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Question Bank

MNNIT Assistant Professor Prelims Exam - English.

Duration: 165 · Questions: 275 · Max Marks: 275 · Language: 3

View MNNIT Assistant Professor 2026 Exam Page

English

1
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
  1. A.He was in the temper
  2. B.and refused
  3. C.discuss the matter again
  4. D.No error
2
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
  1. A.A flower makes no garland
  2. B.so we must do a thing together
  3. C.in a unit for a good result
  4. D.No error
3
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
  1. A.My friend is a software engineer
  2. B.and his wife is doctor
  3. C.so they don’t have enough time for each other
  4. D.No error
4
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
  1. A.I don’t have much time that
  2. B.I hear you in detail with verbosity
  3. C.tell everything in nutshell
  4. D.No error
5
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
  1. A.The atmosphere is changing
  2. B.so I have severe pain in my body
  3. C.if you have any painkiller, please give it to me
  4. D.No error
6
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
  1. A.No one is without fault
  2. B.because no one is God
  3. C.and only God is fault free
  4. D.No error
7
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
  1. A.Your
  2. B.clock is
  3. C.one hour fast
  4. D.No error
8
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
  1. A.The lose of jobs
  2. B.is regarded by some as an necessary evil
  3. C.in the fight against infliation
  4. D.No error
9
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
  1. A.In science, the credit goes to a man
  2. B.who convinces the world
  3. C.not to the man to whom the idea first occurs
  4. D.No error
10
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
  1. A.It is only after
  2. B.the match is over
  3. C.that people realize how exciting it is
  4. D.No error
11
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
  1. A.Off the two
  2. B.sisters, she
  3. C.is better
  4. D.No error
12
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
  1. A.A interesting book
  2. B.‘A Tale of two cities’
  3. C.was written by Alexander Dumas
  4. D.No error
13
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
  1. A.I shall never
  2. B.forget a good
  3. C.deed you did to me, when I was in crisis
  4. D.No error
14
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
  1. A.Wisdom of Vikramaditya
  2. B.solved many riddles
  3. C.that people brought to him for solution
  4. D.No error
15
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
  1. A.News you broke to his wife
  2. B.made her nervous
  3. C.and she broke down
  4. D.No error
16
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
  1. A.I have a work
  2. B.to do and
  3. C.so I will reach late
  4. D.No error
17
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
  1. A.I saw portion
  2. B.of the manuscript
  3. C.on birds
  4. D.No error
18
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
  1. A.Talent without experience is waste
  2. B.so one must attain some practical knowledge and
  3. C.it is only practical knowledge through which one can be an expert
  4. D.No error
19
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
  1. A.The Geeta, the Bible and the Quran all show us
  2. B.the true path of humanity
  3. C.Ramayana also can be included in this group
  4. D.No error
20
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
  1. A.Gandhiji was born on 2nd October 1869
  2. B.He devoted two thirds of his life
  3. C.for Indian freedom movement
  4. D.No error
21
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
  1. A.The students who want to speak in English
  2. B.must read Hindu newspaper
  3. C.in their initial stage
  4. D.No error
22
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
  1. A.Garib rath is a facility by railway ministry
  2. B.for the poor to enjoy express train and facilities
  3. C.but is mostly utilized by the upper class
  4. D.No error
23
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
  1. A.It is
  2. B.a quarter to ten
  3. C.by my watch
  4. D.No error
24
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
  1. A.Mr. Thakur lived
  2. B.in the three-hundred year
  3. C.old house
  4. D.in Patna
25
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
  1. A.The uncle of mine who is farmer
  2. B.gave me a piece of useful advice
  3. C.when I went to see him three weeks ago
  4. D.No error

Reasoning

1
According to the passage, what is the main purpose of data protection laws ?
  1. A.To ensure that foreign countries invest in research for drugs to treat diseases like TB
  2. B.To attract Indian scientists back to the country
  3. C.To prevent misuse of research to make profit by competing companies
  4. D.To make clinical trials more acceptable to the public
  5. E.None of these
2
‘Gram’ is relatd to ‘Mass’ in the same way as ‘Centimetre’ is related to
  1. A.Area
  2. B.Volume
  3. C.Length
  4. D.Sound
  5. E.Energy
3
'Mustard' is related to 'Seed' in the same way as 'Carrot' is related to
  1. A.Fruit
  2. B.Stem
  3. C.Flower
  4. D.Root
  5. E.None of these
4
Which of the following pairs of words have the same relationship as Fan : Heat?
  1. A.Water        :           Drink
  2. B.Light         :        Night
  3. C.Teach       :      Student
  4. D.Air             :        Breathe
  5. E.Food         :        Hunger
5
'Radish' is related to 'Root', in the same way as 'Brinjal' is related to
  1. A.Fruit
  2. B.Stem
  3. C.Flower
  4. D.Root
  5. E.None of these
6
'Jackal' is related to 'Carnivorous', in the same way as 'Goat' is related to
  1. A.Omnivorous
  2. B.Carnivorous
  3. C.Herbivorous
  4. D.Multivorous
  5. E.None of these
7
Which of the following pairs has similar relationship as Run : Race?
  1. A.Party : Dance
  2. B.Study : Book
  3. C.Lecture : Study
  4. D.Enjoy : Journey
  5. E.None of these
8
Which of the following has same relationship as that of Money : Wealth?
  1. A.Pity : Kindness
  2. B.Cruel : Anger
  3. C.Wise : Education
  4. D.Pride : Humility
  5. E.None of these
9
Which of the following is related to ‘Melody’, in the same way as ‘Delicious’ is related to 'Taste'?
  1. A.Memory
  2. B.Highness
  3. C.Tongue
  4. D.Speak
  5. E.Voice
10
Offhand’ is related to ‘Premeditation’ in the same way as ‘Above board’ is related to
  1. A.Integrity
  2. B.Honesty
  3. C.Guide
  4. D.Competition
  5. E.None of these
11
5 : 7 : : ? : 28
  1. A.20
  2. B.14
  3. C.56
  4. D.26
  5. E.None of these
12
Which one is different form the remaining three?
  1. A.GIJK
  2. B.DFGH
  3. C.CEFG
  4. D.ABCD
  5. E.None of these
13
Three of the following four are alike in certain way and so form a group. Which is one that does not belong to the group?
  1. A.71
  2. B.73
  3. C.77
  4. D.67
  5. E.None of these
14
Unscramble the letters in the given words and find the odd one out.
  1. A.UMRSME
  2. B.EIWNTR
  3. C.PIGRSN
  4. D.LCUOD
  5. E.None of these
15
What should come next in the following number series?
0 2 4 6 2 3 0 2 4 6 4 5 0 2 4 6 6 7 0 2?
  1. A.4
  2. B.2
  3. C.6
  4. D.8
  5. E.5
16
What will be there is the place of question mark in the following series?
E G 3 5, I K 9 9, M O 1 9 5, Q S 3 2 3?
  1. A.UW483
  2. B.ZA26
  3. C.TU420
  4. D.ST380
  5. E.None of these
17
What should come next in the following letter series?
A Z A B Y A B C X A B C D W A B C D E V A B C D E
  1. A.U
  2. B.T
  3. C.A
  4. D.G
  5. E.None of these
18
What should come next in the following letter series?
H G F E D C B A G F E D C B A G F E D C B
  1. A.E
  2. B.G
  3. C.F
  4. D.B
  5. E.None of these
19
What should come next in the following letter series?
