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Question Bank

Question for MNNIT Allahabad Faculty - Quiz / Questions / MCQ in English

Last Update on : October 10, 2026

Duration: 30 · Questions: 40 · Max Marks: 40

View MNNIT Allahabad Faculty 2026 Exam Page

To boost your performance in MNNIT Allahabad Faculty exam, practice each question regularly and with focus. Every question tests your subject understanding, so solve them one at a time. Taking a quiz improves your speed and accuracy. Practicing topic-wise MCQs. Students benefit greatly from reviewing questions with answer keys, which help clarify concepts and strengthen Questions knowledge for success in MNNIT Allahabad Faculty exams.

Latest MNNIT Allahabad Faculty Exam Question (Objective Questions), MCQ in English

Subjects : General Knowledge, General English, Quantitative Aptitude, Reasoning, Technical Ability

Question Bank MNNIT Allahabad Faculty Exam - English

General Knowledge

Q 1 :
NITI Aayog has launched 'AI 4 All Global hackathon' to develop AI (Artificial Intelligence) Applications to make positive social and economic impact India, in partnership with which Singapore based AI startup?
  1. A.iRobot
  2. B.Thoughtworks
  3. C.Perlin
  4. D.Freshwork
  5. E.None of these
Q 2 :
Kazakhstan opened a consulate, under the leadership of the managing director of Chandan  Steel Limited ___ in Gujarat business partnership, on 10th December 2018?
  1. A.Dilip Chandan
  2. B.Ram kishan Maurya
  3. C.Vishwas Chandan
  4. D.Shyam Kumar
  5. E.None of these
Q 3 :
Name the 2nd edition of the 11-day exercise between Indian Air Force (IAF) and Russian Federation Aerospace Force (RFSAF) that commenced at Air Force Jodhpur, on 10th December 2018?
  1. A.INDRAAIR 2018
  2. B.AIRINDRA 2018
  3. C.AVIAINDRA 2018
  4. D.AVIONICS 2018
  5. E.None of these
Q 4 :
Which district became the 23rd district of Arunachal Pradesh on 9th  December 2018?
  1. A.Shi Yomi
  2. B.Min Shu
  3. C.Jeo Jong
  4. D.Jeo Rada
  5. E.None of these
Q 5 :
Tamil Nadu Government launched 24-hour toll free helpline number ___ for women facing domestic violence and sexual harassment to get assistance such as police help, legal aid or medical services, on 10th  December 2018?
  1. A.108
  2. B.181
  3. C.193
  4. D.175
  5. E.None of these
Q 6 :
Which entity conducted the largest ever Central teacher Eligibility Test (CTET) at 2144 centres in 92 cities across India, on 9th  December 2018?
  1. A.Central Board of Secondary Education (CBSE)
  2. B.National Council of Education Research and Training (NCERT)
  3. C.Indian Certificate of Secondary Education
  4. D.Staff Selection Commission (SSC)
  5. E.None of these
Q 7 :
Indian Railway Catering and Tourism Corporation (IRCTC) launched the Buddhist Circuit Tourist Train, on 8th December 2018 which will tour for ___ days, across several cities?
  1. A.24
  2. B.12
  3. C.16
  4. D.30
Q 8 :
United Nation Conference adopted a global pact "The Global compact for safe, orderly and Regular Migration", on 10th December 2018. Where was the United Nations conference held?
  1. A.Marrakesh, Morocco
  2. B.Philadelphia, United States
  3. C.Sri Lanka, Colombo
  4. D.Budapest, Hungary
  5. E.None of these
Q 9 :
Which entity announced that it will implement an 'Ombudsman Scheme for Digital Transactions' covering services provided by entities falling under Reserve Bank's regulatory jurisdiction?
  1. A.Union Ministry of Finance
  2. B.State Bank of India (SBI)
  3. C.Reserve Bank of India (RBI)
  4. D.Indian Banks' Association (IBA)
  5. E.None of these
Q 10 :
Where was the 54th SKOCH Summit on the State of Power, Oil and Gas held on 5th December 2018?
  1. A.Mumbai
  2. B.Dehradun
  3. C.Raipur
  4. D.New Delhi
  5. E.None of these

