Latest MP High Court District Judge Exam Question (Objective Questions), MCQ in English
Subjects : Code of Civil Procedure, 1908 and The Commercial Courts Act, 2015Code of Civil Procedure, 1908 and The Commercial Courts Act, 2015, Code of Civil Procedure, 1908 and The Commercial Courts Act, 2015, The Limitation Act, 1963, The Specific Relief Act, 1963, The Motor Vehicles Act, 1988 The Madhya Pradesh Motor Vehicles Rules, 1994, Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita, 2023, (46 of 2023), Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973 and The National Investigation Agency Act, Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023, Indian Evidence Act, 1872 and Medical Jurisprudence and DNA Interpretation/Profiling, Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023 (45 of 2023), Indian Penal Code, 1860 and The Prevention of Corruption Act, 1988, The Negotiable Instruments Act, The Electricity Act, The Narcotic Drugs and Psychotropic Substances Act, 1985, The Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes, Hindu & Muslim Law, The Protection of Children from Sexual Offences Act, The Juvenile Justice, The Information Technology Act
Question Bank MP High Court District Judge Exam - English
Code of Civil Procedure, 1908 and The Commercial Courts Act, 2015
Question 1Single Answer
Commercial dispute resolution in India during the British period was mainly handled by which courts?
A
Revenue Courts
B
Military Courts
C
Presidency Town Courts
D
Village Panchayats
Question 2Single Answer
The establishment of High Courts in India in 1861 was under which Act?
A
Indian High Courts Act, 1861
B
Government of India Act, 1858
C
Indian Councils Act, 1861
D
Civil Courts Act, 1870
Question 3Single Answer
Before the Commercial Courts Act, 2015, commercial disputes were primarily governed by which law?
A
Indian Contract Act, 1872
B
Arbitration and Conciliation Act, 1996
C
Code of Civil Procedure, 1908
D
Companies Act, 1956
Question 4Single Answer
Which committee recommended specialized commercial courts in India?
A
Malimath Committee
B
Justice V.S. Malimath Committee
C
Justice B.N. Srikrishna Committee
D
Justice Rajinder Sachar Committee
Question 5Single Answer
The Law Commission of India strongly recommended commercial courts in which report?
A
253rd Report
B
188th Report
C
214th Report
D
200th Report
Code of Civil Procedure, 1908 and The Commercial Courts Act, 2015Code of Civil Procedure, 1908 and The Commercial Courts Act, 2015
Question 6Single Answer
The Code of Civil Procedure, 1908 extends to?
A
Whole of India including Jammu & Kashmir
B
Whole of India except Jammu & Kashmir
C
Only metropolitan cities
D
Only rural areas
Question 7Single Answer
When did the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908 come into force?
A
1 January 1909
B
1 January 1908
C
1 January 1910
D
1 January 1911
Question 8Single Answer
Which section of CPC defines “plaintiff” and “defendant”?
A
Section 4
B
Section 3
C
Section 2
D
Section 5
Question 9Single Answer
The term “Court” under CPC means?
A
Civil Court only
B
Criminal Court only
C
Both civil and criminal courts
D
Administrative tribunal
Question 10Single Answer
“Decree” under CPC means?