Z X V T R P N L J Y W U S Q O
  1. A.M
  2. B.K
  3. C.H
  4. D.J
  5. E.None of these
20
Which of the following should come next in the given sequence of numbers?
24 3 2 4 3 1 2 4 3 1 2 2 4 3 1 2 3 1 2 3 2 4 3 1 2 3
  1. A.2
  2. B.3
  3. C.4
  4. D.5
  5. E.None of these
21
What should come next in the following letter series?
P P O PO N PO N M P O N M L P O N M L
  1. A.P
  2. B.K
  3. C.J
  4. D.I
  5. E.None of these
22
What should come next in the following number series?
9 8 7 6 5 4 3 2 1 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 9 8 7 6 5 4 3 2 2 3 4 5 6 7 8
  1. A.8
  2. B.1
  3. C.9
  4. D.2
  5. E.None of these
23
What should come next in the following number series?
3 4 4 3 4 4 5 3 4 4 5 6 3 4 4 5 6 7 3 4 4 5 6
  1. A.4
  2. B.5
  3. C.6
  4. D.7
  5. E.None of these
24
What should come next in the following letter series?
A A B A B C A B C D A B C D E A B C D E F
  1. A.A
  2. B.G
  3. C.H
  4. D.B
  5. E.None of these
25
What should come in the place of the question mark (?) in the following series of combination of alpha-numerals and symbols?Y 9B*W*D7*U5F?
  1. A.S 3 H *
  2. B.T#H*
  3. C.T*#H
  4. D.S*H5
  5. E.SH*1

Quantitative Ability

1
The cash difference between the selling prices of an article at a profit of 4% and 6% is Rs. 3. The ratio of the two selling prices is:__________ ?
  1. A.51:52
  2. B.52:53
  3. C.51:53
  4. D.52:55
2
Which of the following numbers is irrational ?
  1. A.√49
  2. B.0.125
  3. C.√2
  4. D.22/7
3
356 x 936 – 356 x 836 = ?
  1. A.35600  
  2. B.34500
  3. C.9630
  4. D.93600
4
Arrange in descending order: 5/8, 7/10, 3/4
  1. A.3/4 > 7/10 > 5/8
  2. B.7/10 > 3/4 > 5/8
  3. C.3/4 > 5/8 > 7/10
  4. D.5/8 > 7/10 > 3/4
5
What is (3^{4} times 9^{2}) ?
  1. A.36
  2. B.38
  3. C.310
  4. D.96
     
6
If 34X-2 = 729, then find the value of X.
  1. A.4     
  2. B.3
  3. C.2 
  4. D.5
7
Convert 0.6 into fraction ?
  1. A.3/5
  2. B.2/3
  3. C.4/5
8
The no. plate of a bus had peculiarity. The bus number was a perfect square. It was also a perfect square when the plate numbers were reversed. The bus company had only five hundred buses numbered from 1 to 500. What was the number ?
  1. A.169  
  2. B.36
  3. C.196 
  4. D.Can not say
9
If a and b are positive integers, such that ab = 125, then (a-b)a+b-4 = ?
  1. A.16   
  2. B.25
  3. C.28  
  4. D.30
10
If x*y = x2 + y2 – xy, then value of 9*11 is
  1. A.93     
  2. B.103
  3. C.60.5
  4. D.121
11
Which is greater ?
  1. A.15/16
  2. B.17/18
  3. C.Equal
  4. D.Cannot compare
12
If sum of two numbers is 42 and their product is 437, then find their difference.
  1. A.3 
  2. B.4
  3. C.5    
  4. D.7
13
Write the 44000 in Roman numerals
  1. A.XLI 
  2. B.XLVI
  3. C.XLIV 
  4. D.XLVIC
14
Convert 0.0909… into fraction ?
  1. A.1/11
  2. B.9/11
  3. C.1/9
  4. D.9/10
15
What is (98 times 102) ?
  1. A.9996
  2. B.10000
  3. C.10096
  4. D.10196
16
Which is smaller ?
  1. A.9/11
  2. B.7/9
  3. C.Equal
  4. D.Cannot compare
17
Convert 0.5777… into fraction ?
  1. A.26/45
  2. B.52/90
  3. C.13/22
  4. D.5/9
18
Convert 0.81 into fraction ?
  1. A.81/100
  2. B.9/10
  3. C.8/9
  4. D.9/11
19
(63)2 – (12)2 =?
  1. A.3528 
  2. B.3852
  3. C.3582  
  4. D.3825
20
Which is greater ?
  1. A.13/17
  2. B.11/14
  3. C.Equal
  4. D.Cannot compare
21
16.928 + 24.7582  5.015 =?
  1. A.20   
  2. B.24
  3. C.22
  4. D.26
22
Convert 0.75 into fraction ?
  1. A.3/4
  2. B.2/3
  3. C.4/5
  4. D.5/8
23
Which is greater ?
  1. A.11/13
  2. B.12/15
  3. C.Equal
  4. D.Cannot compare
24
Two numbers are co-prime if their HCF is ?
  1. A.0
  2. B.1
  3. C.Same
  4. D.Prime
25
Product of all factors of 10 is ?
  1. A.
    10
  2. B.100
  3. C.1000
  4. D.10000

General Studies

1
Yojna a weekly journal
  1. A.Ministry of Finance        
  2. B.Ministry of Information and Broadcastin
  3. C.Ministry of Rural Development
  4. D.Planning Commission
2
Kurukshetra a journal on rural development is published by
  1. A.Ministry of Finance 
  2. B.Ministry of Information and Broadcastin
  3. C.Ministry of Rural Development
  4. D.Planning Commission
3
Devaluation of a currency means
  1. A.Fixing the value of the currency in conjuction with the movement in the value of a basket of predetermined currencies
  2. B.Reduction in the value of a currency vis-à-vis major internationally traded currencies
  3. C.Fixing the value of currency in multilateral consultaion with the IMF the World Bank and major trading partners
  4. D.Permitting the currency to seek its worth in the international market
4
In India rural incomes are generally lower than the urban incomes, which of the following reasons account for this
            1. a large number of farmers are illiterate and know little about scientific agriculture
            2. prices of primary products are lower than those of manufactured products
            3. Investments in agriculture has been low when compared to investment in industry
  1. A.1 and 3
  2. B.2 and 3
  3. C.1 and 2
  4. D.1,2 and 3
5
Which of the following programmes aims at the promotion of savings among rural women
  1. A.Rashtriya Mahila Kosh
  2. B.Indira Mahila Yojna
  3. C.Jawahar Rozgar Yojna
  4. D.Mahila Samridhi Yojna
6
What is Net National Product
  1. A.the money value of final goods and services produced annually in the economy
  2. B.the money value of annual service generation in the economy
  3. C.the money value of tangible goods produced annually in the economy
  4. D.The money value of tangible goods available in the economy
7
National income is the 
  1. A.net national product at market price
  2. B.net national product at factor cost
  3. C.net domestic product at market price
  4. D.net domestic product at factor cost
8
Chelliah Committee of 1992 deals with the overhauling of our
  1. A.financial system            
  2. B.tax system
  3. C.patents and copyrights  
  4. D.Public sector undertakings
9
During which Five Year Plan was the annual growth rate of National Income the lowest
  1. A.2nd plan
  2. B.3rd plan
  3. C.5th plan
  4. D.6th plan
10
Which of the following taxes is a progressive tax
  1. A.sales tax           
  2. B.custom tax
  3. C.excise tax         
  4. D.income tax
11
Which of the following estimates the National Income in India
  1. A.National Income Committee
  2. B.Planning Commission
  3. C.Reserve Bank Of India
  4. D.Central Statistical Organisation
12
India changed over to the decimal system, coinage in
  1. A.April 1951         
  2. B.April 1955
  3. C.April 1957         
  4. D.April 1978
13
11th Five Year Plan aim at achieving 10% rural tele density in India from the present 1.9% by the year
  1. A.2008     
  2. B.2009
  3. C.2010     
  4. D.2012
14
Which one of the following statements Monitorable Socio Economic Target of the 11th Five Year Plan under the head Environment is not correct
  1. A.treat urban waste water by 2011-12
  2. B.Increase energy efficiency by 20% points by 2016-17
  3. C.attain WHO standards of air quality in all major cities by 2011-12
  4. D.increase forest and tree cover by 15% points
15
Who is the ex-officio chairman of Planning commission and National Development Council
  1. A.President
  2. B.Prime Minister
  3. C.Finance Minister
  4. D.Commerce Minister
16
Persons below the poverty line in Indian are classified as such based on wheather
  1. A.they belong to agriculture labourer household and the scheduled caste/trive social group
  2. B.they get work for a prescribed minimum number of days in a year
  3. C.they are entitled to a minimum prescribed food basket
  4. D.their daily waged fall below the prescribed minimum wages
17
Which of the following Committee’s recommendations are being followed for estimating proverty line in India
  1. A.Dutt committee
  2. B.Lakdawala committee
