temperature variations than flexible pavements
  1. A.Statements S1 is true and Statement S2 is false
  2. B.Both statements S1 and S2 are false
  3. C.Statements S1 is false and Statement S2 is true
  4. D.Both statements S1 and S2 are true
45
If the quadrantal bearing of a line AB is S 31'35' E, then its whole circle bearing is equal in :
  1. A.121o25'
  2. B.148o25'
  3. C.58o25'
  4. D.211o25'
46
The overflowing sheet of water on a weir is called :
  1. A.creek
  2. B.crest
  3. C.limp
  4. D.nappe
47
According to IS 456 - 2000, what is the slump of a medium degree of workability of concrete if planed in heavily reinforced sections like slabs, beams, walls, columns ?
  1. A.10 - 25 mm
  2. B.25 - 50 mm
  3. C.0 - 10 mm
  4. D.50 - 100 mm
48
Which of the following is Kharif season in India ?
  1. A.March / April to June / July
  2. B.December / January to April / May
  3. C.May / June to October / November
  4. D.October / November to April / May
49
The estimated value of a built - up property at the end of its useful life without dismantled is called :
  1. A.market value
  2. B.book value
  3. C.scrap value
  4. D.salvage value
50
The amount of cement required for 100 m2 area, of damp proof course with 2.5 cm thinkness, in with proportion of 1: 2 : 4 (cement : sand : aggregate) will be :
  1. A.2.5 m2
  2. B.0.55 m2
  3. C.1.10 m2
  4. D.0.25 m2
Question for MJP Maharashtra Junior Engineer (Civil) 2026 - Quiz / Questions / MCQ - Toppersexam