A
Formal expression of adjudication which conclusively determines rights of parties
B
Any order passed by court
C
Only interim order
D
None of the above
The Limitation Act, 1963
Question 11Single Answer
Limitation Act cam into force on :
A
5th October
B
11th November, 1963
C
30th December, 1963
D
1st January, 1964
Question 12Single Answer
Limitation Act
A
Has to be constructed strictly
B
Is an exhaustive code
C
Is a rule of procedures
D
All of the above
Question 13Single Answer
Under the Limitation Act, 1963 'Applicant' means
A
A petitioner
B
Person from or though whom an applicant derives his title
C
Any person whose estate is represented by the applicant as executor administration or other representative
D
All of the above
The Specific Relief Act, 1963
Question 14Single Answer
The Specific Relief act, 1963 was enacted on
A
11th December, 1963
B
14th December, 1963
C
21stDecember, 1963
D
13th December, 1963
Question 15Single Answer
Specific Relief Act, 1963, came into operation on -
A
December 14, 1963
B
January 1, 1964
C
Febuary1, 1964
D
March 1, 1964
Question 16Single Answer
An instrument is not "settlement" under the Specific Relief Act
A
wherebyan interest in the property is devolved by a will
B
whereby devolution of an interest in a movable property is disposed of
C
whereby devolution of successive interests in an immovable property is disposed of
D
whereby devolution of interest in an immovable property is only agreed to be disposed of
Question 17Single Answer
In Specific Relief Act all other words and expressions used but not defined, then their definition and meaning would be the same which has been defined under -
A
Transfer of Property Act, 1882
B
Civil Procedure Code, 1908
C
Indian Contract Act, 1872
D
Easement Act
Question 18Single Answer
The words and expressions used in the Specific Relief Act, but not defined in the Act, have meaning as defined in the
A
General Clauses
B
Indian Contract Act
C
Transfer of Property Act
D
Civil Procedure Code
The Motor Vehicles Act, 1988 The Madhya Pradesh Motor Vehicles Rules, 1994
Question 19Single Answer
What permit is required for driving a vehicle temporarily abroad under Chapter IX?
A
International driving permit
B
Local driving license
C
Vehicle registration certificate
D
Insurance policy
Question 20Single Answer
What does Chapter IX regulate for vehicles visiting India?
A
Local registration
B
Foreign registered vehicles
C
Emission standards
D
Speed limits
Question 21Single Answer
Who constitutes the Claims Tribunal under MP Motor Vehicles Rules, 1994?
A
State Government
B
District Judge
C
Prescribed authority by the State Government
D
Any Magistrate
Question 22Single Answer
What is the tenure of the Presiding Officer of the Claims Tribunal?
A
3 years
B
5 years
C
As prescribed by State Government
D
2 years
Question 23Single Answer
Who can file a claim under the Claims Tribunal?
A
Only vehicle owner
B
Only driver
C
Insurance company only
D
Any person suffering loss due to accident
Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita, 2023, (46 of 2023), Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973 and The National Investigation Agency Act
Question 24Single Answer
1. Which of the following is correct answer ?
i. Provisions of Cr.P.C. not apply to the State of Jammu and Kashmir
ii. All provisions of Cr.P.C. not apply to the State of Nagaland
Choose the correct answer
A
Only (i) is correct
B
Only (ii) is correct
C
Both (i) and (ii) are incorrect
D
Both (i) and (ii) are correct
Question 25Single Answer
Which among the following chapters of the Cr.P.C., 1973 does not apply to the State of Nagaland and the tribal areas ?
A
Chapter VIII
B
Chapter IX
C
Chapter X
D
Chapter XI
Question 26Single Answer
The provisions of Code of Criminal Procedure 1973, other than those relating to Chapter VIII, X and XI, thereof shall not apply in which of the following -
A
State of Tripura
B
State of Assam
C
State of Meghalya
D
State of Nagaland
Question 27Single Answer
Reason for non-applicability of some of the provisions of the Criminal Procedure Code to the State of Nagaland have been stated by the Supreme Court in -
A
State of Nagaland v. Ratan Singh
B
Maharaja Vikram Kishore of Tripura v. Province of Assam
C
Zarzoliana v. Government of Mizoram
D
State of Nagaland v. Chung
Question 28Single Answer
What is the main objective of Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita, 2023?
A
Regulate traffic rules
B
Control vehicle emissions
C
Ensure citizen safety and security
D
Promote insurance policies
Question 29Single Answer
Who is primarily responsible for implementing the Sanhita at district level?
A
District Judge
B
Superintendent of Police
C
State Government
D
Local Municipal Authority
Question 30Single Answer
Which authority can impose penalties under the Sanhita?
A
Any Magistrate
B
Police Officer empowered under Sanhita
C
District Collector
D
Municipal Commissioner
Question 31Single Answer
Who can constitute the NIA under the Act?
A
Prime Minister
B
High Court
C
State Government
D
Central Government
Question 32Single Answer
Who appoints the Director General of the NIA?