  3. C.Cheliah Committee
  4. D.Chakravorty Committee
18
In which year India adopeted liberal and free market principles
  1. A.1975                 
  2. B.1981
  3. C.1991                 
  4. D.2000
19
Consider the following statements
1. There is persistent investment over time only in select locals
2. some areas are agro climatically less conductive to development
3. some areas continue to face little or no agrarian transformation and the consequent lack of social and
4. some areas have faced continous political instability
            Which of the above statements are correct
  1. A.1,2 and 3          
  2. B.1,2 and 4
  3. C.1,3 and 4          
  4. D.2,3 and 4
20
When was first human development report of India issued
  1. A.April 2001         
  2. B.March 2000
  3. C.June 2002
  4. D.April 2002
21
How many censuses have been carried out since independence
  1. A.5
  2. B.6
  3. C.7          
  4. D.8
22
For which year the latest census is being conducted in India
  1. A.2001                 
  2. B.2010
  3. C.2012     
  4. D.2011
23
Which of the following are the features of 12th Five Year Plan -
        1. Average growth target has been set up 8.2%
        2. Areas of main thrust are infrastructure, health  and education
        3. it seeks to achieve 4% agriculture sector growth during five year period
  1. A.1 only
  2. B.1 and 2
  3. C.1 and 3
  4. D.1,2, and 3
24
The period of 12th Five Year Plan 
  1. A.2007-12
  2. B.2008-13
  3. C.2010-15
  4. D.2012-17
25
A closed economy is an economy in which
  1. A.the money supply is fully controlled       
  2. B.deficit financing takes place
  3. C.only exports take place
  4. D.neither exports nor imports take place
26
Consider the following statements
            1. a plan for the current year which includes the annual budget
            2. a plan for a fixed number of years, say 34, and 5
            3. it is revised every year as per requirements of the economy
            4. A perspective plan for 10,15 or 20 years
            Which of the above are correct
  1. A.1 and 2
  2. B.1 and 3
  3. C.2 and 3
  4. D.1,2,3 and 4
27
In the context of Indian Economy consider the following pairs
            Term                                                                 Most Appropriate Description
1. Melt Down                                                     Fall in stock prices
2. Recession                                                     Fall in growth rate
3. Slow down                                                    Fall in GDP
Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched
  1. A.1 only
  2. B.2 and 3
  3. C.1 and 3
  4. D.1,2 and 3
28
Deficit finacing means that the government borrows money from the 
  1. A.IMF       
  2. B.RBI
  3. C.Local bodies     
  4. D.Big Businessmen
29
In the context of India’s Five Year Plan a shift in the pattern of industrialization with lower emphasis on heavy industries and more on infrastructure begins in
  1. A.4th plan
  2. B.6th plan
  3. C.8th plan
  4. D.10th plan
30
Which of the following is/are an indicator of the financial health of a country
   1. GDP                          2. PPP
   3. FDI in a year                     
  1. A.only 1   
  2. B.only 2
  3. C.only 3
  4. D.1,2 and 3
31
Which statement is correct for Indian Planning Commission
  1. A.Members and vice chairman of it do not have fixed working duration
  2. B.it is not defined in Indian Constitution
  3. C.Members do not require any minimum education
  4. D.all of these
32
__________ is the exofficio chairman of Planning Commission and National Development Council
  1. A.Prime Minister
  2. B.President
  3. C.Finance Minister            
  4. D.Commerce Minister
33
Which one of the following is the correct sequence in the decreasing order of contribution of different sectors to the Gross Domestic Product of India
  1. A.services Industry- Agriculture
  2. B.Services- Agriculture-Industry
  3. C.Industry-Services-Agriculture
  4. D.Industry-Agriculture-Services
34
Which of the following is NOT a function of the Planning Commission of India
  1. A.Assessment of the material ,capital and human resources of the country
  2. B.formulation of plans for the most effective and balanced utilization of country’s resources
  3. C.public cooperation in national development
  4. D.preparation of annual budget of the country and collection of taxes to raise capital for the implementation of the plan
35
Who among the following was the first Chairman of the Planning Commisison
  1. A.Rajendra Prasad
  2. B.Jawahar Lal Nehru
  3. C.Sardar Ballabh Bhai Patel
  4. D.J.B.Kriplani
36
Which of the statements given below is/are correct
            1. Food for Work Programme was launched in India during the 10th Five Year Plan
            2. The Planning Commission in India is a constitutional body
  1. A.1 only   
  2. B.2 only
  3. C.both 1 and 2     
  4. D.Neither 1 nor 2
37
The 11th Five Year Plan strategy to raise agricultural output envisages which of the following
            1. Greater attention to land reforms
            2. double the rate of growth of irrigated area
            3. promote animal husbandary and fishery
            4. interest free credit to the farmers
            Select the correct answer
  1. A.1 and 2
  2. B.2 and 3
  3. C.1,2 and 3          
  4. D.2 and 4
38
What is the period of 11th Five Year Plan
  1. A.2006-11
  2. B.2007-12
  3. C.2008-13
  4. D.2009-14
39
In which one of the following Five Year Plan the actual growth performance in India in respect of GDP was less than the target set
  1. A.6th Five Year Plan
  2. B.7th Five Year Plan
  3. C.8th Five Year Plan          
  4. D.9th Five Year Plan
40
Who of the following was the author of the chapter on 'Objectives of planned development' for the 3rd  Five Year Plan
  1. A.Morarji Desai     
  2. B.C.D.Deshmukh
  3. C.Jawahar Lal Nehru                     
  4. D.Lal Bahadur Shashtri
41
During which five year plan was the total expenditure on agriculture the highest
  1. A.1st five year plan
  2. B.2nd five year plan
  3. C.3rd five year plan            
  4. D.4th five year plan
42
What is the correct sequence of the following strategies used for five year plan in India
            1. balanced growth                                        2. Rehabilitation of the economy
            3. industrial development
  1. A.1,3,2
  2. B.2,1,3
  3. C.2,3,1                 
  4. D.3,2,1
43
The steel plants at Durgapur, bhilai and Rourkela were established during the period of
  1. A.1st five year plan            
  2. B.2nd five year plan
  3. C.3rd five year plan
  4. D.4th five year plan
44
The second five year plan laid more stress upon
  1. A.agriculture         
  2. B.industrialization
  3. C.removing poverty
  4. D.self reliance
45
In which of the five year plan preference ws given to the weaker sections of the society
  1. A.2nd
  2. B.3rd
  3. C.4th         
  4. D.5th
46
Which one fo the following Five year plan recognized human development as the core of all developmental efforts
  1. A.the 3rd five year plan                  
  2. B.the 5th five year plan
  3. C.the 6th five year plan      
  4. D.the 8th five year plan
47
The growth rate of agricultural production was negative in the 
  1. A.first plan
  2. B.second plan
  3. C.third plan
  4. D.fourth plan
48
The basic feature of the Rolling Plans was that 
  1. A.major development projects were to be completed in the stipulated period
  2. B.revision of the achievements of previous year
  3. C.annual fluctuations in prices and major economic developments could be considered while fixing targets
  4. D.no financial target except in the term of annual plans was envisaged
49
A rolling plan was a plan for
  1. A.one year           
  2. B.three year