General English

Q 11 :
whether there is any grammatical mistake/error in them. The error, if any, will be in one part of the sentence. Mark the part with the error as your answer. If there isno error, mark ‘No error’ as your answer.
  1. A.Our country’s performance 
  2. B.in the last few national and international games
  3. C.is fairly ordinary gment
  4. D.and below our stature. 
  5. E.No error 
Q 12 :
To the family and ……..the nation.
  1. A.to
  2. B.of
  3. C.for       
  4. D.about
Q 13 :
The Finance Department has ……………a centralized online databank system for all statutory government bodies to …………an eye on their assets and liabilities.
  1. A. presented , stay
  2. B.introduced , keep
  3. C.announce , make
  4. D.created , let
  5. E.proclaimed , hold
Q 14 :
whether there is any grammatical mistake/error in them. The error, if any, will be in one part of the sentence. Mark the part with the error as your answer. If there isno error, mark ‘No error’ as your answer.
  1. A.Intense fear blocks
  2. B.both to the generation
  3. C. of ideas.
  4. D.No error
  5. E.and expression
Q 15 :
 whether there is any grammatical mistake/error in them. The error, if any, will be in one part of the sentence. Mark the part with the error as your answer. If there isno error, mark ‘No error’ as your answer.
  1. A.The Government officials have been met
  2. B.heads of commercial Banks later this week
  3. C.to get their views on liquidity
  4. D.and growth in deposits.
  5. E.No error
Q 16 :
whether there is any grammatical mistake/error in them. The error, if any, will be in one part of the sentence. Mark the part with the error as your answer. If there isno error, mark ‘No error’ as your answer.
  1. A.Indian entrepreneurs are making waves
  2. B.throughout the world; their ideas
  3. C.and technical knowledge are yielded
  4. D.unprecedented growth in income and employment
  5. E.No error
Q 17 :
whether there is any grammatical mistake/error in them. The error, if any, will be in one part of the sentence. Mark the part with the error as your answer. If there isno error, mark ‘No error’ as your answer.
  1. A.Policy analysts are reacting to the inflation paranoia
  2. B.with proposing that
  3. C.central bankers hit the brakes
  4. D.on their expansionary policies
  5. E.No error
Q 18 :
whether there is any grammatical mistake/error in them. The error, if any, will be in one part of the sentence. Mark the part with the error as your answer. If there isno error, mark ‘No error’ as your answer.
  1. A.The aim of the course
  2. B.will be to cater to students with diverted needs
  3. C.to top and research and publishing skills.
  4. D.No error
Q 19 :
whether there is any grammatical mistake/error in them. The error, if any, will be in one part of the sentence. Mark the part with the error as your answer. If there isno error, mark ‘No error’ as your answer.
  1. A.The Government has asked individuals
  2. B.with income of over Rs. 10 Lakh to
  3. C.electronic file tax returns for the year 2011 – 12,
  4. D.something which was optional till last year.
  5. E.No error
Q 20 :
Which of the following has same relationship as that of Money : Wealth?
  1. A.Pity : Kindness
  2. B.Cruel : Anger
  3. C.Wise : Education
  4. D.Pride : Humility
  5. E.None of these

Quantitative Aptitude

Q 21 :
If A exceeds B by 40%, B is less than C by 20%, then A C is,:
  1. A.28 : 25
  2. B.26 : 25
  3. C.3 : 2
  4. D.3 : 1
Q 22 :
What is the sum of 130+125+191 ?
  1. A.335
  2. B.456
  3. C.446
  4. D.426
Q 23 :
If , then x is equal to
  1. A.5   
  2. B.3
  3. C.2
  4. D.4
Q 24 :
A sum of money doubles itself at compound interest in 15 years. In how many years it will become eight times ?
  1. A.30
  2. B.45
  3. C.50
  4. D.60
Q 25 :
Compound interest (compounded annually) on a certain sum of money for 2 years at 4% per annum is Rs. 102. The simple interest on the same sum for the same rate and for the same period will be
  1. A.Rs. 99
  2. B.Rs. 101
  3. C.Rs. 100
  4. D.Rs. 98