A
President of India
B
Central Government
C
State Government
D
Supreme Court
Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023, Indian Evidence Act, 1872 and Medical Jurisprudence and DNA Interpretation/Profiling
Question 33Single Answer
The Draft of Indian Evidence Act, 1872 was prepared by .
A
Lord Macaulay
B
Sir James F. Stephen
C
Huxley
D
Sir Henery Maine
Question 34Single Answer
Who drafted the Indian Evidence Act
A
Lord Denning
B
A.V. Dicey
C
Lord Macaulay
D
J. F. Stephen
Question 35Single Answer
Which of the following statements is correct in relation to Evidence Act ?
A
Sir Henry Maine prepared the draft Bill of the Act
B
Sir James Stephen prepared the draft Bill of the Act
C
The draft Bill of the Act was prepared by II Law
D
None of the above
Question 36Single Answer
The law of evidence under the Indian Evidence Act, 1872 is
A
Substantive Law
B
Procedural Law
C
Substantive and Procedural Law
D
None of the above
Question 37Single Answer
Law of evidence is
A
A substantive law
B
an adjective law
C
Both (A) and (B)
D
Neither (A) nor (B)
Question 38Single Answer
Medical Jurisprudence primarily deals with:
A
Legal issues related to medical practice
B
Medical ethics
C
Criminal law
D
All of the above
Question 39Single Answer
The field of Medical Jurisprudence is essential for:
A
Forensic investigations
B
Hospital administration
C
Patient care
D
Medical research
Question 40Single Answer
What is the primary objective of the Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023?
A
Regulate motor vehicles
B
Control cybercrime
C
Consolidate laws relating to evidence
D
Monitor financial frauds
Question 41Single Answer
Who has the authority to frame rules under the Sakshya Adhiniyam?
A
State Governments
B
Central Government
C
High Court
D
District Judge
Question 42Single Answer
Does the Sakshya Adhiniyam apply to all judicial proceedings in India?
A
No, only to civil courts
B
Yes, unless specially excluded
C
Only criminal courts
D
Only High Courts
Question 43Single Answer
What is the definition of “evidence” under the Sakshya Adhiniyam?
A
Only oral testimony
B
Only documentary evidence
C
Only expert evidence
D
Includes oral, documentary, electronic, and material evidence
Question 44Single Answer
Who can give evidence under the Adhiniyam?
A
Only citizens
B
Only experts
C
Only police officers
D
Any person competent to testify
Question 45Single Answer
What does DNA stand for?
A
Dicarboxy Nucleic Acid
B
Deoxyribonuclear Acid
C
Deoxyribonucleic Acid
D
Deoxyribonitric Acid
Question 46Single Answer
What is the primary use of DNA profiling in forensic science?
A
Predicting disease
B
Identifying individuals
C
Measuring blood pressure
D
Estimating age
Question 47Single Answer
Which type of DNA is commonly used in forensic investigations?
A
Mitochondrial DNA
B
Nuclear DNA
C
Ribosomal DNA
D
Messenger RNA
Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023 (45 of 2023), Indian Penal Code, 1860 and The Prevention of Corruption Act, 1988
Question 48Single Answer
The draft of the Indian Penal Code was prepared by ?
A
First Law Commission
B
Second Law Commission
C
Third Law Commission
D
Sixteen Law Commission
Question 49Single Answer
Who is associated with drafting of Indian Penal Code ?
A
Lord Macaulay
B
Mullah
C
Sir H.S. Mayne
D
Frederock Pollock
Question 50Single Answer
Who was the President of the drafting committee of the Indian Penal Code ?
A
Lord William Bentick
B
Lord Macaulay
C
Lord Macaulay
D
Lord Macaulay
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Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023 (45 of 2023), Indian Penal Code, 1860 and The Prevention of Corruption Act, 1988
Question 51Single Answer
What is the official name of the legislation that replaced the Indian Penal Code, 1860?
A
Bharatiya Penal Code, 2023
B
Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023
C
Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023
D
Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita, 2023
Question 52Single Answer
When did the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023 receive presidential assent?
A
August 11, 2023
B
December 12, 2023
C
December 25, 2023
D
July 1, 2024
Question 53Single Answer
On which date did the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023 come into force?