  3. C.five year
  4. D.year to year basis
50
The strategy of Rolling Plan was adopted during the Prime Ministership of
  1. A.Lal Bahadur Shastri
  2. B.Indira Gandhi
  3. C.Morarji Desai     
  4. D.Rajiv Gandhi
51
Rolling plan was designed for the period
  1. A.1978-83
  2. B.1980-85
  3. C.1985-90
  4. D.1974-97
52
Consider the following
1. Launching of 4th year plan was postponed and three annual plans had to be resorted to between 1966-1969
            2. 5th year plan was terminated a year earlier
            3. 8th five year plan commenced in 1996 instead of 1990
            Which of these statements are correct
  1. A.2 and 3
  2. B.1 and 2
  3. C.1 and 3
  4. D.1,2 and 3
53
What is the correct duration of revised by
  1. A.1975-80
  2. B.1977-82
  3. C.1979-84
  4. D.1980-85
54
Success of 4th plan was obstructed by 
  1. A.Poor monsoon              
  2. B.war with Pakistan
  3. C.problem of Bagaldesh refugees
  4. D.All of the above
55
Match the following
            List-I                                                                 List-II
  1. Year of the Great Divide                              1. 1950
  2. Industrial Policy Resolution                          2. 1921
  3. Setting up of planning commission              3. 1969
  4. Nationalisation of 14 commercial banks        4. 1956
  1. A.2    4    1     3
  2. B.4    3    1     2
  3. C.2    1    3     4          
  4. D.1    3    4     2
56
In India, the concepts of minimum heeds and directed anti poverty programmes were the innovation of
  1. A.4th Five Yar Plan
  2. B.5th Five Yar Plan
  3. C.6th Five Yar Plan
  4. D.7th Five Yar Plan
57
Put in chronological order the following special features of differenct Five Year Plan as they were first formulated
            1. Mahalanobis Strategy                                                2.Modernisation
            3. Removal of Poverty                                       4. Emphasis on employment generation
  1. A.1,2,3,4
  2. B.2,1,3,4
  3. C.1,3,2,4
  4. D.3,4,1,2
58
In which plan was the growth rate target exceeded          
  1. A.first      
  2. B.Fifth
  3. C.Sixth                 
  4. D.None of these
59
India had a plan holiday
  1. A.after the China India war of 1962
  2. B.after the drought of 1966
  3. C.after the liberation of Bangladesh in 1971
  4. D.after the India Pakistan war in 1965
60
Community Development Programme was launched during
  1. A.First Five Year Plan       
  2. B.Second Five Year Paln
  3. C.Fourth Five Year Plan
  4. D.Fifth Five Year Plan
61
The main objective of First Five Year Paln was
  1. A.industrial growth
  2. B.economic growth
  3. C.development of agriculture including irrigation and power project
  4. D.self reliance
62
Mathc the following
            A. First Plan                                                                      1. Rapid industrialization
            B. Second Paln                                                                       2. Community development programme
            C. Third Plan                                                                              3. Expansion of basic industries
            D. Fourth Plan                                                                            4. Minimum needs programme
            E. Fifth Paln                                                                              5. Achievement of self reliance and growth with stability
  1. A.1    2    3     4    5     
  2. B.2    1    3     5    4
  3. C.2    1    3     4    5
  4. D.2    1    4     5    3
63
The decentralization system was recommended by
  1. A.C.Rajagopalachari
  2. B.J.B.Kriplani       
  3. C.Balwant Rai Mehta
  4. D.Ashok Mehta
64
The first attempt to initiate economic planning in India was made by
  1. A.Dadabhai Naoroji
  2. B.Balwantrai Mehta
  3. C.Ramesh Chandra Dutt
  4. D.M.Visvesvaraya
65
In Financial Language, Fixed to Floating and Floating to Floating are used in context with which among the following ?
  1. A.Interest rates
  2. B.Swaps
  3. C.Foreign Exchange Rates
  4. D.None of them
66
Which of the following gives an accurate measurement of economic development through Five Year Plan
  1. A.development of edcucatin and health services
  2. B.Development of railways and roadways
  3. C.Rise in national income and per capita income
  4. D.Deveopment of industrial towns and insudtrial estates
67
Self Reliance in the economic context implies that a country
            1. meets its demands for all goods and services from its domestic production
            2. exports some of its goods but does not need to import anything
            3. has sufficient foreign exchange reserves to but all its needs
            4. meets its demand for certain vital goods and services from its domestic production
  1. A.1 and 3
  2. B.2 and 4
  3. C.1,2 and 3
  4. D.3 and 4
68
An underdeveloped economy is generally characterized by
            1. low per capita income                                                       2. Low rate of capital formation
            3. low population growth                                                           4. Working force largely in the tertiary sector
  1. A.1 and 2
  2. B.2 and 3
  3. C.3 and 4
  4. D.1 and 4
69
The basic objectives of Indian Planning are
            1. economic growth                                                                    2. Self reliance
            3. employment generation                                                                4. Population growth
  1. A.1,2 and 4          
  2. B.1,2 and 3
  3. C.2 and 3
  4. D.1,2,3 and 4
70
Consider the following statements
            1. the highest deciding body for planning in India is the Planning Commission of India
2. The Secreatary of the Planning Commission of India is also the Secreatary of National Development Council
3. The Constitution includes economic and social planning in the Concurrent list in the Seventh Schedule of the Constitution of India
            Which of the statements given above is/are correct
  1. A.1 and 2
  2. B.2 only
  3. C.2 and 3
  4. D.3 only
71
Indiacative Planning being pursued in India since the 8th plan aims at ensuring that
            1. Planning mechanism plays a facilitatory role
            2. Planning mechanism brings about a balance between need and supply
            3. Planning mechanism concerns itself with optimal utilization of resources
            4. Planning concerns itself with laying down broad directions in which of trhe economy should move
            Choose the correct answer from
  1. A.1,2 and 4          
  2. B.1 and 2
  3. C.2,3 and 4
  4. D.1,2,3 and 4
72
Microeconomics is concerned with
            1. behavior of industrial decision makers
            2. determination of prices of goods and services
            3. changes in the general level of prices
            4. the level of employment
  1. A.1 and 2
  2. B.2 and 3
  3. C.3 and 4
  4. D.1 and 4
73
Put in chronological order
1. constitution of National Planning Committee by the Indian National Congress under Jawahar Lal Nehru
            2. Planned Economy for India by Visvesvaraya published
            3. Bombay Plan
            4. Setting up of the National Development Council
  1. A.1,2,3,4
  2. B.3,2,4,1
  3. C.2,3,1,4
  4. D.2,1,3,4
74
The Planning Commission of India
            1. was set up in 1950                                                                             2. Is a constitutional body
            3. is an advisory body                                                                     4. Is agovernment department 
  1. A.1 and 2
  2. B.2 and 3
  3. C.1 and 3
  4. D.3 only
75
Who was the first Deputy Chairman of Planning Commission of India
  1. A.Jawahar Lal Nehru         