Reasoning

Q 26 :
‘Gram’ is relatd to ‘Mass’ in the same way as ‘Centimetre’ is related to
  1. A.Area
  2. B.Volume
  3. C.Length
  4. D.Sound
  5. E.Energy
Q 27 :
'Mustard' is related to 'Seed' in the same way as 'Carrot' is related to
  1. A.Fruit
  2. B.Stem
  3. C.Flower
  4. D.Root
  5. E.None of these
Q 28 :
Which of the following pairs of words have the same relationship as Fan : Heat?
  1. A.Water        :           Drink
  2. B.Light         :        Night
  3. C.Teach       :      Student
  4. D.Air             :        Breathe
  5. E.Food         :        Hunger
Q 29 :
'Radish' is related to 'Root', in the same way as 'Brinjal' is related to
  1. A.Fruit
  2. B.Stem
  3. C.Flower
  4. D.Root
  5. E.None of these
Q 30 :
'Jackal' is related to 'Carnivorous', in the same way as 'Goat' is related to
  1. A.Omnivorous
  2. B.Carnivorous
  3. C.Herbivorous
  4. D.Multivorous
  5. E.None of these

Technical Ability

Q 31 :
A semiconductor differs from a conductor in that it has
  1. A.Only one path for the free electrons in the valence band
  2. B.Only one path for holes in the conduction band
  3. C.Two paths followed by free electrons and holes, one an ordinary path in the conduction band and the other one an extraordinary path in the valence band, respectively 
  4. D.Two paths followed by free electrons and holes, one an extraordinary path in the conduction band and the other one an ordinary path in valence band, respectively 
Q 32 :
Which of the following circuits is used for converting a sine wave into a square wave?
  1. A.Monostablemultivibrator
  2. B.Bistablemultivibrator
  3. C.Schmitt trigger circuit 
  4. D.Darlington complementary pair
Q 33 :
Which of the following elements of electrical engineering cannot be analyzed using Ohm’s law ?
  1. A.Capacitors
  2. B.​Inductors
  3. C.Transistors
  4. D.Resistance
Q 34 :
Consider the following statements: A power supply uses bridge rectifier with a capacitor input filter. If one of the diodes is defective, then
1. The dc load voltage will be lower than its expected value
2. Ripple frequency will be lower than its expected value
3. The surge current will increase considerably
Which of the above statements are correct?
  1. A.1  and 2 only 
  2. B.1 and 3 only
  3. C.2 and 3 only 
  4. D.1, 2 and 3 
Q 35 :
Three identical amplifiers each having a voltage gain of 50 are cascaded. The open loop voltage gain of the combined amplifier is
  1. A.71 dB 
  2. B.82 dB 
  3. C.91 dB 
  4. D.102 dB 
Q 36 :
Consider the following statements:
1. IS 3583 refers to Burnt Clay Paving Bricks.
2. IS 5779 refers to Burnt Clay Soling Bricks.
3. IS 3952 refers to Burnt Clay Hollow Bricks.
4. IS 2222 refers to Burnt Clay Lay Bricks.
Which of the above statements are correct?
  1. A.1, 2 and 3 only
  2. B.1, 2 and 4 only
  3. C.3 and 4 only
  4. D.1, 2, 3 and 4
Q 37 :
Consider the following statements:
1. A high aggregate impact value indicates strong aggregates.
2. A low aggregate crushing value indicates high crushing strength of aggregates.
3. Aggregates having elongation index values greater than 15% are generally considered suitable for pavement construction.
4. Flakiness index of aggregates should not be less than 25% for use in road construction.
Which of the above statements are correct?
  1. A.2 and 3 only
  2. B.2 and 4 only
  3. C.1 and 3 only
  4. D.1 and 4 only
Q 38 :
Consider the following statements regarding refractory bricks in furnaces:
1. The furnace is fired at temperatures more than 1700°C.
2. Silica content in the soil should be less than 40%.
3. Water absorption of bricks should not exceed 10%
4. Chrome bricks are known as basic bricks. Which of the above statements are correct?
  1. A.1 and 2 only
  2. B.2 and 4 only
  3. C.1 and 3 only
  4. D.3 and 4 only
Q 39 :
Consider the following statements about lime:
1. Calcination of limestone results in quick lime.
2. Lime produced from pure variety of chalk is hydraulic lime.
3. Hydrated lime is obtained by treating quick lime with water.
Which of the above statements are correct?
  1. A.1, 2 and 3
  2. B.1 and 2 only
  3. C.2 and 3 only
  4. D.1 and 3 only
Q 40 :
Consider the following statements:
1. If more water is added to concrete for increasing its workability, it results into concrete of low strength.
2. No slump is an indication of a good workable concrete.
3. Higher the slump of concrete, lower will be its workability.
4. Workability of concrete is affected by water content as well as water-cement ratio.
Which of the above statements are correct?
  1. A.1 and 3 only
  2. B.2 and 3 only
  3. C.1 and 4 only
  4. D.2 and 4 only

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