A
December 25, 2023
B
January 1, 2024
C
July 1, 2024
D
August 15, 2024
Question 54Single Answer
What is the main objective of the Prevention of Corruption Act, 1988?
A
Regulate trade
B
Monitor elections
C
Control financial fraud in banks
D
Combat corruption in public offices
Question 55Single Answer
Who is considered a “public servant” under the Act?
A
Any government employee
B
Only elected officials
C
Only police officers
D
Any person in service of public authority
Question 56Single Answer
Which section deals with taking gratification for doing or forbearing official acts?
A
Section 7
B
Section 8
C
Section 9
D
Section 10
Question 57Single Answer
What is the punishment for public servant accepting a bribe under Section 7?
A
Imprisonment up to 5 years and fine
B
Imprisonment up to 3 years
C
Imprisonment up to 10 years
D
Fine only
The Negotiable Instruments Act
Question 58Single Answer
The Negotiable Instruments Act, 1881, deals primarily with:
A
Contracts
B
Property
C
Negotiable instruments
D
Company law
Question 59Single Answer
Which of the following is not considered a negotiable instrument?
A
Cheque
B
Bill of exchange
C
Promissory note
D
Contract
The Electricity Act
Question 60Single Answer
What is the primary objective of the Electricity Act, 2003?
A
Control coal mining
B
Regulate generation, transmission, distribution, and use of electricity
C
Regulate water supply
D
Manage petroleum resources
Question 61Single Answer
Who has the authority to grant licenses for electricity supply?
A
State Electricity Regulatory Commission
B
Central Government
C
High Court
D
Local Municipality
The Narcotic Drugs and Psychotropic Substances Act, 1985
Question 62Single Answer
The Narcotic Drugs and Psychotropic Substances Act was enacted in:
A
1980
B
1985
C
1990
D
1995
Question 63Single Answer
The primary objective of the Narcotic Drugs and Psychotropic Substances Act is to:
A
Promote drug usage
B
Regulate and control operations relating to narcotic drugs and psychotropic substances
C
Increase the production of drugs
D
Provide healthcare
Question 64Single Answer
The term "narcotic drugs" under the Act includes:
A
Opium
B
Cocaine
C
Cannabis
D
All of the above
Question 65Single Answer
Which of the following is a psychotropic substance as per the Act?
A
Heroin
B
Cannabis
C
LSD
D
Opium
Question 66Single Answer
The Act prohibits the manufacture, sale, and possession of narcotic drugs and psychotropic substances except for:
A
Personal use
B
Medical purposes
C
Educational purposes
D
Research purposes
The Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes
Question 67Single Answer
The SC and ST Act, 1989, aims to prevent atrocities against:
A
Minorities
B
Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes
C
Women
D
Children
Question 68Single Answer
Under the SC and ST Act, 1989, the term 'atrocity' refers to:
A
Any minor inconvenience
B
Acts of violence or discrimination
C
Unjust laws
D
Economic disparities
Question 69Single Answer
The SC and ST Act, 1989, provides for the establishment of:
A
Special courts
B
General courts
C
Community service centers
D
None of the above
Question 70Single Answer
Under the SC and ST Act, 1989, a victim of atrocity can file a complaint:
A
Only through a lawyer
B
At any police station
C
Only at the district court
D
None of the above
Question 71Single Answer
The SC and ST Act, 1989, was enacted to address issues primarily faced by:
A
All citizens
B
Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes
C
Urban populations
D
Women and children
Question 72Single Answer
According to the SC and ST Act, 1989, the punishment for committing atrocities can include:
A
Fine
B
Imprisonment
C
Both a and b
D
Community service
Question 73Single Answer
The SC and ST Act, 1989, emphasizes the need for:
A
Awareness and education
B
Economic growth
C
Political representation
D
Land reforms
Question 74Single Answer
Under the SC and ST Act, 1989, an atrocity includes:
A
Discrimination in employment
B
Social ostracism
C
Both a and b
D
None of the above
Question 75Single Answer
The SC and ST Act, 1989, mandates that the police must:
A
Investigate all complaints
B
Ignore minor issues
C
Only report to higher authorities
D
None of the above
Question 76Single Answer
The SC and ST Act, 1989, allows for the appointment of:
A
Special public prosecutors
B
Community leaders
C
Local politicians
D
None of the above
Hindu & Muslim Law
Question 77Single Answer
Hindu Law is
A
Civil Law
B
Personal Law
C
Constitutional Law
D
Criminal Law
Question 78Single Answer
Who amongst the following had said while defining the Hindu law that "Hindu Law is law of Smritis" ?