  2. B.Rajendra Prasad
  3. C.C.Rajgopalachari           
  4. D.V.T.Krishnamachari
76
The deputy chairman of the planning commission
  1. A.is the prime minister      
  2. B.is the planning minister
  3. C.holds the rank of a cabinet minister
  4. D.is an economist of repute
77
Who is the Deputy Chairman of Planning Commission
  1. A.Prime Minister
  2. B.Finance Minister
  3. C.Commerce Minister        
  4. D.None of them
78
Which of the following are not correct assessments of the decades of India’s Five Year Plans
            1. there has been veery low capital formation
            2. growth has favoured the better off
            3. production has increased substantitally though often falling short of targets
            4. the Public sector has contributed nothing to economic growth
  1. A.1 and 4
  2. B.2 and 3
  3. C.1,2 and 3
  4. D.3 and 4
79
Consider the following
            1. Economic Growth                                                          2. Reduction of economic inequalities
            3. balanced regional development                                                   4. Modernization
            5. reduction of unemployment
            Which of the above are the objectives of economic planning in India
  1. A.1,2 and 3          
  2. B.1,3,4 and 5
  3. C.1,2, 4 and 5                   
  4. D.1,2,3,4,5
80
Which of the following may be termed as long term objectives of Indian Planning
            1. self reliance                                                   2. Productive employment generation
            3. growth of 8% per annum                                4. Growth in infrastructure
 
  1. A.1 and 2
  2. B.3 and 4
  3. C.1,2 and 4
  4. D.2,3 and 4
81
The branch of knowledge concerned with the production, consumption and transfer of wealth is termed as
  1. A.Mercantilism      
  2. B.Statistics
  3. C.Numismatics     
  4. D.Economics
82
The word economics has been derived from “Okilonomia” which is a 
  1. A.Latin word         
  2. B.Greek word
  3. C.African word     
  4. D.Urdu word
83
Match the following
            A. Wealth Definition                                 1. Paul Samuelson                        
            B. Welfare Definition                                2. Lionel Robbins                                                                                                    
            C. Scarcity Definition                              3. Alfred Marshall                                                                                                   
            D. Growth Definition                                 4. Adam Smith                                                                                                    
  1. A.1    2     3    4
  2. B.2    1     3    4
  3. C.4    3     2    1
  4. D.4    2     3    1
84
Who is called the Father of Economics
  1. A.Max Muller        
  2. B.Kari Marx
  3. C.Adam Smith      
  4. D.None ofh tese
85
An Enquir into the Nature and Causes of Wealth of Nations is the book of economist
  1. A.Adam Smith                  
  2. B.Marshall
  3. C.Robbins            
  4. D.None ofh tese
86
Economics is what economists do it has been supported by
  1. A.Richard Jones
  2. B.Comte
  3. C.Gunnar Myrdal   
  4. D.All of the above
87
Who has given scarcity definition of economics
  1. A.Adam Smith                              
  2. B.Marshall
  3. C.Robbins            
  4. D.Robertson
88
Economic is a science the basis of this statement is
  1. A.relatin between cause and effect
  2. B.use of deductive method and inductive method for the formations of law
  3. C.experiments      
  4. D.all of the above
89
When total utility becomes maximum then marginal utility will be
  1. A.minimum           
  2. B.average
  3. C.zero                  
  4. D.negative
                 
90
Marginal utility is equal to average utility at that time when average utility is
  1. A.increasing
  2. B.maximum
  3. C.falling   
  4. D.minimum
91
At point of satirty, marginal utility is
  1. A.zero      
  2. B.positive
  3. C.maximum          
  4. D.negative
92
Which of the following is the second law of Gossen
  1. A.law of equi marginal utility          
  2. B.law of equi product 
  3. C.theory of indifference curve
  4. D.law of diminishing marginal utility
93
Total utility of a commodity is measured by hwihc price of that commodity
  1. A.value in use       
  2. B.value in exchange
  3. C.both of the above
  4. D.none of these
94
According to Marshall the basis of consumer surplus is
  1. A.law of diminishing marginal utility
  2. B.law of equal marginal utility
  3. C.law of properties
  4. D.all of the aboe
95
Development means economic growth with
  1. A.price stability                
  2. B.social change
  3. C.deflation           
  4. D.inflation
96
Which of the following is/are major development issues in India
             1. low percapita income
            2. substaintal proportion of population below poverty line
            3. problem of unemployment
            4. imbalance in distribution and growing inwqualities
            5. huge expense on development programmes
  1. A.1,2 and 5
  2. B.2,3 and 4
  3. C.1,2,3 and 4        
  4. D.4 and 5
97
The concept of five year plans in India was introduced by
  1. A.Lord Mountbatten          
  2. B.Jawahar Lal Nehru
  3. C.Indira Gandhi     
  4. D.Lal Bahadur Shashtri
98
india has
  1. A.Socialistic economy      
  2. B.Gandhian economy
  3. C.Mixed economy
  4. D.free economy
99
India opted for Mixed Economy in
  1. A.framing of the constitution
  2. B.second five year plan
  3. C.industrial policy of 1948
  4. D.none of the above
100
Mixed Economy means in economy where
  1. A.bothe agriculture and industry are equally promoted by the state
  2. B.there is existence of public sector along with private sector
  3. C.there is importance of small scale industries along with heavy industries
  4. D.economy is controlled by military as well as civilian rulers
101
In ruby laser, the stimulated emission is due to transition from
  1. A.metastable state to any lower state
  2. B.any higher state of lower state
  3. C.metastable state to ground state
  4. D.any higher state to ground state
102
A direct current I flows along the length of an infinitely long straight thin walled pipe, then the magnetic field is
  1. A.uniform throughout the pipe not zero
  2. B.zero only along the axis of the pipe
  3. C.zero at any point inside the pipe
  4. D.maximum at the centre and minimum at the edge
103
convex lens made of glass has focal length 0.15m in air. If the refractive index of glass is 3/2, and that of water is 4/3 the focal length of lens when immersed in water is
  1. A.0.45 m    
  2. B.0.15 m
  3. C.0.30 m       
  4. D.0.6 m
104
Two sources are said to be coherent if they produce waves
  1. A.having a constant phase difference
  2. B.of equal wavelength
  3. C.of equal speed
  4. D.having same shape of wavefront
105
Three resistors 1 Ω, 2 Ω, 3Ω resistor a 3 V battery is connected. The current through 3 Ω resistor is -
  1. A.0.75 A     
  2. B.1 A
  3. C.2 A         
  4. D.1.5 A
106
In a common emitter amplifier the input signal is applied across
  1. A.anywhere 
  2. B.emitter-collector
  3. C.collector-base
  4. D.base-emitter
107
Adding detergents to water helps in removing dirty greasy stains. This is because
1. It increases greasy stains. This is because
2. It decreases the oil-water surface tension
3. It increases the viscosity of the solution
4. Dirt is held suspended surrounded by detergent molecules
  1. A.2 and 4
  2. B.1 only
  3. C.3 and 4
  4. D.4 only
108
Choose the correct statement (a) for a cricket ball that is spinning clockwise through air
S1 : Statemlines of air are symmetric around the ball.
S2 : The velocity of air above the ball relative to it is larger than that below the ball.
S3 : The velocity of air above the ball relative to it is smaller than that below the ball.
S4 : There is a net upward force on the ball.
  1. A.S1,S2 and S4
  2. B.S2 and S4
  3. C.S4 only
  4. D.S3 only
109
Ferromagnetic materials used in a transformer must have
  1. A.low permeability and high hysterisis loss
  2. B.high permeability and low hysterisis loss
  3. C.high permeability and high hysterisis loss
  4. D.low permeability and low hysterisis loss
110
According to Newton’s corpuscular theory, the speed of light is
  1. A.same in all the medium
  2. B.lesser in rarer medium
  3. C.lesser in denser medium
  4. D.independent of the medium
111
10-6 M NaOH is diluted 100 times. The pH of the diluted base is
  1. A.between 7 and 8
  2. B.between 5 and 6
  3. C.between 6 and 7
  4. D.between 10 and 11
112
In the electrolysis of acidulated water, it is desired to obtain 1.12 cc of hydrogen per second under STP condition. The current to be passed is
  1. A.1.93 A         
  2. B.9.65 A
  3. C.19.3 A        
  4. D.0.965 A
113
The one which decreases with dilution is
  1. A.molar conductance
  2. B.conductance
  3. C.specific conductance
  4. D.equivalent conductance
114
Vapour pressure of pure ‘A’ is 70 mm of Hg at 25oC. It forms an ideal solution with ‘B’ in which mole fraction of A is 0.8. if the vapour pressure of the solution is 84 mm of Hg at 25oC, the vapour pressure of pure ‘B’ at 25oC is
  1. A.28 mm   
  2. B.56 mm
  3. C.70 mm    
  4. D.140 mm
115
A 6% solution of urea is isotonic with
  1. A.1 M solution of glucose
  2. B.0.05 M solution of glucose
  3. C.6% solution of glucose
  4. D.25% solution of glucose
116
In countries nearer to polar region, the roads are sprinkled with CaCl2. This is
  1. A.to minimise the wear and tear of the roads
  2. B.to minimise the snow fall
  3. C.to minimise pollution
  4. D.to minimise the accumulation of dust on the road
117
A compound of ‘A’ and ‘B’ crystallises in a cubic lattice in which ‘A’ atoms occupy the lattice points at the corners of the cube. The ‘B’ atoms occupy the centre of each face of the cube. The probable empirical formula of the compound is
  1. A.AB2 
  2. B.A2B
  3. C.AB
  4. D.AB3
118
In electrophilic aromatic substitution reaction, the nitro group is meta directing because it
  1. A.decreases electron density at ortho and para positions
  2. B.decreases electron density at meta position
  3. C.increases electron  density at meta position
  4. D.increases electron density at ortho and para position
119
The best method for the conversion of an alcohol into an alkyl chloride is by treating the alcohol with
  1. A.PCI5
  2. B.PCI3
  3. C.SOCl2 in presence of pyridine
  4. D.dry HCl in the presence of anhydrous ZnCl2
120
The carbon bond length in benzene is
  1. A.in between C2H6 and C2H4
  2. B.same as in C2H4
  3. C.in between C2H6 and C2H2
  4. D.in between C2H4 and C2H2
121
The respiratory quotient during cellular respiration would depend on
  1. A.the nature of enzymes involved
  2. B.the nature of the substrate
  3. C.the amount of carbon dioxide released
  4. D.the amount of oxygen utilised
122
Which of the following is not a green - house gas ?
  1. A.Water vapour
  2. B.Carbon monoxide
  3. C.Methane
  4. D.Oxygen
123
Both husband and wife have normal vision though their fathers were colorblind and mothers did not have any gene for colorblindness. The probability of their daughters becoming colorblind is
  1. A.50%          
  2. B.75%
  3. C.0% 
  4. D.25%
124
An animal, which has both exoskeleton and endoskeleton structures is a
  1. A.fresh-water mussel
  2. B.tortoise
  3. C.frog
  4. D.jelly fish
125
Identify the group, which includes animals all of which give birth to young ones directly?
  1. A.Dolphin, kangaroo, bat, cat
  2. B.Platypus, penguin, bat, hippopotamus
  3. C.shrew, bat, kiwi, car
  4. D.Lion, whale, ostrich, bat
126
Compare the statement A and B.
Statement A Blood sugar level falls rapidly after hepatectomy.
Statement B The glycogen of the liver is the principal source of blood sugar.
Select the correct description.
  1. A.Both the statements A and B are correct and B is the reason for A
  2. B.Statement A is correct and B is wrong
  3. C.Statement A is wrong and B is correct
  4. D.Both the statements A and B are correct and B is not the reason for A
127
What is/are true about heart wood?
(A) It does not help in water conduction.
(B) It is also called laburnum.
(C) It is dark in colour but very soft.
(D) It has tracheary elements which are filled with tannin, resin, etc.
  1. A.B,C and D
  2. B.A and D
  3. C.B and D
  4. D.A, B and C
128
Compare the statements A and B.
Statement A Auxins promote apical dominance by suppressing the activity of lateral buds.
Statement B In moriculature, periodic pruning of shoot tips is done to make mulberry plants bushy.
Select the correct description.
  1. A.Both the statements A and B are correct and A is the reason for B
  2. B.Statement A is correct and B is wrong
  3. C.Statement A is wrong and B is correct
  4. D.Both the statements A and B are correct and A is not the reason for B
129
Bryophytes resemble algae is the following aspects
  1. A.Filamentous body, presence of vascular tissues and autotrophic nutrition
  2. B.Differentiation of plant body into root, stem and leaves and autotrophic nutrition
  3. C.Thallus like plant body, presence of roots and autotrophic nutrition
  4. D.Thallus like plant body, lack of vascular tissues and autotrophic nutrition
130
Stoma opens, when
  1. A.guard cells swell due to an increase in their water potential
  2. B.guard cells swell by endosmosis duie to influx of hydrogen ions (protons)
  3. C.guard cells swell by endosmosis due to efflux of potassium ions
  4. D.guard cell swell due to a decrease in their water potential
131
What is the rank of India in the ‘WIPO Global Innovation Index 2022’ ?
  1. A.25
  2. B.40
  3. C.50
  4. D.75
132
Who has been appointed as the new Attorney General for India ?
  1. A.R Venkataramani
  2. B.A.J. Sadashiva
  3. C.D Y Chandrachud
  4. D.Ranjan Gogoi
133
Which city is the host of the ‘Conference on International Day for Universal Access to Information’ ?
  1. A.Tashkent
  2. B.Dhaka
  3. C.Nursultan   
  4. D.New Delhi
134
Which state is the host of the National SC-ST hub conclave organised by the Union MSME Ministry ?