A
Derret
B
Salmond
C
Maine
D
K.P. Rangaswami
Question 79Single Answer
Who among the following is known as founder of Hindu Law ?
A
Narad
B
Manu
C
Yajnavalkya
D
Vigyaneswara
Question 80Single Answer
According to Manu, which of the following are the sources from which knowledge of Hindu Law is to be derived
A
Shruti
B
Smriti
C
Approved usage
D
Purans
Question 81Single Answer
Manu Smriti is related with :
A
Economics
B
Political Science
C
Medical Jurisprudence
D
Law
Question 82Single Answer
In respect of family relations, the law applicable in India is
A
Secular law in India
B
Statutory law
C
Religious law
D
Personal law of the parties
Question 83Single Answer
Under the Muslim Law, marriage is regarded as a -
A
Sacrament
B
Contract
C
Social need
D
Tradition
Question 84Single Answer
A muslim goes to any country of the world -
A
With his personal law
B
Without his personal law
C
Leaving his personal law in his country
D
With an object of obeying the laws of the country concern which includes personal law
Question 85Single Answer
Who said, "Divorce good in law though bad in Theology" ?
A
Justice Mittar
B
Justice Bachloar
C
Justice Beharul Islam
D
Justice Amir Ali
Question 86Single Answer
Which on of the following was appointed as Khalifa after the death of Mohammad Sahib, the Prophet
A
Abu Hanifa
B
Ummar
C
Abu Bakr
D
Ali Sahib
The Protection of Children from Sexual Offences Act
Question 87Single Answer
What is the primary objective of the POCSO Act, 2012?
A
Protect children from sexual abuse and exploitation
B
Regulate child labor
C
Monitor child education
D
Protect children from malnutrition
Question 88Single Answer
Who is considered a “child” under the POCSO Act?
A
Any person below 14 years of age
B
Any person below 16 years of age
C
Any person below 18 years of age
D
Any person below 21 years of age
Question 89Single Answer
What constitutes sexual assault under the Act?
A
Both a and b
B
Non-penetrative sexual conduct
C
Penetrative sexual conduct with a child
D
Only verbal harassment
Question 90Single Answer
Which section deals with penetrative sexual assault?
A
Section 3
B
Section 4
C
Section 5
D
Section 6
Question 91Single Answer
Which section defines sexual harassment of a child?
A
Section 7
B
Section 6
C
Section 4
D
Section 5
Question 92Single Answer
Which section covers using a child for pornography?
A
Section 14
B
Section 12
C
Section 10
D
Section 8
Question 93Single Answer
Can online sexual abuse of children be punished under POCSO?
A
Only in offline scenarios
B
No
C
Only for adults
D
Yes, explicitly included
The Juvenile Justice
Question 94Single Answer
What is the primary objective of the Juvenile Justice Act, 2015?
A
Punish minors like adults
B
Reform and rehabilitate children in conflict with law and protect children in need of care
C
Regulate schools
D
Monitor child labor only
Question 95Single Answer
What is the age limit for a child under the Act?
A
Below 18 years
B
Below 16 years
C
Below 14 years
D
Below 21 years
Question 96Single Answer
Which body deals with juveniles in conflict with law?
A
Child Welfare Committee
B
Juvenile Justice Board
C
High Court
D
Local Police
The Information Technology Act
Question 97Single Answer
What is the primary objective of the IT Act, 2000?
A
To govern telecommunications
B
To regulate banking transactions only
C
To monitor internet content only
D
To provide legal recognition for electronic transactions and prevent cybercrime
Question 98Single Answer
Which section deals with penalties for tampering with computer source documents?