  1. A.Jharkhand
  2. B.Gujarat
  3. C.Maharashtra
  4. D.Tamil Nadu
135
‘Operation Garuda’, which was seen in the news, is associated with which organization ?
  1. A.CVC
  2. B.CBI
  3. C.Indian Air Force
  4. D.Indian Navy
136
Who has been named as the only Indian on “Time magazine’s list of 100 emerging leaders’ in September 2022 ?
  1. A.Yash Dahiya
  2. B.Rahul Bajaj
  3. C.Avanish Grover
  4. D.Akash Ambani
137
At which place, Adani Green Energy Ltd (AGEL) commissioned the World’s largest Wind-solar power plant on 29 September 2022 ?
  1. A.Jaisalmer
  2. B.Gandhinagar
  3. C.Jaipur
  4. D.Jodhpur
138
World Maritime Day was observed on 29 September 2022. What was the theme of World Maritime Day 2022 ?
  1. A.A World Without Barriers
  2. B.You Can : Attend the Innovation Forum
  3. C.Save Maritime Species
  4. D.New Technologies for greener Shipping
139
Which state is hosting the 36th National Games from 29 September 2022 ?
  1. A.Punjab
  2. B.Meghalaya
  3. C.Odisha
  4. D.Gujarat
140
Which country has struck a partnership agreement with Pacific island nations on 29 September 2022 ?
  1. A.Mexico
  2. B.United States
  3. C.New Zealand
  4. D.Australia
141
After the recent Monetary Policy Committee Meeting of RBI (October 2022), What is the 2022 - 23 growth projection for India ?
  1. A.6.5%
  2. B.7.0%
  3. C.7.5%
  4. D.8.2%
142
Which institution unveiled a list of 50 exclusive and iconic heritage textile crafts of India ?
  1. A.UNESCO
  2. B.NITI Aayog
  3. C.Union Culture Ministry
  4. D.FICCI
143
Which country has recently signed a partnership agreement with Pacific island nations ?
  1. A.China
  2. B.USA
  3. C.Russia
  4. D.Germany
144
Pangasius Icaria, which was recently discovered in the Cauvery River, belongs to which species ?
  1. A.Turtle
  2. B.Catfish
  3. C.Frog
  4. D.Snake
145
As per a recent UNICEF report, what percent of child marriages can fall down if higher education is provided to girls ?
  1. A.25 percent
  2. B.40 percent
  3. C.60 percent
  4. D.80 percent
146
The Second Round of Foreign Office Consultations between India and ………. Was held in New Delhi on 28 September 2022.
  1. A.Chad
  2. B.Ghana
  3. C.Turkey
  4. D.Nigeria
147
Who was India’s Sherpa at the 3rd G-20 Sherpa meeting held in Yogyakarta, Indonesia from 26 to 29 September 2022 ?
  1. A.Arvind Subramaniam
  2. B.Satish Reddy
  3. C.Dr K. Sivan
  4. D.Amitabh Kant
148
Which country’s navy has staged trilateral anti-submarine exercises with the navies of South Korea and Japan in September 2022 ?
  1. A.USA
  2. B.India
  3. C.China
  4. D.Russia
149
Who has topped the ‘IIFL Wealth Hurun India 40 & Under Self - Made Rich List 202’ released in September 2022 ?
  1. A.Bhavish Aggarwal
  2. B.Shreyaa Bajaj
  3. C.Manish Goyal
  4. D.Nikhil Kamath
150
Who has won gold medal in Men’s Rapid Fire Pistol event at the 36th National Games at Ahmedabad in Gujarat on 30 September 2022 ?
  1. A.Anish
  2. B.Ankur Goyal
  3. C.Gurmeet
  4. D.Satish Gupta
151
Who has won gold in the Women’s 49 kg category at the 36th National Games in Gandhinagar on 30 September 2022 ?
  1. A.Karnam Malleswar
  2. B.Renu Bala Chanu
  3. C.Mirabai Chanu
  4. D.Kunjarani Devi
152
Which day is celebrated as World Vegetarian Day ?
  1. A.1 October
  2. B.2 October
  3. C.3 October
  4. D.4 October
153
What is the rank of India in the 2022 Global Innovation Index, released in September 2022 ?
  1. A.30th
  2. B.10th
  3. C.20th
  4. D.40th
154
Who has been named as the only Indian on “Time magazine’s list of 100 emerging leaders” in September 2022 ?
  1. A.Yash Dahiya
  2. B.Rahul Bajaj
  3. C.Avanish Grover
  4. D.Akash Ambani
155
With which of the following has Airtel partnered to bring India’s first 5G - enabled immersive experience to visitors at the Indian Mobile Congress (IMC) 2022 ?
  1. A.Nokia
  2. B.Samsung
  3. C.Xiaomi
  4. D.Vivo
156
The Gross Goods and Services Tax, GST revenue collection in the month of September 2022 remained at ……… crore rupees.
  1. A.1,35,902
  2. B.1,39,234
  3. C.1,42,098
  4. D.1,47,686
157
Home Minister Amit Shah has approved the release of how many rupees as Central Share of the State Disaster Mitigation Fund (SDMF) to Uttar Pradesh, Punjab and Goa for 2021 - 22 ?
  1. A.Rs 380 Crore
  2. B.Rs 410 Crore
  3. C.Rs 488 Crore
  4. D.Rs 509 Crore
158
Who won her third straight gold medal in the women’s sabre event at the National Games 2022 in Mahatma Gandhi, Gandhinagar on 30 September 2022 ?
  1. A.Mehuli Ghosh
  2. B.Bhavani Devi
  3. C.Manish Moun
  4. D.Sift Kaur Samra
159
When is the International Day of Older Persons across the globe observed ?
  1. A.30 September
  2. B.1 October
  3. C.2 October
  4. D.3 October
160
Which day is celebrated as German Unity Day ?
  1. A.30 September
  2. B.1 October
  3. C.2 October
  4. D.3 October
161
Which city has been named the first in the ‘Swachh Survekshan Awards 2022’ ?
  1. A.Mysuru
  2. B.Indore
  3. C.Chennai
  4. D.Bengaluru
162
The Third Vande Bharat Express Train, which was recently inaugurated (in October 2022), runs between which cities ?
  1. A.New Delhi and Gurugram
  2. B.Mumbai and Ahmedabad
  3. C.Bengaluru and Mysuru
  4. D.Mumbai and Indore
163
What is the process of replacing original payment card details with an alternative code ?
  1. A.Encryption
  2. B.Tokenisation
  3. C.Encoding
  4. D.Restoration
164
Universal Service Obligation Fund (USOF)’ is associated with which Union Ministry ?
  1. A.Ministry of Communications
  2. B.Ministry of Electronics and IT
  3. C.Ministry of MSME
  4. D.Ministry of Commerce and Industry
165
As per UGC guidelines, what is the percentage limit of seats for foreign students in higher Educational Institutions ?
  1. A.25
  2. B.30
  3. C.40
  4. D.45
166
Which Formula One racing driver won the 2022 Singapore Formula 1 Grand Prix on 2 October 2022 ?
  1. A.Charles Leclerc
  2. B.George Russell
  3. C.Sergio Perez
  4. D.Max Verstappen
167
Suzion Energy Founder and renowned expert on renewable energy ……. Passed away on 1 October 2022.
  1. A.Mike Hudema
  2. B.Mike Scheiner
  3. C.Tulsi Tanti
  4. D.Andrew Laird
168
Who has become the first Indian Cricketer to feature in 400 T20 matches ?
  1. A.Rohit Sharma
  2. B.Sachin Tendulkar
  3. C.Virat Kohli
  4. D.Suresh Raina
169
With which country, India has signed an export order for missiles, rockets and ammunition in October 2022 ?
  1. A.Azerbaijan
  2. B.Iran
  3. C.Mongolia
  4. D.Armenia
170
In the big states category, which state has been given the first prize award for Swachh Survekshan Grameen 2022 ?
  1. A.Kerala
  2. B.Telangana
  3. C.Tamil Nadu
  4. D.Haryana
171
What is the name of the first indigenously developed light combat helicopters (LCH) ?
  1. A.Pratabh
  2. B.Prachand
  3. C.Prakash
  4. D.Vikas
172
Which Union Ministry is associated with ‘YUVA 2.0’ Scheme ?
  1. A.Ministry of Education
  2. B.Ministry of MSME
  3. C.Ministry of Youth Affairs and Sports
  4. D.Ministry of Commerce and Industry
173
Swachh Bharat Diwas is celebrated on which date in India ?
  1. A.October 4
  2. B.October 6
  3. C.October 2
  4. D.October 8
174
What is the minimum net worth of Regional rural banks (RRBs), to be eligible to list on stock exchanges ?
  1. A.Rs 100 crores
  2. B.Rs 250 crores
  3. C.Rs 300 crores
  4. D.Rs 500 crores
175
Which state won the first prize under the Large states category under Swachh Survekshan Gramin (SSG) 2022 ?
  1. A.Tamil Nadu
  2. B.Telangana
  3. C.Maharashtra
  4. D.Karnataka
176
Who took over as the chairman and managing director of GAIL (India) Limited in October 2022 ?
  1. A.Dharamveer Singh
  2. B.Ravi Kumar Paswan
  3. C.Kripa Shankar
  4. D.Sandeep Kumar Gupta
177
PayU Payments terminated the deal to acquire Indian Payment aggregator Bill Desk after, conditions on the deal were not met. PayU payments company is based in …..
  1. A.Netherlands
  2. B.United Kingdom
  3. C.Russia
  4. D.Germany
178
Who has been appointed as the National President of Indian American Chambers of Commerce (IACC) in October 2022 ?
  1. A.Lalit Bhasin
  2. B.Sachin Dave
  3. C.Ravi Bajaj
  4. D.Mohan Bansal
179
Who was elected as the Vice President of the International Astronautical Federation (IAF) during its Annual Conference held in Paris in September 2022 ?
  1. A.William Issac
  2. B.Donald Franklin
  3. C.Dr. Anil Kumar
  4. D.Abdul Mehadi
180
Who took charge as 37th Director General (DG) of Central Reserve Police Force (CRPF) in October 2022 ?
  1. A.Rashmi Shukla
  2. B.Kuldeep Singh
  3. C.Sujoy Lal Thaosen
  4. D.Sanjeev Ranjan Ojha
181
Svante Paabo, won the 2022 Nobel Prize in Physiology or medicine, is a geneticist from which country ?
  1. A.USA
  2. B.Germany
  3. C.Australia
  4. D.Sweden
182
What is India’s GDP Growth projection for 2022-23, as per UNCTAD Annual Trade and Development Report ?
  1. A.6.2%
  2. B.6.0%
  3. C.5.7%
  4. D.5.5%
183
Which country has scrapped the proposal to cut tax for the wealthy ?
  1. A.USA
  2. B.UK
  3. C.France
  4. D.Italy
184
Which state/UT is the host of the ‘Digital India Conference of state IT Ministers ?
  1. A.Varanasi
  2. B.New Delhi
  3. C.Mumbai
  4. D.Mysuru
185
‘Optimus’ is the prototype humanoid robot, launched by which company ?
  1. A.Apple
  2. B.Tesla
  3. C.Amazon
  4. D.Samsung
186
World Teachers’ Day, also known as International Teachers’ Day, is celebrated on 5th October every year. What is the theme of World Teacher’s Day in 2022 ?
  1. A.The Transformation of educational begins with teachers
  2. B.Teachers and Students
  3. C.Young Teachers: The Future of the Profession
  4. D.Teacher: by passion not profession
187
The 6th Edition of the India Mobile Congress concluded on 4th of October 2022 in ………..
  1. A.Ahmedabad
  2. B.Jaipur
  3. C.Bhopal
  4. D.New Delhi
188
Who has taken over as the Director General Ordnance (C&S) with effect from 1st October 2022 ?
  1. A.Rabindra Kumar
  2. B.Satish Reddy
  3. C.R.V. Iyyer
  4. D.Sanjeev Kishore
189
Who among the following has won the Shanmugha Arts, Science, Technology & Research Academy (SASTRA) Ramanujan Prize for 2022 ?
  1. A.Yunqing Tang
  2. B.Yifeng Liu Jack Thorne
  3. C.Adam Harper
  4. D.Shai Evra
190
Who has won the United Nations refugee agency’s prestigious Nansen Award in October 2022 ?
  1. A.Donald Trump
  2. B.Emmanuel Macron
  3. C.Justin Trudeau
  4. D.Angela Merkel
191
President Droupadi Murmu launched ‘herSTART’, a startup platform for women entrepreneurs in which city ?
  1. A.Mumbai
  2. B.Ahmedabad
  3. C.Varanasi
  4. D.Lucknow
192
Who is the recipient of 2022 Nansen Award given by UN High Commissioner for Refugees ?
  1. A.Xi Jinping
  2. B.Angela Merkel
  3. C.Volodymyr Zelenskyy
  4. D.Anthony Albanese
193
Which Union Ministry implements the ‘Pradhan Mantri Kaushal Vikas Yojana (PMKVY) ?
  1. A.Ministry of Finance
  2. B.Ministry of Skill Development and Entrepreneurship
  3. C.Ministry of Education
  4. D.Ministry of MSME
194
As per recent government data, which state has the highest gap in infant mortality rate between boys and girls in 2020 ?
  1. A.Odisha
  2. B.Haryana
  3. C.Chhattisgarh
  4. D.Bihar
195
World Cerebral Palsy Day (WCPD) is observed on 6th October every year. It was first celebrated in …..?
  1. A.1997
  2. B.2007
  3. C.2012
  4. D.2022
196
In which state, Prime Minister Narendra Modi inaugurated the Ali India Institute of Medical Sciences (AIIMS) on 5th October 2022 ?
  1. A.Himachal Pradesh
  2. B.Assam
  3. C.Nagaland
  4. D.Tripura
197
Which country has emerged as the World’s largest producer and consumer of sugar as well as its second largest exporter in 2021 - 22 ?
  1. A.India
  2. B.Brazil
  3. C.China
  4. D.Canada
198
To which country, Indian Navy Ship INS Tir and INS Sujata along with the Indian Coast guard Ship Sarathi arrived for a training exchange visit on 4th Oct 2022 ?
  1. A.Kuwait
  2. B.Thailand
  3. C.Saudi Arabia
  4. D.Iran
199
The 6th Edition of the India Mobile Congress concluded on 4th October 2022 in ………
  1. A.Ahmedabad
  2. B.Jaipur
  3. C.Bhopal
  4. D.New Delhi
200
Which is the charge levied for Rupay Credit card use on UPI for transactions up to Rs. 2,000 ?
  1. A.0.5%
  2. B.2%
  3. C.5%
  4. D.No change